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Antibiotic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Methicillin was withdrawn from the market due to this side effect

A

Interstitial nephritis

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2
Q

Isoxazolyl penicillin that was withdrawn from the market due to neutropenia

A

Nafcillin

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3
Q

Three antipseudomonal penicillins

A

Carbenicillin
Piperacillin
Ticarcillin

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4
Q

Second generation cephalosporins (2) known for disulfiram reaction

A

Cefamandole

Cefotetan

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5
Q

Side effect in third generation cephalosporins unique to cefoperazone

A

Disulfiram reaction

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6
Q

Three antipseudomonal cephalosporins

A

Cefepime
Cefoperazone
Ceftazidime

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7
Q

This drug, when co-administered with imipenem, inhibits the renal metabolism of the latter

A

Cilastatin

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8
Q

Three beta lactamase inhibitors

A

Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

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9
Q

Mechanism of action of vancomycin

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of nascent peptidoglycan

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10
Q

Red man syndrome, a side effect of vancomycin, is treated by

A

Slowing the rate of infusion

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11
Q

Bacitracin is reserved for topical use due to

A

Nephrotoxicity

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12
Q

This antibiotic that inactivates the enzyme UDP-N-acetylglucosamine-3-enolpyruvyltransferase is used to treat uncomplicated UTI and is safe for pregnant women

A

Fosfomycin

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13
Q

Daptomycin binds to cell membrane causing depolarization and rapid cell death. It is bactericidal and is used for Gram positive infections. What is its side effect and how is this side effect monitored?

A

Myopathy

Monitor weekly creatine phosphokinase

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14
Q

Two protein synthesis inhibitor drug classes that bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit

A

Aminoglycosides

Tetracycline

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15
Q

Chloramphenicol inhibits this enzyme at the 50s subunit

A

Peptidyl transferase

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16
Q

Idiosyncratic hematologic side effect of chloramphenicol

A

Aplastic anemia

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17
Q

Gray baby syndrome, a side effect of chloramphenicol, results from a lack of this mechanism for the degradation and detoxification of chloramphenicol.

A

Glucuronic acid conjugation

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18
Q

It is illegal in the Philippines to prescribe teracycline to this population group

A

Children under 8 years

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19
Q

Drug that has the broadest spectrum among tetracyclines

A

Tigecycline

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20
Q

Tetracyclines are better absorbed in a/an (acidic / basic) environment.

A

Acidic

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21
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor used for SIADH

A

Demeclocyline

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22
Q

All macrolides inhibit CYP450 except

A

Azithromycin

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23
Q

Macrolide with the highest volume of distribution and slowest elimination.

A

Azithromycin

24
Q

50s ribosomal inhibitor used in macrolide resistance

A

Telithromycin

25
Q

Drug class of clindamycin

A

Lincosamide

26
Q

Azithromycin is added to the regimen for acute urethritis to cover for:

A

Chlamydia sp.

27
Q

Most commin cause of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

28
Q

Quinopristin-Dalfopristin are streptogramins that cause multiple drug interaction due to inhibition of this subtype of CYP450 enzyme.

29
Q

Antibiotics of choice for anaerobic infections (2)

A

Clindamycin: Above the diaphragm
Metronidazole: Below the diaphragm

30
Q

Postantibiotic effect is seen in this drug class

A

Aminoglycosides

31
Q

Narrowest therapeutic window among aminoglycosides

32
Q

True / False: Aminoglycosides work under anaerobic conditions.

A

False. Aminoglycosides require oxygen for uptake.

33
Q

Most vestibulotoxic and nephrotoxic among aminoglycosides (2)

A

Gentamicin

Tobramycin

34
Q

Teratogenic side effect of streptomycin

A

Congenital deafness

35
Q

Aminoglycoside used for hepatic encephalopathy

36
Q

Most ototoxic aminoglycoside

A

Amikacin

Kanamycin

37
Q

Aminoglycoside used for kala-azar

A

Paramomycin

38
Q

Spectinomycin is acts on this bacteria

A

Niesseria gonorrhea

39
Q

Neuromuscular blockade caused by aminoglycosides are reversed with

A

Calcium

Neostigmine

40
Q

Aminoglycosides exert synergistic effects with this antibiotic drug class

A

Beta-lactams

41
Q

Long-acting sulfonamide

A

Sulfadoxine

42
Q

Sulfonamides are competitive inhibitors of this enzyme

A

Dihydropteroate synthase

43
Q

Drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

Trimethoprim

44
Q

Sulfonamide used in burn infections

A

Silver sulfadiazine

45
Q

Patients with this disease are susceptible to hemolytic anemia when given trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

A

G6PD deficiency

46
Q

Sulfonamides can displace protein binding of drugs and bilirubin, keading to kernicterus. Where does the unconjugated bilirubin deposit?

A

Basal ganglia

Subcortical nuclei

47
Q

Quinolones inhibit these enzymes (2)

A 
Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) in gram-negative organisms
Topoisomerase IV in gram-positive organisms
48
Q

Fluoroquinolones enhance the toxicity of these drugs used for asthma

A

Methylxanthines

49
Q

Tendon rupture is a rare side effect of this drug class on adults

A

Fluoroquinolones

50
Q

True / False: Arthropathy from fluoroquinolone use before 18 years of age is reversible

51
Q

Fluoroquinolones that may cause QTc prolongation

A 
Gatifloxacin
Gemifloxaxin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
(Third generation)
52
Q

Two fourth generation fluoroquinolones

A

Trovafloxacin

Alarrofloxacin

53
Q

Hepatotoxicity is a side effect of this fluoroquinolone

A

Trovafloxacin

54
Q

Metronidazole undergoes reactive reduction by ferredoxin, forming free radicals that disrupt this component of metabolism.

A

Electron transport chain

55
Q

Nitrofurantoin is effective for most bacterial urinary tract infections except those caused by (2)

A

Proteus sp.

Pseudomonas sp.

Pharmacology (22 decks)

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