Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the time period for a human to be considered a embryo?

A

fertilization to 8 weeks

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2
Q

What is the time period for a human to be considered a fetus?

A

Week 8 to birth

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3
Q

What is a fertilized egg called?

A

zygote

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4
Q

When a cell undergoes mitosis and is 8 to 16 cells what is it called? 1. Are these cell differentiated? 2. Where is this usually located? 3

A
  1. morula
  2. no
  3. stage usually entering uterus
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5
Q

What is it called when the embryo stays in the fallopian tube?

A

tubal pregnancy

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6
Q

What is it called when the embryo is not in the uterus?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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7
Q

What is it called when the morula begins to cavitate when in the uterus?

A

blastocyst

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8
Q

What does the blastocyst differentiate into:

  1. covers entire outside of blastocyst
  2. at one pole of embryo
A
  1. trophoblast

2. inner cell mass

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9
Q

Is contact with the endometrium and the blastocyst at the pole or away from the pole?

A

at the pole

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10
Q

What does the trophoblast differentiate into? and which of them moves into the uterine wall>

A
  1. cytotrophoblast
  2. syncytiotrophoblast
  3. syncytiotrophoblast
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11
Q

What does the embryo start to secrete around day 9?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

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12
Q

Without conception, what does the corpus luteum involute into?

A

corpus albicans

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13
Q

What hormone causes dozens of follicles to develop?

A

FSH

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14
Q

What do follicular cells secrete that has a negative feedback on FSH?

A

estrogen

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15
Q

What does luteinizing hormone (LH) do?

A
  1. Turns follicular cells yellow

2. triggers ovulation

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16
Q

What does the corpus luteum secrete that initiates secretory phase?

A

progesterone

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17
Q

When estrogen and progesterone decrease what section of the uterus becomes ischemic and sloughs off?

A

zona functionalis

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18
Q

What does Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) do?

A
  1. maintain uterus in gravid state (missed period)

2. allows embryonic implantation

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19
Q

Syncytio and cytotrophoblast continue to develop to form what?

A

placenta

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20
Q

After how many months does the placenta release progesterone and what does this progesterone do?

A

2 months and it eliminates the corpus luteum

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21
Q

Embryoblast cells differentiate into:

  1. monolayer ventral layer near blastocyst cavity
  2. Remaining cells
A
  1. endoderm

2. epiblast

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22
Q

What is the second fluid filled area formed dorsal to the embryo?

A

Amniotic cavity

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23
Q

At the end of week two, a group of endoderm cells at one pole of embryo further differentiate to form: 1. Which end of the embryo is this? 2

A
  1. prochordal plate

2. cranial

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24
Q

What is it called when the trophoblast is maintained during pregnancy but inner cell mass fails to develop embryoblast? 1. Why are there no signs and symptoms of this? 2. What is it caused by? 3. What are the options for the mother? 4

A
  1. Blighted ovum
  2. hCG is maintained so seems like pregnancy still
  3. chromosomal abnormalities
  4. miscarry or D&C
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25
Q

What is the formation of a trilaminar embryo called?

A

gastrulation

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26
Q

What is the formation of the central nervous system called?

A

neurolation

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27
Q

What are the two parallel rows of epiblast cells at the caudal axial pole with a trench between them called? 1. What is the morphology of these cells? 2

A
  1. primitive streak cells

2. columnar

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28
Q

Once the formation of primitive streak cells takes place what are all other cells now called?

A

ectoderm

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29
Q

What is the layer that forms when the primitive streak cells mitose and touch at midline then migrate ventrally making a layer in between two other layers?

A

mesoderm

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30
Q

The primitive knot is located at the 1 end of the 2. It is a circular mass which cells move 3 through its center. Once these cells reach the mesoderm they migrate in an axial pattern towards 4. What structure do these cells from? 5

A
  1. cranial
  2. primitive streak
  3. radially inward
  4. prechordal plate
  5. notochord
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31
Q

What layer of tissue is most dorsal in a trilaminar embryo?

A

ectoderm

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32
Q

What releases growth factor that causes ectoderm cells to have gene activation and differentiation? 1. What are these differentiated cells called? 2. What are all other cells that did not differentiate now called?

A
  1. notochord
  2. neuroectoderm
  3. surface ectoderm
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33
Q

Neuroectoderm cells form a groove which eventually form into a 1. This is then covered over dorsally by 2

A
  1. neural tube

2. surface ectoderm

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34
Q

What ate the openings at the end of the neural tube called? 1-2. Which end closes quicker? 3

A
  1. anterior neuropore
  2. posterior neuropore
  3. cranial closure (anterior neuropore)
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35
Q

When do neural crest cells form? 1. What type of cells give rise to the crest cells? 2

A
  1. during formation of the neural tube

2. neuroectoderm

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36
Q

What forms the placenta?

A

syncytio and cytotrophoblast

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37
Q

While the neural groove and tube formation is occuring, the lateral aspects of the embryo move ventrally make the embryo into:

A

a tube

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38
Q

What does the neural tube ultimately differentiate into?

A

CNS (brain and spinal cord)

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39
Q

What does the neural crest ultimately differentiate into?

A

PNS (ganglia)

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40
Q

What does the notochord ultimately differentiate into?

A

part of nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc

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41
Q

What is linked to neural tube deformity?

A

low folic acid levels in mother

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42
Q

What is it called when the neural tube does not fuse fully?

A

Spina bifida

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43
Q

What type of spina bifida is it if you cannot tell when looking at the person (ephoria)?

A

Occulta

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44
Q

What type of spina bifida is it if you can tell when looking at the person (strabismus)? 1. What are the two types of these? 2-3

A
  1. manifesta
  2. meningocele
  3. meningomyelocele (most severe)
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45
Q

What is the condition of the embryo forming a brain stem but usually not a cerebrum and hemisphere?

A

Anencephaly

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46
Q

What protein is tested for in embryo, increases with paternal age, and if elevated increases the chance for a neural defect?

A

Alpha fetal protein

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47
Q

What does the mesoderm differentiate into?

A
  1. paraxial plate
  2. intermediate plate
  3. lateral plate
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48
Q

What does the intermediate plate of the mesoderm ultimately give rise to?

A

urogenital system including gonads, ducts and accessory glands

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49
Q

What does the lateral plate of the mesoderm ultimately give rise to?

A
  1. CT and muscle of viscera
  2. Serous membranes of pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum
  3. Blood and lymph cells
  4. cardio and lymph systems
  5. spleen
  6. adrenal cortex
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50
Q

What does the paraxial mesoderm form?

A

Somites

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51
Q

How old is an embryo that has 10 somites? 1. 19 somites? 2. 26-28 somites? 3

A
  1. 23 days
  2. 25 days
  3. 4 weeks
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52
Q

How many somite pairs ultimately develop?

A

32

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53
Q

What is the breakdown of the names and numbers of pairs of somites?

A
  1. 8 cervical (C1-C8)
  2. 12 thoracic (T1-T12)
  3. 5 lumbar (L1-L5)
  4. 5 sacral (S1-S5)
  5. 2/3 coccygeal (Co 1/2)
54
Q

What three parts does each somite differentiate into/ what will each of these give rise to?

A
  1. sclerotome / bone
  2. myotome / skeletal muscle
  3. dermatome / dermis
55
Q

From where is each somite innervated?

A
  1. Ventral half of neural tube

2. neural crest column

56
Q

Where does the innervation from the ventral half of the neural tube to the somite enter into?

A

myotome (will be motor nerves)

57
Q

Where does the innervation from the neural crest column to the somite enter into?

A
  1. dermatome and myotome

2. dorsal half of neural tube

58
Q

Which somite only has motor processes?

A

C1

59
Q

Where are motor fibers located in the spinal cord?

A

ventral aspect

60
Q

Where are sensory fibers located in the spinal cord?

A

dorsal root ganglion (dorsolateral to spinal cord)

61
Q

If the ventral aspect of a spinal nerve gets fully cut what is the result? 1. If is is just altered called? 2

A
  1. flaccid paralysis

2. paresis

62
Q

If the dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve gets fully cut what is the result? 1. If is is just altered called? 2

A
  1. anesthesia

2. paraesthesia

63
Q

What is the rule called that states that once a somite is innervated, wherever it migrates and differentiates it brings the original nerve processes with it?

A

Law of Integrity of Nerve Supply

64
Q

In the thoracic region, where do myotomes and dermatomes migrate to (1) and what form do they do this in (2)?

A
  1. back to ventral midline

2. parallel ribbons

65
Q

While wrapping around the chest the sclerotome forms what?

A

the ribs

66
Q

While wrapping around the chest the myotome forms what?

A

intercostal muscles

67
Q

While wrapping around the chest the dermatome forms what?

A

skin of thoracic region

68
Q

If fully cut a spinal nerve in thoracic region what is the result?

A

anesthesia of dermatome and paralysis of intervertebral muscle below rib associated

69
Q

What is each vertebrae formed by?

A

fusion of half of two separate somites

70
Q

Each vertebrae has 1 from the upper somite and 2 from the lower somite

A
  1. dense scleratome

2. loose scleratome

71
Q

Are there more, less, or the same amount of vertebra as somites?

A

one less vertebra

72
Q

What vertebra does the C1 nerve pass over?

A

C1

73
Q

What vertebra does the C7 nerve pass over?

A

C7

74
Q

What vertebra does the C8 nerve pass over?

A

T1

75
Q

What vertebra does the T1 nerve pass over?

A

T2

76
Q

At what vertebra does the solid spinal cord end? 1. What is the structure called that extends the fibers to go through their appropriate vertebral gaps? 2

A
  1. Around L2

2. Cuada Equina

77
Q

Muscles in the limbs are innervated by more than one spinal nerve. These are called:

A

Plurisegmental muscles

78
Q

What muscles does the median nerve innervate? 1. What does the nerve pass through? 2. What would be the results if the nerve were cut? 3

A
  1. flexors of the arm
  2. carpel tunnel
  3. paralysis of flexors of forearm and anesthesia of innervated area of hand
79
Q

What spinal nerves do you have to damage to cause paralysis of flexor of forearm?

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

80
Q

What muscle runs below the 12th ribs?

A

Diaphragm

81
Q

What innervates the diaphragm? 1. What somites gave rise to the diaphragm? 2

A
  1. Phrenic nerve

2. Mostly C4 and pieces of C3 and C5

82
Q

If the spinal cord is damaged above C3 is the diaphragm affected? 1. Below? 2

A
  1. paralyzed

2. unaffected

83
Q

What makes up the cranial somites?

A
  1. 4 pair occipital
  2. 1st preotic
  3. 2nd preotic
  4. 3rd preotic
84
Q

What is the thickening of ectoderm in area forming the pinna?

A

Otic placode

85
Q

What type of tissue do cranial somites differentiate into?

A

myotome tissue

86
Q

What type of tissue do occipital somites differentiate into?

A

myotome tissue

87
Q

What muscles do occipital somites differentiate into?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue

88
Q

Types of extrinsic muscles of tongue:

  1. primary to protrude tongue. Main muscle
  2. Tongue to hyoid. Pulls tongue down
  3. Pulls tongue up and back
A
  1. Genioglossus
  2. Hyoglossus
  3. Styloglossus
89
Q

Types of intrinsic muscles of tongue: 1-3

A

Transverse, Longitudinal, and Lateral

90
Q

How many total somites make up the muscles of the tongue?

A

8 somites

91
Q

Before differentiation and migration of occipital somites into myotomes, cell bodies in 1 of future medulla oblongata sends axons into occipital somites. What do these nerve processes form? 2

A
  1. neural tube

2. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)

92
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the preotic somites located in the 1st somite? 2nd? 3rd?

A
  1. Mesencephalon
  2. Mesencephalon (ventral end but come out dorsally)
  3. Pons (ventral half)
93
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the 1st preotic somite? 1. What muscles do these differentiate into? 2

A
  1. Oculomotor (III)

2. MR, IR, IO, SR, LPS

94
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the 2nd preotic somite? 1. What muscles do these differentiate into? 2. If there is paralysis of this what is the resulting condition called? 3

A
  1. Trochlear (IV)
  2. SO
  3. hypertropia
95
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the 3rd preotic somite? 1. What muscles do these differentiate into? 2. If there is paralysis of this what is the resulting condition called? 3

A
  1. Abducens (VI)
  2. LR
  3. esotropia
96
Q

What type of tissue do preotic somites differentiate into?

A

myotomes

97
Q

What are the paired pouches that form on the anterolateral surface of the developing head of embryo and are associated with the arterial arches of developing heart and vasculature? 1. How many of these develop? 2

A
  1. Branchial arches

2. five

98
Q

What embryonic tissue does the branchial arches come from? 1. Is it a part of the CNS? 2

A
  1. Neural crest

2. No

99
Q

How many arteries goes into each branchial arch?

A

one

100
Q

What type of muscle do the branchial arches give rise to?

A

visceral muscle

101
Q

What are the innervations of each of the branchial arches? 1-5

A
  1. Trigeminal (V)
  2. Facial (VII)
  3. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
  4. Vagus (X)
  5. Spinal Accessory (XI)
102
Q

What is the protective mechanism found in the branchial arches to prevent full paralysis with injury to one arch?

A

Has pretrematic nerve branches that go to the arch cranial to it

103
Q

If a motor nerve is from a somite then what is its classification? 1. If it is from a branchial arch and is to a skeletal muscle what is its classification? 2

A
  1. general somatic efferent n (GSE)

2. special visceral efferent n (SVE)

104
Q

What are the two subarches of the 1st branchial arch and what do they become?

A
  1. Cranial arch (Maxillary Arch)

2. Caudal Arch (Mandibular Arch)

105
Q

Where does the pretrematic branch of the 1st branchial arch go into? 1. What does it become? 2

A
  1. head mesenchyme

2. ophthalmic nerve

106
Q

What are the three branches of CN V and are they sensory or motor?

A
  1. Ophthalmic (sensory)
  2. Maxillary (sensory)
  3. Mandibular (sensory and motor)
107
Q

Where are the sensory cell bodies of the Mandibular nerve (V3)? 1. Motor cell bodies? 2

A
  1. trigeminal ganglion

2. pons

108
Q

What sensory nerve innervates the body of the tongue for touch and temperature?

A

Lingual branch of mandibular

109
Q

What muscles are innervated by the mandibular nerve?

A
  1. temporalis (mastication)
  2. masseter (mastication)
  3. lateral pterygoid (mastication)
  4. medial pterygoid (mastication)
  5. tensor palatine (tensor)
  6. tensor tympani (tensor)
  7. mylohyoid (floor of mouth)
  8. anterior belly digastric (floor of mouth)
110
Q

What nerve and branchial arch give rise to the muscles of facial expression?

A

facial nerve (VII); 2nd arch

111
Q

Which nerves (and branchial arches) are associated with innervating the ear canal? And which one gives a gag reaction when touched in ear?

A
  1. facial nerve (VII); 2nd arch
  2. glossopharyngeal nerve (IX); 3rd arch
  3. IX makes gagging
112
Q

What sensory nerve innervates the body of the tongue for taste?

A

Chorda tympani of facial nerve that is a pretrematic branch

113
Q

What muscle is responsible for keeping food on the tongue while eating so when affected in Bell’s Palsy results in food being in vestibule when eating on that side?

A

Buccinator muscle (innervated by VII)

114
Q

What are the motor branches of VII?

A
  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. Mandibular
  5. Cervical
115
Q

What disease is associated with flaccid paralysis of one side of the face, without the ability to close their lid? And where is the inflammation occurring?

A
  1. Bell’s Palsy

2. internal acoustic meatus (CN VII)

116
Q

What disease is associated with flaccid paralysis of one side of the face and a vesicular ear infection due to herpes?

A

Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome

117
Q

What disease is associated with spastic paralysis that affects the lower quadrant of the face, not including the eyelids?

A

Internal capsular stroke

118
Q

Which branchial (and nerve) arch gives rise to the stylopharyngeus muscle that pulls the tongue up to close the epiglottis?

A

3rd arch; glossopharyngeal nerve

119
Q

What sensory nerve innervates the root of the tongue for general sensory and taste?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

120
Q

Which branchial arches have autonomic fibers associated with them?

A

2nd and 3rd

121
Q

Which branchial (and nerve) arch gives rise to the pharyngeal constrictors and muscles of soft palate?

A

4th arch; vagus nerve

122
Q

Which branchial (and nerve) arch gives rise to the taste buds of the pharynx?

A

4th arch; vagus nerve

123
Q

Which branchial (and nerve) arch gives rise to the major autonomic to internal organs?

A

4th arch; vagus nerve

124
Q

What muscle of palate pulls the root of the tongue up?

A

Palatoglossus

125
Q

What muscle of the palate are your tonsils between?

A

Palatoglossus and Palatophyngeus

126
Q

What are the muscles of the palate (and what are they innervated by)?

A
  1. Palatoglossus (X)
  2. Palatophyngeus (X)
  3. Levator Palatine (X)
  4. Musculus Uvulae (X)
  5. Tensor Palatine (V3)
127
Q

What muscle of the palate keeps food from going up nose when swallowing? 1. Which side does the tongue deviate to if there is a lack of innervation of this muscle (healthy or unhealthy side)? 2

A
  1. Musculus Uvulae

2. healthy

128
Q

Which branchial (and nerve) arch gives rise to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid?

A

6th arch; spinal accessory nerve

129
Q

What cervical sections of the spinal cord have important contributions to the spinal accessory nerve?

A

C1, C2, C3

130
Q

What disease is associated with damage and contracture to sternocleidomastoid? 1. What palsy is associated with this disease? 2

A
  1. Torticollis

2. Superior Oblique Palsy