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Anatomy and Physiology II > Difficult concepts Unit 2 > Flashcards

Difficult concepts Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibodies?

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD (GAMED)

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2
Q

Describe IgG

A

-A monomer
-Most abundant and diverse
-Crosses placenta to fetus
-Secreted in secondary immune response -Complement fixation
-80% of total

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3
Q

Describe IgA

A

-Monomer in plasma
-Dimer in secretions (mucus, saliva, tears, breast milk, and intestinal secretions; too large to cross placenta.)
-Prevents pathogen adherence to epithelia and penetrating underlying tissues
-10-15% of total

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4
Q

Describe IgM

A

-Pentamer
-Secreted in primary immune response (indicates a current infection)
-Agglutination during ABO incompatibility
-Complement fixation
-5-10% of total

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5
Q

Describe IgD

A

-Monomer
-B cell transmembrane antigen receptor.
-Thought to function in B cell activation by antigens
-0.02% of total

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6
Q

Describe IgE

A

-Monomer
-Transmembrane protein on basophils and mast cells causing release of histamine when activated.
-0.002% of total

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7
Q

What is cellular immunity best for? What is humoral immunity best for?

A

Cellular immunity: Intracellular pathogens, cancer cells, transplanted tissues
Humoral immunity: Extracellular pathogens, toxins, venoms, allergens, mismatched RBCs

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8
Q

What types of hypersensitivity are T-cell mediated, and what are the rest mediated by?

A

Type IV is T-cell based, the rest are antibody based

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9
Q

Describe the
4 types of hypersensitivity

A

1) Type I acute (immediate) hypersensitivity:
-Very rapid response
-Based on antibodies
2) Type II and Type III subacute hypersensitivity:
-Slower onset (1 to 3 hours after exposure)
-Last longer (10 to 15 hours)
-Based on antibodies
3) Type IV:
-Delayed cell-mediated response
-Signs appear 12 to 72 hours after exposure; T-cell based
-Ex: Cosmetics, poison ivy, graft rejection, TB skin test

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10
Q

Name the 4 releasing and 2 inhibiting hormones of the hypothalamus that affect the anterior pituitary, and state what they do

A

1) TRH promotes secretion of TSH and PRL
2) CRH promotes secretion of ACTH
3) GnRH promotes secretion of FSH and LH
4) GHRH promotes secretion of GH
1) PIH inhibits secretion of prolactin
2) Somatostatin inhibits secretion of GH and TSH

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11
Q

CRH stimulates the release of what?

A

ACTH

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12
Q

Thyroid follicles are filled with a protein-rich colloid and lined with a simple ____________ epithelium of follicular cells.

A

cuboidal

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13
Q

Define Grave’s disease, cretinism, and myxedema

A

1)Graves disease: Thyroid hypersecretion due to autoantibodies mimicking the effect of TSH.
2) Cretinism: Congenital thyroid hyposecretion.
3) Myxedema: Adult thyroid hyposecretion.

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14
Q

The outer region of the adrenal gland is known as? The inner region is known as?

A

The outer region is the cortex, the inner region is the medulla.

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15
Q

Explain Cushing syndrome, adrenogenital syndrome (AGS), and Addison’s disease, including symptoms and treatment options

A

1) Cushing syndrome: Cortisol hypersecretion.
-Symptoms: Hyperglycemia, hypertension, weakness, edema. Also causes rapid muscle and bone loss due to protein catabolism, and abnormal fat deposition (moon face and buffalo hump)
2) Adrenogenital syndrome (AGS): Adrenal androgen hypersecretion (accompanies Cushing)
-Symptoms: causes enlarged external sexual organs in children and early puberty. Masculinizing effects on females.
3) Addison’s disease: Cortisol and/or aldosterone hyposecretion.
-Symptoms: Hypoglycemia, hypotension, weakness, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation

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16
Q

Which cell type of what organ releases glucagon?

A

The alpha cells in the pancreatic islets

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17
Q

What cells of the skin convert a cholesterol-like steroid into cholecalciferol using UV radiation from the sun? The liver and kidneys convert cholecalciferol into what vitamin?

A

1) Keratinocytes
2) The liver and kidneys convert cholecalciferol into vitamin D.

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18
Q

The kidneys secrete a hormone that stimulates production of aldosterone. Name kidney hormone and the target.

A

Renin, which targets the adrenal cortex

19
Q

Rising blood pressure stretches the heart wall and stimulates cardiac muscle to secrete atrial natriuretic peptides. What is the target and what is the action of the hormone?

A

Target the kidneys to increase sodium and water excretion, which reduces blood volume and BP

20
Q

The stomach and small intestines contain enteroendocrine cells that secrete three hormones that coordinate motility and glandular secretion. Name the three hormones

A

Cholecystokinin, gastrin, secretin

21
Q

Hormones fall into three chemical classes. What are those three chemical classes?

A

1) Steroid hormones are cholesterol-derived hormones, and include sex steroids and corticosteroids.
2) Peptide hormones are chains of amino acids synthesized in the ribosome and include hormones from pituitary, hypothalamus, and insulin
3) Monoamine hormones are made from amino acids and include catecholamines, melatonin, thyroid hormone

22
Q

Which hormone behaves like a hydrophobic steroid even though it isn’t?

A

Thyroid hormone

23
Q

What are permissive effects? Can you list an example of a permissive effect?

A

1) One hormone enhances the target organ’s response to a second later hormone
-Ex: Estrogen prepares uterus for action of progesterone

24
Q

What is the scientific name of the wineglass-shaped cells in the respiratory epithelium and what do they secrete?

A

Goblet cells, which secrete mucus.

25
Q

The inner lining of the trachea is made up of what type of cells?

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

26
Q

The lowermost tracheal cartilage has an internal median ridge called the ________ that directs airflow right and left. The bronchi subdivide in the lungs to form the_____________ tree.

A

carina; bronchial tree

27
Q

What are the three type of alveoli cells? What are their functions?

A

1) Squamous (type I) alveolar cells
-Thin cells that allow for rapid gas diffusion between alveolus and bloodstream
-Cover 95% of alveolus surface area; most numerous
2) Great (type II) alveolar cells
-Round to cuboidal cells that cover the remaining 5% of alveolar surface
-Repair the alveolar epithelium when the squamous (type I) cells are damaged
-Secrete pulmonary surfactant
3) Alveolar macrophages (dust cells):
-Wander the lumens of alveoli and the connective tissue between them
-Keep alveoli free from debris by phagocytizing dust particles
100 million dust cells die each day as they ride up the mucociliary escalator to be swallowed and digested

28
Q

At the hilum of the lung, the visceral pleura turns back on itself and forms the ________ pleura.

A

parietal

29
Q

1) What is the primary mover and synergist muscles for inhalation?
2) Which muscles are used for forced inhalation? 3) Which muscles are used for forced expiration?

A

1) The prime mover of inhalation is the diaphragm; the synergists are the external intercostals and scalenes
2) The erector spinae, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and serratus anterior muscles are used for forced inhalation
3) The rectus abdominis and the internal intercostals are used for forced exhalation.

30
Q

What do the VRG, DRG, and PRG do? Where are they found? Which uses influence from external sources?
(ventral respiratory group, dorsal, and pontine)

A

1) The VRG sets the basic respiratory rhythm of 12 breaths/minute. Found in medulla
2) The DRG modifies the rate and depth of breathing. Found in medulla, uses external input.
3) The PRG modifies rhythm of the VRG by outputs to both the VRG and DRG. It does this to adapt breathing to special circumstances. Found in pons.

31
Q

If lung volume increases, what does this do to intrapulmonary pressure? Does it increase or decrease? Does air move into the lungs or out of the lungs?

A

If the volume increases, intrapulmonary pressure decreases, and air moves into the lungs if it falls below atmospheric pressure

32
Q

What is bronchodilation? What hormones are involved? What happens to airflow?

A

Dilation of bronchiole diameter; controlled by epinephrine and sympathetic stimulation. Increases airflow.

33
Q

Define eupnea, apnea, hyperventilation and hypoventilation

A

1) Eupnea: relaxed, quiet breathing
2) Apnea: temporary cessation of breathing
3)Hyperventilation: increased pulmonary ventilation in excess of metabolic demand
4)Hypoventilation: reduced pulmonary ventilation leading to an increase in blood CO2

34
Q

What is air is composed of? What is partial pressure, and do you understand how to calculate it?

A

1) Mostly nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
2) Defined as the separate contribution of each gas in a mixture toward pressure.
-Percent of mixture times total pressure = partial pressure.

35
Q

Which is more soluble, CO2 or O2? Which gas is mostly insoluble in plasma?

A

CO2 is 20 times more soluble than O2; N2 is practically insoluble in plasma

36
Q

Does ventilation or perfusion refer to the alveolus? Which refers to the capillaries?

A

Ventilation refers to the alveolus, perfusion refers to the capillaries

37
Q

Can you write out and interpret the carbon dioxide plus water reaction through dissociation into bicarbonate and free hydrogen?

A

CO2 + H2O&raquo_space; H2CO3 (carbonic acid)» HCO3- (bicarbonate)+ H+.

38
Q

In CO2 loading, is CO2 diffusing into cells or diffusing into blood? What enzyme catalyzes the reaction? Explain how the chloride shift is working; what is being exchanged for chloride?

A

-CO2 is diffusing into the blood, then carbonic anhydrase from the RBC catalyzes the reaction of carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid, which then disassociates into bicarbonate and free hydrogen.
-Then hydrogen binds to hemoglobin, making it release O2, bicarbonate diffuses out of the RBC and is exchanged for chloride (chloride shift)

39
Q

What is the most potent stimulus for breathing? What is the second most potent stimulus for breathing? What is the last most potent stimulus for breathing?

A

Most important is pH, followed by CO2, and least significant is O2

40
Q

Define hypocapnia and hypercapnia and relate these to acidosis and alkalosis

A

1) Hypocapnia: PCO2 less than 37 mm Hg (normal 37 to 43 mm Hg)
-Most common cause of alkalosis
2) Hypercapnia:
PCO2 greater than 43 mm Hg
-Most common cause of acidosis

41
Q

What is Cor pulmonale?

A

Hypertrophy and potential failure of right heart due to obstruction of pulmonary circulation

42
Q

Which leads to an excess of CO2; hyperventilation or hypoventilation?

A

Hypoventilation

43
Q

What are symptoms of chronic bronchitis? What are symptoms of emphysema?

A

1) Chronic bronchitis: Hypoxemia and cyanosis; severe, persistent inflammation of lower respiratory tract; excessive mucus produced, develops into a chronic cough
2) Emphysema: Alveolar walls break down reducing surface area, which makes lungs fibrotic and less elastic. Air passages collapse (obstructs outflow of air), which causes air to be trapped in lungs, so the person becomes barrel-chested. Weakens thoracic muscles and takes 3-4x the amount of energy just to breathe

44
Q

1) Which immunoglobin type crosses the placenta to the fetus?
2) Which type is in body secretions?
3) Which type is a pentamer and indicates a current infection? 4) Which helps in B cell activation? 5) Which is on basophils or masts cells?

A

1) IgG crosses placenta to fetus
2) IgA is in body secretions
3) IgM is a pentamer and indicates infection
4) IgD helps in B-cell activation
5) IgE is on basophils and mast cells

Anatomy and Physiology II (40 decks)

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