Developmental Flashcards

1
Q

Most traits are Trigenic, monogenic, or polygenic?

Homozygous vs heterozygous

A

Polygenic

Homozygous - 2 dominant genes
Heterozygous - 1 dominant and 1 recessive gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Farsightedness requires x amount of what kind of gene

Nearsightedness requires x amount of what kind of gene

A

one dominant

Two recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Heritability estimate

A

Variation of phenotype w/in a group resulting from differences in genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Heredity accounts for ____ % of variability for many characteristics

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List and briefly explain Brofenbrenner’s Ecological Model

A

1) Microsystem - immediate environment
2) Mesosystem - how diff elements w/in immediate environment interact
3) Exosystem - Elements in broader environment (teachers, parents’ jobs)
4) Macrosystem - Overarching environmental influences (culture, religion)
5) Chronosystem - Events over lifespan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rutter’s risk indicators

1 or none of these increase risk by ___% whereas 4 or more of these increases risk by ____ %

A

Marital discord, parental criminality, socioeconomic status, large family, maternal psych dx, placement outside of home

2% and 21%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Werner et al longitudinal study of infants with/without prenatal and perinatal stress. What did it imply about high-risk children?

A

More physical/cognitive issues for infants with stress but differences declined over time. This implies resilience in high-risk children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain reaction range in the context of ability to compensate for birth defects

A

Those with a defect of mild cognitive impairment have a broader reaction range than those with severe, so mild impairment leaves room for a better response to a good environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Genotype-Environment Correlation and what are the 3 main types?

How are they relatively important over the lifespan?

A

genetics affects the environment one is exposed to which reinforces genetics

1) Passive – parents give environment that encourage development of traits
2) Evocative – child’s traits evoke reactions that reinforce child’s genetics
3) Active – aka niche picking – child actively seeks out genetically reinforcing experiences

Relative importance changes over time

  • -passive/evocative = infancy/early childhood and
  • -active type = as independence increases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain ethology and how it differs from evolutionary theory

A

Ethology is animal behavior in natural habitats and while it focuses on adaptive instincts, evolutionary theory focus on mental/emotional adaptations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Evolutionary theory says that many psychological mechanisms are _______, which means they help us to deal with specific types of problems encountered in the environment and others were _____, designed to help us at certain points in our lives.

A

Domain-specific, adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What/when are the 3 stages of prenatal development? And, which stage is most vulnerable to damage by teratogens?

A

1) Germinal - the fertilized ovum is called a zygote
2) Embryonic - 3rd week to 8th week (teratogens worst here)
3) Fetal - 9th week until birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Birth defects can be caused by three factors:

A

1) Chromosomal disorders
2) Exposure to teratogens
3) Poor maternal health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chromosomal Disorders

All human cells contain ___ chromosomes arranged in ___ pairs. Of these pairs, _____ are referred to as ______and the ____ one is the ___ chromosome.

A

46 chromosomes, 23 pairs

22, autosomes, 23rd, sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When a disorder is carried on an autosome it is referred to as an _______, and when it’s on the 23rd one it’s referred to as a ______

A

autosomal disorder, sex-linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Disorders due to dominant/recessive genes

Dominant gene disorders are due to the inheritance of a _________ from one or both parents?

Recessive gene disorders are due to the inheritance of a pair of _________ from one parent or one from each parent?

A

single dominant gene from one parent

recessive genes (one from each parent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Examples of dominant and recessive gene disorders:

A

Dominant - Huntington’s

Recessive - Phenylketonuria (PKU), cystic fibrosis, sickle cell, Tay-Sachs disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Disorders due to a Chromosomal Abnormality can be due to 2 factors:

A

1) Variation in # of chromosomes (aneuploidy)

2) Alteration in the structure of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Disorders due to variation in # of chromosomes:

A

Down syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Down syndrome represents an extra ___ chromosome

Klinefelter and Turner syndromes are caused by an abnormality in the # of ____ chromosomes. Briefly explain them.

A

21st

Sex

Klinefelter - only males - 2 or more X chromosomes and 1 Y chromosome - small penis and testes, dvlpmt of breasts, sterile

Turner - only females - single x chromosome - short in stature, webbed neck, drooping eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Alterations in chromosome structure include:

A

Deletions, translocations, and inversions

Deletion - a part of a chromosome is missing

Translocation - transfer of a chromosome segment to another chromosome

Inversion - Chromosome breaks in 2 places and the segment formed inverts (turns upside down) and reattaches to the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is exposure to teratogens the most dangerous?

A

During the embryonic stage (weeks 3-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Some teratogens and their effects:

A

Alcohol: could lead to Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder, which in order of severity (greatest to least) includes:

a. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)
b. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental Disorder (ARND)
c. Alcohol-related birth Defects (ARBD)

Cocaine: spontaneous abortion/stillbirth, seizures, reduced head circumference, exagerated startle response

Nicotine: placental abnormalities, respiratory isues, SIDS, social/cognitive issues

Lead: Intellectual disability

*All low birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maternal conditions and birth defects include:

A

1) Rubella - blindness, deafness, heart/intellectual issues
2) Cytomegalovirus - intellectual issues, hearing/visual issues
3) HIV/AIDS - 20-30% change of transmitting HIV - with drug therapy, 50% of kids survive beyond age 10
4) Malnutrition - low weight, stillbirth, poor immune
5) Stress - miscarraige, painful labor, irregular feeding, sleeping, and bowel habits, low birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A premature/preterm baby is born at ____ weeks and are more prominent among ____ mothers than ____ and _____ mothers.

A

less than 37 weeks, African American than White and Hispanic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When a newborn’s weight is below the ____th percentile, it is considered _______

The consequences may be more severe than a ______ baby. There is an increased risk for:

A

10th, small-for-gestational age (SGA)

Premature/preterm - respiratory disease, hypoglycemia, asphyxia during birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Some complications during birth include:

A

Anoxia - oxygen shortage - can be caused by sedatives given to the mom or a twisted umbilical chord - delayed motor/cognitive dvlmpt, cerebral palsy

Expsure to herpes simplex 2 - high risk for death, brain damage, or blindness - C section usually warranted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Increase of __________ which is the interconnection between neuron and ____ cells, which are responsible for the __________ of nerve fibers, promotes brain growth. Unused synapses are eliminated through a process called _______.

How much percentage of its adult weight is the brain at birth vs when the child reaches 2 years of age? At what age does it reach its full weight?

A

Synaptogenesis, glial, myelination, pruning

At birth - 25%

2 yrs old - 80%

16 yrs old - full weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The primary motor and sensory areas, and the cerebral cortex of the brain are developed during the early or later stages of life?

A

motor and sensory - early

cerebral cortex - undeveloped early on

prefrontal cortex - not fully developed until early-mid 20s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In what order does cortical development occur?

A

Cephalocaudal - head to tail

Proximodistal - Center to extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

By what age does the brain gradually start to shrink, which results from _____ of neurons? Acceleration of cell death occurs after age ____? This can be slowed down by the creation of new neurons, called _____.

A

30, atrophy, 60, neurogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List and describe the major newborn reflexes

A

Babinski - feet

Rooting - head turn

Moro - startle

Stepping - coordination w

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name two strategies researchers use to study the perception and cognition of newborns

A

habituation and dehabituation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some techniques used to study perception in newborns relative to increasing age?

A

High amplitude sucking (infants)
Reaching (3 months+)
Head-turning (5.5 - 12 months)
Heart and respiration (wide age range)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How well is vision developed at birth? They see at ___ ft what adults see at ___ ft. Their vision is normal at about ____ months.

Infants prefer ______ patterns and mother’s faces by ____ months.

A

Least well developed. 20 ft what adults see at 200-400 ft and normal at about 6 months.

High contrast patterns, 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The ability to orient toward the direction of a sound is___. Infants prefer the sound of their mother’s voice by ___ months.

A

Auditory localization, 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Infants have a preference for _____ tastes.

A

Sweet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What did Taddio find in his studies of infants and pain?

A

No anesthesia during circumcision = high distress in later vaccinations

painful medical procedures during infancy = increased reactivity to pain later in infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Early training and basic motor skills

A

Early basic motor training can accelerate learning rate but it doesn’t generalize BUT early rtaining of complex motor skills does improve proficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gender differences and motor development

A

Girls more physically mature than same-aged boys in middle childhood BUT in early adolescence boys excel in motor ability - often attributed to fatty tissue (adipose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Physical maturation and adolescence

A

Growth spurt for girls - 11/12 - full stature by 15
Growth spurt for boys - 13/14 - full stature by 17
Both last 3-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Therea are early and late maturation effects on boys and girls. However, in general, the negative consequences are most severe when….?

By adulthood, early, late maturers have developed and differences are ______?

A

Adolescents perceive themselves to be different from their peers

Indistinguishable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Piaget ascribes development to ____ and _____. Cognitive development stems from a drive toward ____.

A

Biological maturation and the environment

Cognitive equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe Piaget’s Sensorimotor stage of development

A

1) Sensorimotor (birth-2 yrs) - causality and deferred imitation
a. Substage 1 - Reflexes
b. Substage 2 - Primar circular reactions (own body - thumbsucking)
c. Substage 3 - Secondary circular reactions (pleasure from others people/objects - shakes a rattle)
d. Substage 4 - Coordinated secondary circular reactions - Object permanence
e. Substage 5 - Tertiary circular reactions (consequences of actions - dropping toy from heights)
f. Substage 6 - Mental representation - symbolic thought - anticipating consequences due to past events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe Piaget’s Preoperational stage of development

Think: P I E C A M

A

2) Preoperational (2-7) - symbolic function - extention of representational thought - use of language, mental images
a. Precausal (transductive) reasoning - incomplete understanding of cause and effect (magical thinking/animism)
b. Irreversibility - don’t recognize that objects can’t be reversed
c. Egocentrism - can’t separate own POV
d. Centration - Can’t understand that changing a dimension of an object does not change its other dimensions (same amount of water in different sized cups)
e. Animism - human traits to inanimate objects
f. Magical thinking - belief that thinking about it will cause it to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe Piaget’s Concrete Operational stage of development

A

3) Concrete Operational (7-12) - Mental operations, logical rules
a. Conservation - understanding that physical traits of object stay the same
b Horizontal decalage - gradual acquision of conservation abilities and different stage abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Describe Piaget’s Formal Operational stage of development

A

4) Formal Operational (12+) - ability to think abstractly - hypo-deductive reasoning
a. Renewed egocentrism - can’t separate abstract thoughts from others’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How did Elkind extend Piaget’s work ?

A

Identified specified parts of adolescent egocentrism

a. Personal Fable - belief one is unique and not subject to laws that govern others
b. Imaginary audience - one is always the center of attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are Thomas and Chess’ 3 temperament categories and what did they say regarding parenting?

A

1) Easy
2) DIfficult
3) Slow to warm up

Parenting is about goodness of fit between parents’ behaviors and child temperaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages and ages

A

1) Oral - Birth - 1 year
2) Anal - 1-3 years
3) Phallic - 3-6 years - successful outcome = development of the superego, pride, and guilt
4) Latency - 6-12 years - social skills > sexual gratification
5) Genital - 12+ years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory of development says that learning is _______ mediated and that cognitive development is first ________ and then ________.

A

cognitively
interpersonal
intrapersonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Scaffolding is attributed to whom? Briefly describe it.

A

Vygotsky. Instruction is most effective with modeling, providing cues, and encouraging child to think of alternatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Piaget would refer to a child speaking to himself as being _______,while Vygotsky would describe it as _____ speech, which becomes ______ speech as children grow older.

A

Egocentric
self-directed (private) speech
inner (silent) speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vygotsky’s reciprocal learning method says what and has been applied to ?

A

Children learn through social interaction and has been applied to reading instruction

55
Q

Define theory of mind

A

Inferences about others’ representational states and predict behavior accordingly

56
Q

Theory of mind develops gradually during childhood, with major changes occuring during which three age ranges? What are the major changes within them?

A

1) 2-3 - Awareness of others’ mental states
2) 4-5 - Understand another’s thoughts may be false
3) 5+ - Others’ actions not always consistent with beliefs/feelings - interpretation of events

57
Q

Compared to younger adults, olider adults show the gretest decline in _______ _______ memory, followed by which aspect of short-term memory?

A

Recent long-term

working memory

58
Q

Children don’t consistently use memory strategies until what age? Name three types of memory strategies they use.
What separates memory differences between younger and older children?

A

9-10
Rehearsal, organization, elaboration
Older children show improvements in metacognition

59
Q

In adulthood, optimal time for completing certain tasks is related to ______ _______.
For Older adults peak arousal and task performance is better in the ____ hours of the day, while younger adults have higher levels for both in the _____. This is referred to as the ______ effect.

A

Circadian arousal

Early, evening

Synchrony

60
Q

Childhood amnesia is referring to _____ memory and says what about our inability to recall memories prior to age 3 or 4?

A

Episodic

Brain regions for long-term storage not fully developed and absence of language abilities during those years.

61
Q

Recalling events in the last 20 years is referred to as _____, while recalling events that ocured from ages 10-30 is referred to as ______.

A

Retention function

Reminiscence bump

62
Q

Which memories seem to be unaffected with aging?

A

Remote long-term, memory span, and sensory

63
Q

Age related declines in working memory are due to _____ ______, while decrements in long-term memory are due to what?

A

Processing efficiency

Less use of encoding strategies

64
Q

Types of memories with greatest age-related decline in descending order?

A

Recent long-term, episodic, semantic, procedural

65
Q

Levinson’s seasons of a man’s life

A

Divides lifespan into 4 periods:

infancy through adolescence
early adulthood
middle adulthood
late adulthood

These transitions are stressful

66
Q

Levinson’s life transitions

A

1) Early adult transition - independence (college, military) - The Dream
2) Age 30 transition - settling down - sense of urgency
3) Mid-life transition - significant stress and reorganization - change in perspective –> time-since-birth –> time-left-to-live

67
Q

The larger the family and the smaller the gap between children, the ___

A

worse the achievement of the children

68
Q

Culture and parenting style

Asian Americans do well in school despite an _____ style of parenting

Hispanics and African Americans don’t do well despite an ______ style of parenting

A

Authoritarian

Authoritative

69
Q

Combining masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences

A

Androgyny

70
Q

Marcia’s four identity statuses (patterns)

DFMA

A

1) Identity Diffusion-not committed to an identity
2) Identity Foreclosure - Adopt identity imposed by the same-sex parent
3) Identity Moratorium - exploring alternative identities
4) Identity Achievement - committing to an identity

71
Q

What are the primary explanations for language development? Briefly describe them

A

Nativist - Universal patterns of language development due to biological mechanisms

Behaviorist - Acquired through imitation and reinforcement

Interactionist - Combination of biology and environmental factors

72
Q

Chomsky supported which theory of language acquisition and what term did he coin?

A

Nativist - Language Acquisition Device - innate mechanism makes it possible to learn a language by mere exposure to it

73
Q

The interactionist explanation of language development includes a sub-explanation, called ________. Explain it.

A

Social-communications - stresses the impact of social interactions in language development and says adults respond in one of two ways:

1) Expansion - adds to the child’s statement and retains child word order
2) Extension - adds information to child’s statement

74
Q

What is bootstrapping and describe 4 types of Bootstrapping

A

Mechanisms children use to facilitate language acquisition

Semantic Bootstrapping - using meaning of words to infer syntactical (grammatical) category

Syntactic Bootstrapping - Use of syntactical knowledge to learn the meaning of new words

Prosodic Bootstrapping - Using the prosody (pitch, rhythm) to make inferences about syntax

Morphological Bootstrapping - Using knowledge about morphemes to deduce syntax or meaning

75
Q

Language in the context of structure:

A

Surface Structure - org of words, phrases, sentences

Deep Structure - the underlying meaning

76
Q

Chomsky’s notion of transformational grammar

A

speaking = deep structure –> surface structure

listenting = surface structure –> deep structure

77
Q

Two types of speech sounds

A

Phonemes - smallest units of sound understood in a language (b, v, th)

Morphemes - sallest units of sound that convey meaning (ing, un, ed)

78
Q

Children in different cultures progress through similar stages of language acquisiton: List them

A

1) Crying
2) Cooing and Babbling
3) Echolalia and Expressive Jargon
4) First Words
5) Telegraphic Speech
6) Vocabulary Growth
7) Grammatically Correct Sentences
8) Metalinguistic Awareness

79
Q

During language development, children exhibit errors such as underextension, overextension, and overregularization. Describe them

A

1) Underextension - using a word to narrowly to objects or situations (“dish” only for his plate)
2) Overextension - using a word too widely (all 4 legged animals are doggies)
3) Overegularization - applying usual rules to exceptional cases (“tooths” instead of teeth)

80
Q

Switching between two languages during a converstion is referred to as

A

Code-switching

81
Q

Adolescents and adults initially make faster progress in acquiring a second language but long-term outcomes are better when:

A

Learning begins in childhood

82
Q

Crying Stage of language acquisition

A

Basic (hunger) cry

Anger cry

Pain cry - produces strongest response from parents in heart rate and skin conductance

Fussy cry

Consistent reponse from mother in first few months = improvement in crying in following months

83
Q

Cooing and Babbling stage of language acquisition

A

Begins 6-8 weeks
Cooing-mainly vowels
Babbling - sounds from all languages
Between 9-14 months, narrow sounds to native language
Same age as babbling, deaf children make repetitive, rhythmic gestures with hands

84
Q

Echolalia and Expressive Jargon stage of language acquisition

A

9 months - imitate adult speech sounds and words

without knowing meaning nd then vocalizations without meaning

85
Q

First Words stage of language acquisition

A

infancy - receptive vocab > productive vocab
13 months - understand about 50 words
10 - 15 months - speaks first word
18 months - speaks about 50 words - most often nominals or labels for objects, people
1-2 year - single words that express whole phrases - called holophrastic speech, which incldues gestures and intonations

86
Q

Telegraphic Speech stage of language acquisition

A

18-24 months - stringing two or more words to make a sentence

87
Q

Vocabulary Growth stage of language acquisition

A

18 months - rapid increase in vocab - fasted rate of growth between 30-36 months
36 months - vocab = 1,000 words

88
Q

Grammatically Correct Sentences stage of language acquisition

A

2.5 -5 years - Complexity, accuracy, and continued vocab growth -
50 new words acquired monthly

89
Q

Metalinguistic Awareness stage of language acquisition

A

Early school years - reflect on language as a communication tool
6-7 - understand that words are different from concepts they represent - humor/metaphors

90
Q

Stipek lists 3 stages of development of self-awareness

A

1) Physical self-recognition
2) Self-description
3) Emotional Responses to Wrongdoing

91
Q

How do kids described themsellvies from childhood through adolescense

A

1) 2 - 6 years - self-descriptions focus on concrete traits
2) 6 - 10 - self-descriptions focus on competencies
3) 10 - 12 - Describe selves in terms of personality/emotions
4) Adolescense - Abstract descriptios

92
Q

Studies show that gender identity is well-established by age

A

3

93
Q

Explanations of gender identity:

A

1) Psychodynamic - successful phallic stage

2) Cognitive - Kohlberg’s stages:
- Gender Identity
- Gender Stability
- Gender Constancy

3) Social Learning - differential reinforcement and observational learning
4) Gender Schema - Bem stated we develop schemas of masculinity/feminity from sociocultural experiences

5) Multi-dimensional - 5 components
- Membership Knolwedge - knowing one’s belonging to a gender category
- Gender Typicality - feeling similar in one’s gender category
- Gender Contentedness - satsifaction with one’s gender
- Gender Conformity - pressure to conform to stereotypes
- Intergroup Bias - one’s gender is superior

94
Q

Gilligan’s Relational Crisis

A

11-12 years old girl’s response to increasing pressure to fit cultural stereotypes and be the “perfect good woman”, so they disconnect from themselves to maintain relationships with others

Gilligan conclues that a primary task for parents, teachers, and therapists is helping to maintain a “healthy resistance to disconnection”

95
Q

Who coined the term identity crisis and what does it mean?

A

Erikson - identity repudiation as a negative outcome

96
Q

Describe Baumrind’s 4 parenting styles in the context of warm/responsivity and demandingness/expectations

Which is the best predictor of juvenile delinquency

A

1) Authoritative - High in both
2) Authoritarian - High demandingness, Low warmth
3) Permissive - High warmth, low demandingness
4) Neglectful/Uninvolved - Low in both - best predictor of juvenile delinquency

97
Q

Studies of the relative strenth of personality traits find:

Studies of mean differences in personality trait strength at different ages find _____, such that greatest change in traits occurs during _____ ______. However, _____, ____, _____, _____ continue to _____ over the lifespan. And, the following are stable from early to middle adulthood.

A

Considerable stability in personality, especially after 30

Variability

Young adulthood

Agreeableness, social dominance, conscientousness, and emotional stability

Social vitality (extraversion), openness to experience

98
Q

Children’s understanding of death in 3 stages:

A

1) Nonfunctionality
2) Irreversibility
3) Universality

99
Q

Although ____ think about death more, anxiety about death is greates among ______.

A

Older adults, middle aged

100
Q

Stages of grief are attributed to____. List them.

A

Kubler-Ross

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Don’t necessarily occur in this order and stages can be repeated

101
Q

Theories of attachment:

Harlow’s main term was ___.

Bowlby’s work was influenced by ____ and ______ theory and proses a _____ period of attachment. Also distinguished between 4 stages of attachment. Bowlby also described an internal working model, which is…

A

Harlow - Contact comfort

Bowlby - ethology and evolutionary theory - critical

Preattachment, attachment-in-the-making, clearcut attachment, and formation of reciprocal relationships

a mental representation of self and others that influences a child’s future relationships

102
Q

Signs of attachment include

A

1) Socil referencing - 6 months - looks at caregiver to determine how to respond in social situations
2) Separation Anxiety - 6-8 months - intensity peaks at 14-18 months - then gradually decreases
3) Stranger anxiety - 8-10 months - peak sat 18 months then declines

103
Q

Ainsworth patterns of attachment

A

1) Secure - moms emotionally sensitie and responsive
2) Insecure (anxious)/Ambivalent - mothers moody and inconsistent - aka insecure/resistant attachment
3) Insecure (anxious)/Avoidant - mothers impatient and unresponsive or too much stimulation
4) Disorganized/Disoriented - mothers mistreat children - 80% of children mistreated bt caregivers exhibit this pattern

104
Q

Which attachment type is the best predictor of adult behavior?

At which age do kids show signs of attachment? When would be the best time to go on vacation without kids s it doesn’t affect attachment?

A

Secure attachment is the best predictor

6-8 months - go on vacation before that

105
Q

Intergenerational effects of attachment are measured using the ______, which compares parents’ own early attachment expericnes with attachment patterns of their children. It has 3 primary categories

A

Adult Attachment Interview (AAI)

1) Autonomuous - clear descriptions of own childhood - hae children with a secure attachment
2) Dismissing - positive descriptions of own childhood that aren’t supported - have chldren with avoidant attachment
3) Preoccupied - Angry/confused when describing own childhood - have children with resistant/ambivalent attachment

106
Q

Emotions during infancy

Emotional contagion

A

1) Primary (basic) emotions
- right after birth - interest, sadnes, disgust, distress
- 6-8 months-anger, joy, surprise fear

2) Self-conscious emotions-2 years-using social standards to evaluate own behaviors

Detecting emotions in others

107
Q

Empathy consists of which two components and is considered to be the result of the develpment of ____ and _____:

Empathy and gender

A

1) Cognitive - perspective-taking
2) Affective - reacting to others’ well-being
language and cognitive development

Girls more expressive across all ages but difference more likely when a self-report measure used rather than physiological or unobtrusive measures.

108
Q

Two types of aggresion

The Coercive family interaction model proposes that aggression is developed due to

This ______ program was developed by ______ to help parents with effective parenting skils.

A

Hostile and Instrumental

Coercive interactions and poor parental monitoring

Oregon Model of Parent Mgmt Training, Patterson

109
Q

Social-cognitive factors that contribute to the development of aggression

(Think: HR is BS!)

A

1) Hostile Attribution Bias
2) Regret or remorse
3) Beliefs about outcomes of their behaviors
4) Self-efficacy

110
Q

Piaget’s stages of moral development

What did Piaget say about very young children and school aged children and lying?

A

1) Premoral - little concern for rules
2) Heteronomous Morality - Rules set by authority figures and are unalterable
3) Autonomous Morality - Rules are arbitrary and alterable

Very young kids are “spontaneous liars” and consider their lies to be natural and harmless

School-aged kids intentionally lie and realize they can be lied to

111
Q

Kohlberg’s Theory of Morality:

Think: Preacher, Convict, Postman

A

Preconventional

  • Obediance
  • Selfishness

Conventional

  • Norms
  • Law and order

Postconventional

  • Social Contract
  • Universal principles
112
Q

What was Gilligan’s criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? Her stage model therefore focused on females. List the stages

A

Only based on men

1) Level 1 - Individual survival
2) Transition 1 - From selfishness to responsibility
3) Level 2 - Goodness as sacrifice
4) Transition 2 - From goodness to truth
5) Level 3 - Morality of nonviolence

113
Q

Gottman and levinson identified 2 interaction patterns that are predictive of divorce:

A

1) Emotionally volatile attack-defend pattern - predictive of earlier divorce - how anger is dealt with rather than the anger itself that predicts the risk for divorice - via a combination of criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling (the four horsemen of the apocalypse)
2) Emotionally inexpressive pattern - predictive of laer divorce - suppression of both positive and negative affect

114
Q

Divorced parents often experience emotional distress and changes in functioning that include a _____

Describe custodial mothers

Describe custodial fathers

Describe noncustodial fathers

A

Diminished capacity to parent

Mothers - socially isolated, lonely, impatient, authoritarian, monitor children less

Fathers - Same issues but adjust quicker

Noncustodial fathers - overly permissive - visits decline after the first few months

115
Q

Children are mostly affected by divorce during the ____

A

First year after the divorce

116
Q

Preschoolers experience ____ problems than older children after a divorce and long-term consequences are worse for ____

A

More, older children

117
Q

The similarity of the effects of divorce on adolescent boys and girls is described by a ______, which means

A

Sleeper Effect - effects of divorce during childhood don’t appear until adolescense

118
Q

Some findings show that it is ______, rather than ______, that contribute to bad outcomes for children after divorce.

A

Parental conflict, divorce

119
Q

Custody arrangements:

Children
Adolescents

A

Children - better if with same sex parent

Adolescents - if with father, worse outcome

120
Q

Compared to children living in a biological two-parent house, children living with a parent and stepparent have ____ outcomes in certain areas of functioning, but differences are _____. Apparent negative outcomes are ____ when certain antecedent conditions are controlled.

A

Worse outcomes, small, reduced

121
Q

Stress and onflict between parents and their chilren is greatest when children are ____ and adolescense is especially ____ for remarriage.

A

9 years old or older at the time of remarriage

Bad

122
Q

What does research say about child’s gender at the time of remarriage?

A

Generally mixed results but adolescent girls fair the worst and better outcomes for adolescent boys

123
Q

An authoritative style of parenting by the stepfather is especially important for the _________ relationship.

A

Stepfather-stepson

124
Q

Sibling rivalry: middle childhood vs adolescense

A

Middle childhood - increase in rivalry

Adolesence - egalitarian

125
Q

Maternal employment = ______ gender concepts and ____ achievement scores for _____ in high-SES families

A

egalitarian, lower, boys

126
Q

Three types of nonsocial and social play

A

nonsocial: unoccupied, onlooker, solitary
social: parallel, associative, cooperative

127
Q

Peer support in adulthood

A

subjective perception of support more important than actual support, termed buffering hypothesis

128
Q

Friendships in childhood and adolesence

A

Ages 4-7 - playmates
8-10 - trust and asitance
11 - intimacy and loyalty

129
Q

Rejected and neglected children types

Outcomes are worse for which?

A

1) Rejected-aggressive
2) Rejected-withdrawn
3) Neglected

Actively rejected have worse outcomes- greater loneliness but also less likely to improve when changing social groups

130
Q

Rosenthal effect (self-fulfilling proophecy)

Teacher feedback to students

A

Children identified as bloomers receive better and more attention from teachers

Boys - criticized for lack of decorum, not neatly doing work, inattention, but praised for intellect and task-related behaviors

Girls - criticized for lack of ability, inadequate intellect but praised for effort, cooperation, and dependent behaviors - (girls view their failures as lacking ability)

131
Q

Empty nest syndrome

A

contrary to popular belief, parents of children who leave home experience an increase in marital satisfaction

132
Q

Socioemotional Selectivity Theory says that _____ and has 2 primary functions.

A

social goals correspond to perceptions in the time left to live

1) Acquisition of knowledge
2) Regulation of emotion

133
Q

Adults experience significant changes in ____ after age ___.

A

vision, 65

134
Q

Information processing theory of development

A

Attributes development to increased memory capacity, enhanced processing speed, and greater automaticity