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EPPP > Audio > Flashcards

Audio Flashcards

1
Q

_____serves an inhibitory function and ____ anxiety

A

GABA, decreases

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2
Q

_____ is an excitatory NT and is linked to LTP

A

Glutamate

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3
Q

_____ is linked to attention, learning, and movement

A

Dopamine

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4
Q

______drugs are used to treat nausea, IBS, motion sickness

A

anticholinergic

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5
Q

cholinergic = ____ which is a NT implicated in ____ and ____

A

Ach, Alzheimer’s and OCD

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6
Q

noredronergic = ____ and is linked to OCD but not as much as ____

A

norepinephrine , seratonin

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7
Q

most effective drugs for OCD are _______

A

seratonergic

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8
Q

damage to ____ results in slurred speech, jerky movements

A

cerbellum

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9
Q

olfaction bypasses the _____ and goes straight to the ______

A

thalamus, limbic system

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10
Q

Damage to the _____ is linked to Parkinson’s, Huntington’s

A

basal ganglia

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11
Q

OCD and Tourettes = damage to the

A

basal ganglia

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12
Q

_____ region is especially important in declarative and spatial memories

A

hippocampus

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13
Q

PTSD and depression linked to ____

A

amygdala

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14
Q

sex hormones are monitored and regulated by the _____

A

hypothalamus

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15
Q

the ____ connect the two halves of the _____ and plays a role in the integration of ____

A

pons, cerebellum, movement

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16
Q

2 prominent traits of the cerebral cortex include

A

1-hemispheric dominance

2-contralaterlization

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17
Q

injury to the left hemisphere would result in the _____ of ____ emotions

A

increase of negative

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18
Q

stimulation to the left hemiphere would result in the _____ of _____ emotions

A

increase of positive

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19
Q

stimulation to the right hemiphere would result in the _____ of _____ emotions

A

increase of negative

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20
Q

injury to the right hemisphere would result in the _____ of ____ emotions

A

increase of positive

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21
Q

if damage to prefrontal cortex, what kind of memory issues would you have?

A

working memory

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22
Q

contralateral neglect = damage to the _____ lobe

A

parietal

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23
Q

gerstman’s syndrome = damage to the

A

L parietal

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24
Q

wernicke’s area is in the ____ lobe

A

temporal

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25
Q

if wernicke’s area is damaged, can have ___ speech which is ___ of content

A

fluid, devoid

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26
Q

wernicke’s and broca’s areas are connected by the _______, and damage to that leads to _______ aphasia

A

arcuit fissiculus, conduction aphasia

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27
Q

prosopagnosia is trouble recognizing _____ which results from damage to the _____

A

faces, occipital lobe

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28
Q

In TBI, retrograde and anterograde amnesia can occur. Regarding retrograde, the ____ memories return ____, which is known as

A

older (remote) return first aka shrinking retrograde amnesia

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29
Q

antipsychotics are aka

A

neuroleptics

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30
Q

atypical antipsychotics affect which NTs

A

Dopamine, Seratonin, Norepinephrine, Glutamate

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31
Q

Agranulocytosis is a side effect of _______, which reflects severe ____ in _____ blood cell count

A

atypical antipsychotics, decrease, white blood cells

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32
Q

TCAs block the reuptake of _____ and can be lethal due to potentially being _____

A

Norepinephrine, cardiotoxic

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33
Q

Due to their potential for being cardiotoxic, don’t give ____ to suicidal and people with heart conditions

A

TCAs

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34
Q

SEs of ____ include nausea, vomiting, sexual dysfunction

A

SSRIs

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35
Q

____ block the enzymes that breakdown norepinephrine and _______

A

MAOIs, seratonin

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36
Q

SEs of ___ include confusion, tremor, anticholinergic

A

MAOIs

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37
Q

combining an MAOI with ______ can result in a ________ crisis

A

antihistamine, hypertensive

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38
Q

_____ stimulate the inhibitory aspect of GABA

A

benzos

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39
Q

SEs of ____ include drowsiness, lethargy, slurred speech

A

benzos

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40
Q

what kind of drugs can result in increased tolerance and rebound excitability

A

benzos

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41
Q

______mimic or increase _____ and norepinephrine

A

Stimulants, dopamine

42
Q

SEs of ______ include decreased appetite, abdominal pain, anxiety, irritability, and some children’s growth is ______

A

stimulants, suppressed

43
Q

SEs of ____ include nausea, thirst, urination, hand tremor

A

lithium

44
Q

aggression and deindividuation is attributed to ______, who said that _____ can lead to _____ aggression.

A

zimbardo, anonymity, increased

45
Q

social identity theory says that we have _____ and _____ identities and the most salient one depends on the ______

A

individual, group, situation

46
Q

minority influence is more ____ and more likely to result in ____ or internalization of the opinion while majority influence usually results in ____

A

enduring, acceptance, compliance

47
Q

the 3 factors that minority’s influence depends on:

A

1) instill doubt in majority
2) firm stance without being dogmatic
3) alternative & coherent POV

48
Q

the selection, evaluation, and training of people

A

personnel psychology

49
Q

difference between halo, central tendency, strictness, and leniency biases is

A

halo affects one person and the others affect everyone

50
Q

criterion measures used to eliminate rater bias are either _____ or ______

A

relative or comparative

51
Q

relative measures don’t provide adequate chances to

A

give feedback

52
Q

what’s it called when the employer follows the employee around and records outstanding or very poor performance

A

Critical Incident Technique

53
Q

best way to improve rater accuracy is to provide with more _____ with a focus on _____ skills rather than focusing on _____

A

provide them with more training focusing on observational skills instead of biases

54
Q

focuses on varying levels of effectiveness for each dimension of job performance

A

frame of reference training

55
Q

you would conduct a _______ to see if training is needed to improve employee performance

A

needs assessmnt

56
Q

the 3 factors of a needs assessment include

A

job analysis, person analysis, and organizational analysis

57
Q

when different groups score different on predictors but the same on criterion

A

unfairness

58
Q

what’s the best remedy for unfairness

A

use different cutoff scores

59
Q

when a predictor’s validity coefficient is substantially different for different group of people

A

differential validity

60
Q

habituation is used to study memory in ____

A

infants

61
Q

length of time a newborn pays attention to different stimuli implies if he remembers it or not…shorter amount of attention means

A

he remembers it

62
Q

studies show that infants give clear signs of _____ memory

A

recognition

63
Q

operant conditioning is used for studies of ____ recall while deferred imitation is for ____ recall

A

cued, delayed

64
Q

having someone model a sequence of actions in front of a baby and then return the baby to see if he will repeat the actions is a study of

A

delayed recall

65
Q

children’s development of memory strategies in order

A

rehearsal, organizational, elaborative

66
Q

undergratification of the oral stage results in what in childhood and what in adulthood

A

child-thumbsucking

adult-critical, sarcastic

67
Q

overgratification of the oral stage can result in

A

smoking, compulsive eating

68
Q

frequency of visits of noncustodial father by itself is / is not predictive of the child’s outcome

A

is not

69
Q

for boys, greater frequency of contact by the noncustodial father has a better outcome when which 2 conditions are met?

A

1) authoritative style of parenting

2) good relationship with custodial mother

70
Q

freuds stages

A

1) Oral - birth - 1 yr
2) Anal - 1-3 yrs
3) Phallic - 3-6 yrs
4) Latency - 6-12 yrs
5) Genital - 12+

71
Q

piaget’s stages of cognitive dvlpmt

A

Sensorimotor - birth -2 years
Preoperational - 2-7
Concrete Operational - 7-11/12
Formal Operational - 11/12+

72
Q

piaget’s stages of moral dvlpmt

A

heteronomous - 6-10

autonomous - 11/12

73
Q

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, when an infant exercises his own reflexes, it’s called ____ and occurs during which months

A

reflexive schemas (birth-1)

74
Q

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, when an infant varies an action to see its consequences, it’s called ____ and occurs during which months

A

tertiary circular reactions (12-18)

75
Q

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, when an infant tries to reproduce a pleasurable event involving other people/objects (shaking a rattle), it’s called ____ and occurs during which months

A

secondary circular reactions (4-8)

76
Q

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, when an infant develops representational (symbolic) thought and can think of objects in past events, it’s called ____ and occurs during which months

A

mental representation (18-24)

77
Q

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, when an infant combines schemas into new, more complex action sequences, it’s called ____ and occurs during which months

A

coordinated secondary circular reactions (8-12)

78
Q

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, when an infant attempts to repeat pleasurable events involving his own body, it’s called ____ and occurs during which months

A

primary circular reactions (1-4)

79
Q

In Piaget’s theory, conservation depends on ____ and _____

A

decentration, reversibility

80
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the order in which one acquires the understanding of conservation is ____, ____, ____, and ____.

A

s, length, mass, liquid

81
Q

Spearman proposed a ___ factor for all tasks and a ___ factor for specific tasks

A

g and s

82
Q

Sternberg says that traditional tests focus on ____ aspects but neglect ____ and _____

A

analytical, creativity, practicality

83
Q

The BG is a screener for impairment, has ___ cards, and is for ages ___

A

16, 3+

84
Q

A score of ____ or below on the MMSE indicates impairment

A

23/24

85
Q

An issue with the MMSE is that it lacks ____ in ____ forms of impairment

A

sensitivity, milder

86
Q

A negative for both the BG and MMSE is that they’re affected by one’s

A

education

87
Q

The SB5 has a lot of items that are appropriate for both low and high functioning people, therefore it has a ___ floor and ___ ceiling

A

low, high

88
Q

the WISC has the same scales as the WAIS plus the extra ______ scale and ancillary scales that are specific to _____ difficulties

A

fluid reasoning, learning

89
Q

When an IV is _____ the investigator does not manipulate it; rather, he measures the subject’s status on it (age, gender)

A

organismic

90
Q

A likert scale is an example of a ____ score and IQ scores are ___ scores

A

ordinal, interval

91
Q

reducing alpha ____ power

A

decreases

92
Q

A one way ANOVA shows if there are ___ effects for the ___

A

main for the IV

93
Q

Facotrial ANOVA shows if there are ____ and ____ effects

A

main and interaction

94
Q

In correlational research we refer to the IV as the _____ and the DV as the ______

A

predictor, criterion

95
Q

In regression analysis, the correlation coefficient is indicated by ___ and it reflects the association between how many predictors and criteria?

A

r, 1 and 1

96
Q

when “r” is squared in a correlation, it indicates a correlation of _____ aka shared ______

A

determination, variability

97
Q

In multiple regression analysis, the correlation coefficient is indicated by ___, and it reflects the association between how many predictors and criteria?

A

R, 2+, 1

98
Q

when R is squared, it indicates a correlation of _____ determination, which reflects the shared _____ of all the predictors and criterion

A

multiple, variability

99
Q

What do you use when there are 2 or more predictors for 2 or more criterion?

A

canonical correlation

100
Q

A _______ analysis is used for 2 or more predictors and ___ nominal score

A

discriminant function analysis, 1 Nominal criterion

101
Q

A ________ is less restrictive than a discriminant function analysis and it’s used if any of the ______ are not met for a discriminant function analysis, which say that scores are ____ distributed, ____ related, and have ___ variances within groups

A

logistic regression, assumptions, normally, linearly, equal

EPPP (20 decks)

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