Audio Flashcards
1
Q
_____serves an inhibitory function and ____ anxiety
A
GABA, decreases
2
Q
_____ is an excitatory NT and is linked to LTP
A
Glutamate
3
Q
_____ is linked to attention, learning, and movement
A
Dopamine
4
Q
______drugs are used to treat nausea, IBS, motion sickness
A
anticholinergic
5
Q
cholinergic = ____ which is a NT implicated in ____ and ____
A
Ach, Alzheimer’s and OCD
6
Q
noredronergic = ____ and is linked to OCD but not as much as ____
A
norepinephrine , seratonin
7
Q
most effective drugs for OCD are _______
A
seratonergic
8
Q
damage to ____ results in slurred speech, jerky movements
A
cerbellum
9
Q
olfaction bypasses the _____ and goes straight to the ______
A
thalamus, limbic system
10
Q
Damage to the _____ is linked to Parkinson’s, Huntington’s
A
basal ganglia
11
Q
OCD and Tourettes = damage to the
A
basal ganglia
12
Q
_____ region is especially important in declarative and spatial memories
A
hippocampus
13
Q
PTSD and depression linked to ____
A
amygdala
14
Q
sex hormones are monitored and regulated by the _____
A
hypothalamus
15
Q
the ____ connect the two halves of the _____ and plays a role in the integration of ____
A
pons, cerebellum, movement
16
Q
2 prominent traits of the cerebral cortex include
A
1-hemispheric dominance
2-contralaterlization
17
Q
injury to the left hemisphere would result in the _____ of ____ emotions
A
increase of negative
18
Q
stimulation to the left hemiphere would result in the _____ of _____ emotions
A
increase of positive
19
Q
stimulation to the right hemiphere would result in the _____ of _____ emotions
A
increase of negative
20
Q
injury to the right hemisphere would result in the _____ of ____ emotions
A
increase of positive
21
Q
if damage to prefrontal cortex, what kind of memory issues would you have?
A
working memory
22
Q
contralateral neglect = damage to the _____ lobe
A
parietal
23
Q
gerstman’s syndrome = damage to the
A
L parietal
24
Q
wernicke’s area is in the ____ lobe
A
temporal
25
if wernicke's area is damaged, can have ___ speech which is ___ of content
fluid, devoid
26
wernicke's and broca's areas are connected by the _______, and damage to that leads to _______ aphasia
arcuit fissiculus, conduction aphasia
27
prosopagnosia is trouble recognizing _____ which results from damage to the _____
faces, occipital lobe
28
In TBI, retrograde and anterograde amnesia can occur. Regarding retrograde, the ____ memories return ____, which is known as
older (remote) return first aka shrinking retrograde amnesia
29
antipsychotics are aka
neuroleptics
30
atypical antipsychotics affect which NTs
Dopamine, Seratonin, Norepinephrine, Glutamate
31
Agranulocytosis is a side effect of _______, which reflects severe ____ in _____ blood cell count
atypical antipsychotics, decrease, white blood cells
32
TCAs block the reuptake of _____ and can be lethal due to potentially being _____
Norepinephrine, cardiotoxic
33
Due to their potential for being cardiotoxic, don't give ____ to suicidal and people with heart conditions
TCAs
34
SEs of ____ include nausea, vomiting, sexual dysfunction
SSRIs
35
____ block the enzymes that breakdown norepinephrine and _______
MAOIs, seratonin
36
SEs of ___ include confusion, tremor, anticholinergic
MAOIs
37
combining an MAOI with ______ can result in a ________ crisis
antihistamine, hypertensive
38
_____ stimulate the inhibitory aspect of GABA
benzos
39
SEs of ____ include drowsiness, lethargy, slurred speech
benzos
40
what kind of drugs can result in increased tolerance and rebound excitability
benzos
41
______mimic or increase _____ and norepinephrine
Stimulants, dopamine
42
SEs of ______ include decreased appetite, abdominal pain, anxiety, irritability, and some children's growth is ______
stimulants, suppressed
43
SEs of ____ include nausea, thirst, urination, hand tremor
lithium
44
aggression and deindividuation is attributed to ______, who said that _____ can lead to _____ aggression.
zimbardo, anonymity, increased
45
social identity theory says that we have _____ and _____ identities and the most salient one depends on the ______
individual, group, situation
46
minority influence is more ____ and more likely to result in ____ or internalization of the opinion while majority influence usually results in ____
enduring, acceptance, compliance
47
the 3 factors that minority's influence depends on:
1) instill doubt in majority
2) firm stance without being dogmatic
3) alternative & coherent POV
48
the selection, evaluation, and training of people
personnel psychology
49
difference between halo, central tendency, strictness, and leniency biases is
halo affects one person and the others affect everyone
50
criterion measures used to eliminate rater bias are either _____ or ______
relative or comparative
51
relative measures don't provide adequate chances to
give feedback
52
what's it called when the employer follows the employee around and records outstanding or very poor performance
Critical Incident Technique
53
best way to improve rater accuracy is to provide with more _____ with a focus on _____ skills rather than focusing on _____
provide them with more training focusing on observational skills instead of biases
54
focuses on varying levels of effectiveness for each dimension of job performance
frame of reference training
55
you would conduct a _______ to see if training is needed to improve employee performance
needs assessmnt
56
the 3 factors of a needs assessment include
job analysis, person analysis, and organizational analysis
57
when different groups score different on predictors but the same on criterion
unfairness
58
what's the best remedy for unfairness
use different cutoff scores
59
when a predictor's validity coefficient is substantially different for different group of people
differential validity
60
habituation is used to study memory in ____
infants
61
length of time a newborn pays attention to different stimuli implies if he remembers it or not...shorter amount of attention means
he remembers it
62
studies show that infants give clear signs of _____ memory
recognition
63
operant conditioning is used for studies of ____ recall while deferred imitation is for ____ recall
cued, delayed
64
having someone model a sequence of actions in front of a baby and then return the baby to see if he will repeat the actions is a study of
delayed recall
65
children's development of memory strategies in order
rehearsal, organizational, elaborative
66
undergratification of the oral stage results in what in childhood and what in adulthood
child-thumbsucking
| adult-critical, sarcastic
67
overgratification of the oral stage can result in
smoking, compulsive eating
68
frequency of visits of noncustodial father by itself is / is not predictive of the child's outcome
is not
69
for boys, greater frequency of contact by the noncustodial father has a better outcome when which 2 conditions are met?
1) authoritative style of parenting
| 2) good relationship with custodial mother
70
freuds stages
1) Oral - birth - 1 yr
2) Anal - 1-3 yrs
3) Phallic - 3-6 yrs
4) Latency - 6-12 yrs
5) Genital - 12+
71
piaget's stages of cognitive dvlpmt
Sensorimotor - birth -2 years
Preoperational - 2-7
Concrete Operational - 7-11/12
Formal Operational - 11/12+
72
piaget's stages of moral dvlpmt
heteronomous - 6-10
| autonomous - 11/12
73
In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, when an infant exercises his own reflexes, it's called ____ and occurs during which months
reflexive schemas (birth-1)
74
In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, when an infant varies an action to see its consequences, it's called ____ and occurs during which months
tertiary circular reactions (12-18)
75
In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, when an infant tries to reproduce a pleasurable event involving other people/objects (shaking a rattle), it's called ____ and occurs during which months
secondary circular reactions (4-8)
76
In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, when an infant develops representational (symbolic) thought and can think of objects in past events, it's called ____ and occurs during which months
mental representation (18-24)
77
In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, when an infant combines schemas into new, more complex action sequences, it's called ____ and occurs during which months
coordinated secondary circular reactions (8-12)
78
In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, when an infant attempts to repeat pleasurable events involving his own body, it's called ____ and occurs during which months
primary circular reactions (1-4)
79
In Piaget's theory, conservation depends on ____ and _____
decentration, reversibility
80
In Piaget's theory, the order in which one acquires the understanding of conservation is ____, ____, ____, and ____.
#s, length, mass, liquid
81
Spearman proposed a ___ factor for all tasks and a ___ factor for specific tasks
g and s
82
Sternberg says that traditional tests focus on ____ aspects but neglect ____ and _____
analytical, creativity, practicality
83
The BG is a screener for impairment, has ___ cards, and is for ages ___
16, 3+
84
A score of ____ or below on the MMSE indicates impairment
23/24
85
An issue with the MMSE is that it lacks ____ in ____ forms of impairment
sensitivity, milder
86
A negative for both the BG and MMSE is that they're affected by one's
education
87
The SB5 has a lot of items that are appropriate for both low and high functioning people, therefore it has a ___ floor and ___ ceiling
low, high
88
the WISC has the same scales as the WAIS plus the extra ______ scale and ancillary scales that are specific to _____ difficulties
fluid reasoning, learning
89
When an IV is _____ the investigator does not manipulate it; rather, he measures the subject's status on it (age, gender)
organismic
90
A likert scale is an example of a ____ score and IQ scores are ___ scores
ordinal, interval
91
reducing alpha ____ power
decreases
92
A one way ANOVA shows if there are ___ effects for the ___
main for the IV
93
Facotrial ANOVA shows if there are ____ and ____ effects
main and interaction
94
In correlational research we refer to the IV as the _____ and the DV as the ______
predictor, criterion
95
In regression analysis, the correlation coefficient is indicated by ___ and it reflects the association between how many predictors and criteria?
r, 1 and 1
96
when "r" is squared in a correlation, it indicates a correlation of _____ aka shared ______
determination, variability
97
In multiple regression analysis, the correlation coefficient is indicated by ___, and it reflects the association between how many predictors and criteria?
R, 2+, 1
98
when R is squared, it indicates a correlation of _____ determination, which reflects the shared _____ of all the predictors and criterion
multiple, variability
99
What do you use when there are 2 or more predictors for 2 or more criterion?
canonical correlation
100
A _______ analysis is used for 2 or more predictors and ___ nominal score
discriminant function analysis, 1 Nominal criterion
101
A ________ is less restrictive than a discriminant function analysis and it's used if any of the ______ are not met for a discriminant function analysis, which say that scores are ____ distributed, ____ related, and have ___ variances within groups
logistic regression, assumptions, normally, linearly, equal
