CV 2 Flashcards

1
Q

systolic murmurs mnemonic

A

MR PM AS MVP
mitral regur
physiologic murmur
aortic stenosis
MVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

only the ____ murmurs radiate

A

systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where does MR radiate to

A

axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where does AS radiate to

A

neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

risk factors for bacterial endocarditis include
7

A

older age > 60
male sex
infection drug use
poor dentition or dental infection
heart disease
chronic HD
HIV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

classic case for bacterial endocarditis

A

adult male presents with fever, chills, anorexia, weight loss, malaise, and subungual hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

bacterial endocarditis CBC findings

A

elevated WBC
elevated ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

bacterial endocarditis dx tools include
2

A

microbiologic data w/ BCs
echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

endocarditis prophylaxis - preferred oral regimen before procedure

A

give 1 hour before procedure - amoxicillin 2 g PO x 1 dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

considerations for endocarditis prophylaxis - high risk conditions
5

A
  1. prosthetic heart valves or prosthetic valve repair material
  2. previous hx or recurrent bacterial endocarditis
  3. implanted durable mechanical circulatory support device
  4. cardiac transplant
  5. certain types of congenital heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

endocarditis prophylaxis - w/ penicillin allergy oral regimen before procedure

A

oral cephalexin or clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

red macules on palms/soles but not painful

A

janeway lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

painful nodes found mostly on pads of the fingers and toes

A

osler nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a fib dx evaluation includes
7

A

EKG
TSH
serum electrolytes
renal function
B-TNP
Troponin
digoxin level (if on dig)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A fib - for rate control use what
3

A

beta blockers
CCBs
digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a fib - for rhythm control use what to maintain normal sinus rhythm

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a fib - agent of choice for coagulation in patients with severe MS and mechanical heart valves

A

warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

warfarin target INR

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

warfarin initial dose for average adults and for sensitive patients

A

5 mg or 2.5 mg

20
Q

warfarin - full anticoagulation effect can take how long, check INR when

A

can take 3 days; check INR every 2-3 days until therapeutic for 2 consecutive checks, then weekly; check every 4 weeks when stable

21
Q

a fib - you can take clopidogrel/Plavix how

A

alone or in combo with ASA or other anticoags, may be better tolerated but are less effective than others

22
Q

a fib on warfarin - INR 4.01-4.99 do what

A

hold one dose of warfarin ; do not give vitamin K

23
Q

drug classes/meds that can interact with warfarin and increase INR
10

A

glucocorticoids
SSRIs
fluoroquinolones
macrolides
PNCs
azole antifungals
statins
tramadol
Bactrim
fenofibrate

24
Q

on warfarin - INR < 4.5

A

skin next dose and/or reduce slightly the maintenance dose; check INR 1-2 x week when adjusting dose

25
Q

on warfarin, INR 4.5-10 - do what

A

hold 1-2 doses, w/ or w/o administration of low dose oral vitamin K; decrease maintenance dose

26
Q

a proximal DVT is a thrombus in what veins
3

A

popliteal
femoral
iliac

27
Q

a distal DVT refers to a thrombus where

A

in the calf veins

28
Q

virchow triad proposes that VTE occurs as a result of

A
  1. alterations in blood flow
  2. alterations in blood components
  3. vascular endothelial injury (e.g. cell injury from SARS-CoV-2)
29
Q

DVT dx to order
6

A

CBC
platelets
clotting time (PT/PTT, INR)
D dimer
chest x ray
EKG

30
Q

dx test for choice for DVT

A

compression US w/ doppler

31
Q

DVT treatment options
4

A
  1. low molecular weight heparin (enoxaprin/Lovenox)
  2. heparin SQ
  3. warfarin PO (Coumadin)
  4. DOACs
32
Q

HF - pulmonary crackles, cough, dyspnea

A

left HF

33
Q

HF - paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea

A

both right and left HF

34
Q

HF - dyspnea, abd distention

A

right HF

35
Q

HF - enlarged spleen and enlarged liver

A

right HF

36
Q

HF dx eval includes
7

A
  1. chest x ray
  2. 12 lead EKG
  3. cardiac troponin T or I
  4. BNP or NT proBNP
  5. CMP
  6. CBC
  7. echo
37
Q

what is the definitive dx test for right HF

A

cardiac catheterization

38
Q

S3 heart sounds are a sign of ___ although what

A

sx of HF, although can be heard in pregnant people and children/young adults

39
Q

HFpEF tx plan

A

diuretic; if elevated BNP then SGLT2 inhibitor and a MRSA is recommended; add sacubitril-valsartan for poorly controlled HTN

40
Q

HFrEF tx plan

A

combo tx with diuretic, ACE or ARB or ARNI and a BB

41
Q

NYHA class - no limitation

A

class I

42
Q

NYHA class - ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, exertional dyspnea

A

class II

43
Q

NYHA class - marked limitation in physical activity

A

class III

44
Q

NYHA class - symptoms are present at rest with or without physical activity

A

class IV

45
Q

first line med for stable HF is

A

ACEI or ARB