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Cameron Lecture study guides > Cumulative Study Guide Final > Flashcards

Cumulative Study Guide Final Flashcards

1
Q

Human Microbiome: Be able to define it and how it is beneficial

A
  • They help train the immune system
  • outcompete pathogens in the human body
  • Provide essential nutrients
  • microbes that live on and within our body without causing harm
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2
Q

Hygiene hypothesis

A

This hypothesis states that if you’re too clean in the early stages in life, it prevents training the immune system and later it can lead to unique or abnormal immune reactions

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3
Q

Vaccines: how they work and how they are beneficial

A
  • Vaccines help train the immune system to create a memory of the pathogen so that if its ever encountered again, the immune system can destroy it before a person gets sick
  • Ultimate goal of vaccines is to reduce severity of disease
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4
Q

Herd immunity

A

Resistance to the spread of an infectious disease withing a population that is based on pre=existing immunity of a high proportion of individuals

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5
Q

Connection between HIV and AIDS

A

(know all about the phases, know how HIV can lead to AIDS if not treated)

HIV slowly kills CD4+ T cells which inhibits the proper function of the immune system

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6
Q

Horseshoe crabs and LAL

A

Horseshoe crabs contain a blood cell called amebocyte which helps detect endotoxins. Pharmaceuticals then use this LAL to test instruments, vaccines, and medications.

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7
Q

How do bacteria become antibiotic resistant?

A

the initial step for antibiotic resistance is for a bacterial cell to undergo genetic recombination: conjugation, transformation, transduction, transposons. This could all lead to a bacteria acquiring a resistance gene and then replicating exponentially or passing it to another bacterial type

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8
Q

How antibiotics work: what part of the bacteria do they target? What is the difference between narrow and broad spectrum?

A

Narrows precturm = targets specific microbes
broad spectrum = targets multiple microbes

Antibiotics can be cell wall/ DNA/ protein synthesis inhibitors which inhibit bacterial function and replication

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9
Q

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the

A

Species

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10
Q

What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens?

A

450x

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11
Q

What domain are humans classified in?

A

Eukarya

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12
Q

How do most prokaryotes reproduce?

A

binary fission

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?
A) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
B) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) They typically have a circular chromosome.
D) They reproduce by binary fission.
E) They lack a plasma membrane

A

They lack a plasma membrane

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14
Q

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) extracellular enzymes
E) aquaporins

A

active transport

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?
A) plasma membrane
B) transporter proteins
C) ATP
D) concentration gradient
E) aquaporins

A

ATP

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16
Q

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

A

the plamsa membrane

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17
Q

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion

A

requires transporter proteins

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18
Q

Caboxysomes, gas vacuoles, and magnetosomes are all examples of

A

inclusions

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19
Q

In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically

A

plasmolyze (plasmolysis)

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20
Q

Endospores are a reproductive structure.
A) True B) False

A

False

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21
Q

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a periplasm?

A

A nd B

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22
Q

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids?

A

a

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23
Q

Plasmids can do all the following EXCEPT:
A) produce toxins
B) antibiotic resistance
C) transfer genes
D) carry crucial genetic info

A

carry crucial genetic info

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24
Q

Catabolic reactions generally break down molecules and release energy.
A) True B) False

A

true

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25
Q

In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.
A) True B) False

A

True

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26
Q

If NAD+ is converted to NADH, it is said to be
A) oxidized B) reduced

A

reduced

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27
Q

We utilize NADH and FADH2 for what step in aerobic respiration?

A

Electron transport chain

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28
Q

A bacterium that only possesses the ability to ferment obtains energy

A

by glycolysis only

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29
Q

Mother Teresa almost passed away after having surgery to put in a pace maker. Patients like Mother
Teresa with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections because
A) injected solutions are contaminated.
B) their immune systems are weakened.
C) infections can be transmitted from other people.
D) biofilms develop on catheters.
E) bacteria cause infections

A

biofilms develop on catheters

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30
Q

Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes?
A) lyophilization
B) nonionizing radiation
C) refrigeration
D) ionizing radiation
E) pasteurization

A

refrigeration

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31
Q

When something is bacteriostatic it is __________ growth and multiplication of microbes.

A

inhibiting

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32
Q

Antisepsis is different from disinfection because we are destroying harmful organisms from

A

living tissue

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33
Q

What is the most resistant microbe?

A

prions

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34
Q

What is the least resistant microbe?

A

enveloped viruses

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35
Q

All of these are examples of alcohols used to kill microbes EXCEPT
A) Ethanol
B) Isopropanol
C) Purell
D) Iodine

A

iodine

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36
Q

What part of the cell does radiation cause damage to?

A

DNA

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37
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?
A) a new strand of DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA

A

a new strand of DNA

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38
Q

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
A) by a bacteriophage.
B) as naked DNA in solution.
C) by cell-to-cell contact.
D) by crossing over.
E) by sexual reproduction

A

as naked DNA in solution

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39
Q

Transduction is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
A) by a bacteriophage.
B) as naked DNA in solution.
C) by cell-to-cell contact.
D) by crossing over.
E) by sexual reproduction

A

by a bacteriophage.

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40
Q

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by
A) mutation.
B) conjugation.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.
E) All of the answers are correct

A

All of the answers are correct

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41
Q

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) DNA helicase.
D) DNA polymerase.

A

RNA polymerase

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42
Q

Where does transcription take place in eukaryotes?

A

nucleus

43
Q

An RNA nucleotide is the same as a DNA nucleotide in the following ways
A) sugar-phosphate backbone
B) contains uracil instead of thymine (T)
C) ribose sugar
D) single stranded

A

sugar-phosphate backbone

44
Q

Where does transcription take place in prokaryotes?

A

cytoplasm

45
Q

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation

A

transfers DNA horizontally, to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication

46
Q

Recombination will always alter a cell’s genotype.
A) True B) False

A

True

47
Q

An example of a mutagen includes
A) UV radiation
B) nitrous acid
C) Gamma radiation
D) All of the above

A

All of the above

48
Q

Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
A) They use light as their energy source.
B) They use CO2 as their carbon source.
C) They produce oxygen via photosynthesis
D) All are unicellular.
E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction

A

All are unicellular

49
Q

What group is the pinworm classified in?

A

nematodes

50
Q

Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes.
B) They are used for attachment.
C) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface.
D) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses

A

They are found only on nonenveloped viruses

51
Q

What is the term for when viral DNA is incorporated into the host cell chromosome and never leaves?
A) latent viruses.
B) lytic viruses.
C) phages.
D) provirus
E) prophage

A

provirus

52
Q

What type of nucleic acid can be used for the viral genome?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) tRNA
D) both A & B

A

both DNA and RNA

53
Q

Provirus genes can suddenly be excised from the host cell.
A) True B) False

A

False

54
Q

Algae is important because it releases 60-80% of the planet’s oxygen.
A) True B) False

A

True

55
Q

An infectious protein is a
A) bacteriophage.
B) prion.
C) retrovirus.
D) viroid.
E) papovavirus

A

prion

56
Q

The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to
A) increased use of antibiotics.
B) improved handwashing.
C) vaccinations.
D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
E) None of the answers is correct.

A

vaccinations

57
Q

Which is the difference between acute and chronic diseases?
A) Acute disease symptoms occurs slowly while chronic disease symptoms occur rapidly
B) Both disease symptoms occur rapidly
C) Both disease symptoms occur slowly
D) Chronic disease symptoms occurs slowly while acute disease symptoms occur rapidly
E) Acute diseases have no symptoms and chronic disease symptoms occur slowly

A

Chronic disease symptoms occurs slowly while acute disease symptoms occur rapidly

58
Q

escherichia coli is normally found in the large intestine. If it makes its way into the urinary tract and causes a urinary tract infection then it is known as a(n) _________

A

opportunistic pathoge

59
Q

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called

A

epidemiology

60
Q

Which of the following is a fomite?
A) water
B) droplets from a sneeze
C) pus
D) insects
E) a hypodermic needle

A

a hypodermic needle

61
Q

Signs of disease differ from symptoms of disease in that signs
A) are changes felt by the patient.
B) are changes observed by the physician.
C) are specific for a particular disease.
D) always are endemic

A

are changes observed by the physician.

62
Q

These are all factors that contribute to nosocomial infections EXCEPT
A) microbes in the hospital environment
B) climatic changes.
C) weakened status of host
D) chain of transmission in a hospital
E) all of these factors contribute to nosocomial infections

A

all of these factors contribute to nosocomial infections

63
Q

A disease in which there are no noticeable signs or symptoms is referred to as

A

subclinical

64
Q

In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
A) prodromal
B) decline
C) convalescence
D) incubation
E) both incubation and convalescence

A

both incubation and convalescence

65
Q

A burn patient is one example of a compromised host.
A) True B) False

A

True

66
Q

In which period does death most likely occur?
A) Incubation
B) Prodromal
C) Illness
D) Decline
E) Convalescence

A

Illness

67
Q

When one organism benefits and the other is unaffected this type of symbiosis is called
A) mutualism
B) parasitism
C) commensalism
D) symbolic

A

commensalism

68
Q

What is a form of contact transmission?
A) water
B) kissing
C) food

A

kissing

69
Q

How does a pathogen make its way into your gastrointestinal tract?
A) water
B) food
C) contaminated fingers
D) all of the above

A

all of above (water, food, and contaminated fingers)

70
Q

What is the only example of an endotoxin?
A) monosaccharide
B) lipid A
C) carbohydrate B
D) glycoprotein

A

lipid A

71
Q

Endotoxins are
A) associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B) molecules that bind nerve cells.
C) part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D) excreted from the cell.
E) A-B toxins

A

part of the gram-negative cell wall.

72
Q

Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce
A) endotoxins.
B) exotoxins.
C) cytokines.
D) antibodies

A

cytokines

73
Q

Innate immunity
A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
B) is nonspecific and present at birth.
C) involves a memory component.
D) involves T cells and B cells.
E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.

A

is nonspecific and present at birth.

74
Q

Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) production of antibody.
D) production of interferon.
E) activation of complement

A

production of antibody

75
Q

Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT
A) M protein.
B) capsules.
C) formation of phagolysosomes.
D) leukocidins.
E) biofilms

A

formation of phagolysosomes

76
Q

Activation of C5-C9 results in
A) activation of C3.
B) fixation of complement.
C) membrane attack complex.
D) phagocytosis.
E) inflammation.

A

membrane attack complex

77
Q

What does perforin do to help kill target cells?
A) causes DNA synthesis to stop
B) creates a protein channel (punches hole in membrane)
C) inhibits enzyme activity

A

creates a protein channel (punches hole in membrane)

78
Q

What is an activated B cell called?

A

plasma cell

79
Q

How many different epitopes does a single B or T cell recognize?

A

1

80
Q

A second exposure to the same antigen results in a ____________ immune response because of____________ cells

A

more effective; memory

81
Q

CD4+ T cells are activated by
A) interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
B) interaction between TCRs and MHC I.
C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.
D) cytokines released by B cells

A

interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.

82
Q

Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
A) TC cell (Cytotoxic)
B) B cell
C) TH cell (Helper)
D) natural killer cell
E) basophil

A

TH cell (helper)

83
Q

T cells respond to antigens that are

A

attached to MHC I & MHC II

84
Q

You need Helper T cells to activate Cytotoxic T cells.
A) True B) False

A

true

85
Q

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have been vaccinated.
D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
E) The patient was near someone who had the disease

A

The patient was near someone who had the disease.

86
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
A) They elicit lifelong immunity.
B) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
D) They require few or no booster immunizations.
E) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection

A

They occasionally revert to virulent forms.

87
Q

In a vaccine preparation, the term “attenuated” means that the agent does NOT replicate.
A)True B) False

A

false

88
Q

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.
A) True B) False

A

true

89
Q

What is the name of the subunit vaccine that links two components together to get a stronger immune
response?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) toxoids
C) virus-like particle
D) recombinant vector vaccine

A

conjugated vaccine

90
Q

HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on

A

T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

91
Q

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
A) Virions may remain latent.
B) There may be persistent yeast infections.
C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
D) The disease progresses to AIDS.
E) All of the answers are correct.

A

All of the answers are correct

92
Q

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) asthma.
B) dust allergies.
C) severe reactions to insect venom.
D) pollen allergies.
E) transfusion rejections

A

transfusion rejections

93
Q

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of
A) cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B) immune complex autoimmunity.
C) cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D) immunosuppression.
E) acquired immunodeficiency

A

immune complex autoimmunity

94
Q

The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?

A

phase 3

95
Q

During which phase does ARS (Acute Retroviral Syndrome) occur?

A

phase 1

96
Q

Infection with HIV is currently chronic and incurable.
A) True B) False

A

True

97
Q

What phase of HIV infection is also considered AIDS?

A

phase 3

98
Q

Who first observed Penicillium inhibiting S. aureus?

A

Alexander Fleming

99
Q

An antibiotic specific to only Gram + bacteria would be considered
A) narrow spectrum
B) broad spectrum

A

narrow spectrum

100
Q

What is the name of the sterol that is targeted in the cell wall of fungi

A

ergosterol

101
Q

An inherited immunodeficiency is termed ________ .
A) congenital
B) inherited
C) acquired
D) immune syndrome

A

congenital

102
Q

Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate “self” from “nonself.”
A) True B) False

A

true

103
Q

A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal.
A) True B) False

A

true

104
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is dependent only on T cell activation?

A

type IV

Cameron Lecture study guides (24 decks)

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