CP LEC 6: LABS Flashcards

1
Q

increased WBS from ____
decreased from ______

A

infection

immunosuppressants or steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How would a pt with altered WBC present?

A

tired, intense exercise an modalities’ may be contraindicated if active infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If pt is having chest pain or dyspnea, what labs might you look at to rule out anemia?

A

CBC - RBC, HG, HCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: pt may have normal looking SpO2 levels with decreased hemoglobin

A

True! so watch symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Critical high values of Hematocrit are ____ and can put pt at risk for

Low values ____ put pt at risk for

A

High: > 60% of blood is RBC, risk for blood clotting

Low: < 15-20%, cardiac failure and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hemoglobin critical values, high and low

A

low: < 5-7 g/dL
high: > 20 g/dL, clotting risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SpO2 below ____% or a decrease of ___% or more from baseline is concerning and you should check your pt and stop exercising

A

88%
4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Symptoms of high WBC
Symptoms of low WBC

A

high - fever, malaise, lethargy, dizzy, bleeding, bruising, inflamed joints, wt loss, lymphadenopathy

low - anemia, weakness, fatigue, fever, SOB, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thrombocytopenia is platelet count of ____ and would present as

Thrombocytosis is _____ and would present as

A

<150 k/uL, increased risk for bleeding, weakness, HA

> 450, impaired tolerance to activity, increased clotting risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Platelet counts are often reduced in pts with what heart condition?

A

HFrEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What medications may reduce platelet counts?

A

heparin, anticoagulants, antiplatelets, histamine-2 blockers, aspirin, plavix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If platelet counts are below ___, do not do resistive exercises, the patient is at high risk of bleeding

A

50 k / uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hypernatremia is reuslt of _______ and may present as

A

dehydration
confusion, hyperreflexia, seizures, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hyponatremia is result of _________ and may present as

A

fluid overload

*confusion, *weakness, *hypotension, low energy, seizures, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Na+ reference range

A

134-142

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a pt has hyponatremia what medication should they take?

A

diuretics! too much fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Decreases in K+ may be due to what?

A

diuresis, vomiting, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

High levels of K may be due to what?

A

renal failure (not excreting)
dehydration
ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Low K levels are associated with acidosis/alkalosis and ____glycemia.

A

alkalosis, hypoglycemia (low K+ allows insulin into blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

High K levels are associated with acidosis/alkalosis and ____glycemia.

A

acidosis, hyperglycemia (high K+ blocks insulin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Potassium should be kept at what levels? Especially for what patients?

A

4.0-5.0 in cardiac patients, acute MI, cardiomyopathy, arrythmias, diuretic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What might you see on an ECG if your pt has hypokalemia?

A

PVC!
atrial tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation

risk for arrythmias!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What might hyperkalemia present as in the heart/ecg?

A

bradycardia, heart block, Vtach, Vfib, ventricular arrest, tetany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Metabolic _____ puts patients at risk for arrythmias

A

acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does CHF affect BUN levels?

A

increases BUN because decreased BF to kidneys, causing dysfn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pts with increased BUN levels or serum creatinine levels will have

A

decreased tolerance to activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pts with hyperglycemia will present with

A

diabetic ketoacidosis, extreme fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pts with hypoglycemia will present as

A

lethargy, irritable, shaking, weak, may not tolerate therpay until glucose levels increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hyperglycemia is > ____
hypoglycemia is < _____

target range of ____ - ____ is recommended for pts

A

> 200
< 70

140-180 recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A1c levels

A

normal < 5.7%
pre-diabetes 5.7-6.4
diabetic > 6.5

educate patient on blood sugar control and importance of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ALT, ALP and AST are labs for what organ? When might they be elevated?

A

liver fxn

elevated in pts with CHF due to hepatic congestion (leaking out bc backup) or low perfusion states (liver shock due to ischemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a major risk for pts with decreased Mg?

A

arrythmias, look for QT prolongation and atrial/ventricular arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Thyroid abnormalities can cause…

A

arrythmias, fatigue, anemia

start my checking TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When would you see elevated CK-MB?

A

enzyme in myocardium released with injury to cells

increases with acute MI, myocarditis, post-CABG, cardioversion, chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CK-MB presence is diagnostic of an MI. It will commonly be elevated within __ - ___ hours of cardiac injury and returns to normal within __-___ days.

A

3-6 hours or 6-12hrs
2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When can you mobilize a pt with elevated CK-MB levels?

A

when it trends downward, 2-3 days after acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MB index

A

percentage of MB in comparison with total CK (CK also in skeletal muscle and brain)

38
Q

how should you order CK-MB labs to confirm/diagnose an acute MI?

A

3 sets of cardiac isoenzymes should be ordered 8 hours apart

39
Q

Besides CK-MB, what other enzyme may be elevated after acute MI? When would it trend downwards?

A

Troponin I, levels return to normal in 7-10 days

40
Q

Myoglobin is used as an early marker of

A

muscle damage in MI

41
Q

When would you see elevated BNP?

A

when ventricles volume expansion and pressure overload, ventricular systolic and diastolic dysfxn

Dilated cardiomyopathy / HFrEF

42
Q

Symptoms you might see if a pt has elevated BNP

A

indicates CHF

SOB and poor exercise tolerance because pulmonary fluid impacts gas exchange

(vessels will also constrict in periphery and compensatory increased RBC increases the strain on the heart)

43
Q

Peaked T waves indicate

A

hyperkalemia

also PR elongation, wide QRS, ST depression

44
Q

flattened T waves indicate

A

hypokalemia

45
Q

how would toxic drug effects show up on an ECG?

A

QT prolongation

46
Q

An inverted T wave may indicate

A

ischemia during acute MI

47
Q

An ECHO can show

A

structural abnormalities, chamber sizes, valve fxn, left ventricle fxn/ejection fraction

48
Q

doppler echo

A

shows BF in heart, can asses pulmonary HTN

49
Q

What is stress testing?

A

evaluate how the heart responds to increased workload, evaluate myocardial ischemia

exercise treadmill, Myocardial Perfusion Imaging, stress echo

50
Q

A myocardial perfusion imaging stress test can determine

A

areas of ischemia, scar tissue from heart attacks

looks at BF during rest vs exercise

51
Q

What does radionuclide angiography or MUGA test for?

A

ejection fraction

52
Q

Helical CT used to diagnose…

A

aortic dissection, PE

53
Q

Plain CT used to diagnose…

A

masses, hematomas, aneurysms

54
Q

Ultrafest CT used to detect

A

Coronary artery calcification as an indicator of atherosclerosis

55
Q

Cardiac MRI allows for confirmation of heart disease following other tests, more precise measurements of…

A

ejection fraction
chamber size
BF
tumors
infections
diseases
ischemia
congenital heart disease

dont memorize

56
Q

What does cardiac catheterization measure, what’s an example if this method?

A

measures pressures in chambers/aorta, LV wall motion and ejection, coronary anatomy and valve fxn

ex: coronary angiogram

57
Q

A swan ganz catheter measures what?

A
  • Pulmonary artery BP
  • right atrial and ventricular pressure
  • left atrial P indirectly
58
Q

mPAP HTN is considered

A

> 25 at rest or > 30 with exercise

59
Q

What is cardiac index? how do you measure it?

A

Cardiac index = CO / Body SA

swan ganz catheter

60
Q

How is arrythmias monitoring conducted?

A

via telemetry

Holter monitor (24 hrs), event recorder (weeks), loop recorder (implanted in chest)

61
Q

Where is a DVT more dangerous, the proximal or distal segment of the leg?

A

proximal, higher tendency to dislodge and become PE

popliteal, femoral or iliac venous system

62
Q

T/F: VTEs can occur spontaneously in healthy, ambulatory outpatients

A

T

can be asymptomatic at first

63
Q

What are the strong risk factors for a DVT?

A
  • fracture (pelvis, femur, tibia)
  • hip or knee replacement
  • major general surgery
  • major trauma
  • SCI
    (5) FHSMM
    moderate: CHF or respiratory failure
64
Q

what are the classic symptoms of a DVT? can these be used to diagnose a DVT?

A

pain, tenderness, swelling, discoloration (can progress to fever, warmth, etc)

NO - not by themselves

65
Q

What is meant that PDVT tests need to have high sensitivity?

A

means that a negative test would indicate that the clinician can confidently rule out the disorder

66
Q

What is the WELLS rules?

A

assesses the probability of a DVT when patient has symptoms or there is suspicion of one (not a screening tool!!)

tells you whether to continue with further tests (d-dimer, ultrasound)

67
Q

What is a positive WELLS score?

A

greater than or equal to 2.

0 low prob
1-2 moderate
3+ high prob

68
Q

What is the name of the UE DVT test?

A

constans criteria, 2-3 is high probaility

69
Q

If your pt scores a low probability of DVT, what would you do vs if your patient had a moderate to high probability?

A

low prob - do d-dimer test, if positive, perform ultrasounds –> + give anticoagulant

moderate to high prob - start with emergency ultrasound, if its negative follow up with d-dimer –> + give anticoagulant

70
Q

a d-dimer test is highly ____ but not _____. What test could you use to fix this gap?

A

d-dimer is highly SENSITIVE but not SPECIFIC, doesnt tell you WHERE the clot is. a doppler test will, it tests specific veins.

71
Q

if your patient test positive for a DVT, what medication is given?

A

anticoagulants!
ex: heparin

72
Q

What is prothrombin time? What time is marked as a risk?

A

measures the time it takes to convert prothrombin to thrombin (time it takes a persons blood to clot)

> 25 seconds = high risk for bleeding

73
Q

What might increase a patients partial thromboplastin time?

A

being on heparin

74
Q

Before you get your pt up, if they are taking an anticoagulant/blood thinner, what should you ALWAYS CHECK??

75
Q

What is the purpose of and INR value? (international normalized ratio)

A

monitors the effectiveness of warfarin (common anticoagulant after surgery) for blood thinning

76
Q

Normal range of INR is _____
lower INR values have pts at increased risk of ____ whereas high INR values put pts at increased risk of

A

normal: 0.8-1.2

low = increased risk of clots

high = increased risk of bleeding (think very effective is high values so thinner blood)

77
Q

What questions should you ask if your patient has a known DVT or is taking an anticoagulant?

A

what type of anticoagulant, when was it taken/initiated

dictates when you can work with the pt

78
Q

What are DOACs? When can you work with a pt taking this medication?

A

direct acting oral anti-coagulant
wait 2-3 hours before mobilizing pt
<2 hrs= dont mobolize
2-3 check with med team

-aban
-eliquis
rivaroxaban, apixaban, dabigatran

79
Q

What are LMWH anticoagulants? When can you work with a pt taking this medication?

A

3-5 hours check with medical team, 5 hours you can mobilize
-parin

enoxaparin (lovenox), dalteparin, nadroparin, nadroparin, tinzaparin

80
Q

What are UFH anticoags? When can you work with a pt taking this medication?

A

unfractionated heparin

need to wait 24hrs then check with medical team! and chest aPTT b/w 1.5-2.5 control value. this looks at lab time and longer wait period.

81
Q

What is fondaparinux? When can you work with a pt taking this medication?

A

anticoag
2-3 hours medical team check
3 hours, mobilize

82
Q

When should you screen for a VTE?

A

during initial patient interview and physical exam

83
Q

What is post thrombotic syndrome?

A

after clot is resolved, pt still experiences symptoms like pain, swelling, varicose veins, etc

does not mean there is another DVT, usually because of vein or valves damage

84
Q

What is a common preventive measure aside from mobility for patients at risk of a DVT?

A

mechanical compression

85
Q

What scoring system can be used to assess someone’s risk to a DVT? (not someone with symptoms = use WELLS)

A

Padua Score

86
Q

When would you use an inferior vena cava filter IVC?

A

a filter than catches blood clots before they enter the lung

used when pt has high risk of DVT or PE, but has contraindications to anticoagulation meds such as a history of major bleeding

87
Q

If a patient has a PE, what symptoms are likely present?

A

-clinical S&S of DVT
-no alternative diagnoses
-HR >100
-immobolization > or 3; surgery previous 4 weeks
-previous DVT or PE
-hemoptysis
-malignancy w/ active txt in past 6 months or under pallitative care

88
Q

What test is used to diagnose a PE?

A

VQ scan not DOPPLER

radioactive dye in lungs to find the PE

89
Q

If the PE is severely impairing circulation and meds (thrombolysis) aren’t working, what would be done?

A

embolectomy - surgery to remove clot

90
Q

What is the most serious kind of PE?

A

saddle PE

saddles the bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk, blocking both as it splits