Correct answers got wrong on practice exam Flashcards

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1
Q

Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?

Select one:

a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach -
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization

A

Single-leg squat touchdown

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2
Q

To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of:

Select one:

a. plantarflexion.
b. eversion.
c. dorsiflexion.
d. inversion.

A

dorsiflexion.

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3
Q
Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?
Select one:
a. 75 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 150 minutes
A

150 minutes

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4
Q
To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn:
Select one:
a. 1 CEU within 2 years.
b. 2 CEUs within 2 years.
c. 3 CEUs within 3 years.
d. 3 CEUs within 4 years
A

2 CEUs within 2 years.

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5
Q

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?

Select one:

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

Synergistic dominance

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6
Q
When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
A

standing triceps extension

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7
Q

Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride

A

Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc

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8
Q
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
Select one:
a. Kneeling hip flexor 
b. Standing calf
c. Standing adductor
d. Standing quadriceps
A

Standing calf

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9
Q
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Select one:
a. Mouth Incorrect
b. Stomach
c. Small intestines
d. Esophagus
A

Stomach

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10
Q
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Select one:
a. Multi-planar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg dead lift 
d. Multi-planar dumbbell step-up
A

Multi-planar dumbbell step-up

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11
Q

Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength, and Power Phases of the OPT model?

Select one:

a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive

A

12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive

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12
Q

A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders?

Select one:

a. Metabolic syndrome
b. Restrictive lung disease
c. Peripheral edema condition
d. Coronary heart disease

A

Metabolic syndrome

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13
Q

Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model?

Select one:

a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Preparation

A

Preparation

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14
Q

A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?

Select one:

a. Mechanical
b. Balance
c. Metabolic
d. Neuromuscular

A

Neuromuscular

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15
Q

If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive?

Select one:

a. Adductor longus
b. Vastus medialis oblique Incorrect
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Piriformis

A

Adductor longus

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16
Q

“From our discussion, I understand that your primary goal is to lose 10 pounds in the next 2 months. Is that correct?” This statement is an example of which of the following?

Select one:

a. Nondirective question
b. Close-ended question
c. Invitational question
d. Probing question

A

Close-ended question

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17
Q
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
Select one:
a. autogenic inhibition.
b. reciprocal inhibition.
c. altered reciprocal inhibition.
d. synergistic dominance.
A

reciprocal inhibition.

18
Q

Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?

Select one:

a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium

A

Endomysium

19
Q

Although quality and brand recognition are important, people ultimately buy personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on:

Select one:

a. price.
b. knowledge. Incorrect
c. pressure.
d. emotion

A

emotion

20
Q

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?

Select one:

a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition. Incorrect
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten

A

Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.

21
Q

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?

Select one:

a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve

A

Heart rate response

22
Q

During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

Select one:

a. Bicep femoris
b. Piriformis
c. Transverse abdominus Incorrect
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

Latissimus dorsi

23
Q

When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?

Select one:

a. 1 to 2 seconds Incorrect
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds

A

3 to 5 seconds

24
Q
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
Select one:
a. Powerful movements Incorrect
b. Joint stabilization
c. Increasing hypertrophy
d. Increasing load
A

Increasing load

25
Q

Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?

Select one:

a. 0 to 30 seconds
b. 31 to 60 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minutes Incorrect
d. 3 to 5 minutes

A

3 to 5 minutes

26
Q

When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as:

Select one:

a. reflections.
b. affirmations.
c. compliments.
d. judgments

A

reflections.

27
Q

How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?

A

16 to 24 ounces

28
Q
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
Select one:
a. Anterior deltoid
b. Rotator cuff Incorrect
c. Pectoralis major
d. Levator scapulae
A

Anterior deltoid

29
Q

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:

Select one:

a. six months.
b. twelve months.
c. two years.
d. four years

A

four years

30
Q

Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?

A

Transverse abdominis

31
Q

It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following?

A

Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.

32
Q

Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular

A

Functional

33
Q
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
Select one:
a. 10 seconds Incorrect
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds
A

20 seconds

34
Q

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Select one:
a. Providing the client with the right information.
b. Requiring the client to pay attention.
c. Convincing the client to do something.
d. Seeking a client’s perspective.

A

Seeking a client’s perspective

35
Q
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
Select one:
a. Attainable
b. Realistic 
c. Specific
d. Timely
A

Attainable

36
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?

Select one:

a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate

A

The correct answer is: 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate

37
Q

Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?

Select one:

a. Psoas minor
b. Rectus femoris
c. Erector Spinae
d. Transverse abdominis

A

The correct answer is: Transverse abdominis

38
Q

Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model?

Select one:

a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Preparation

A

The correct answer is: Preparation

39
Q
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach 
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
A

The correct answer is: Single-leg squat touchdown

40
Q
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular
A

The correct answer is: Functional

41
Q

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition Incorrect

A

The correct answer is: Synergistic dominance

42
Q
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg squat 
c. Single-leg dead lift
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
A

The correct answer is: Multiplanar dumbbell step-up