Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

tagumpay Sa MARCH 2024! > CLINICAL CHEMISTRY > Flashcards

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY Flashcards

1
Q

Base SI unit for the amount of a substance

A. Mole(mol)
B. Millimole
C. Equivalent weight

A

A. Mole(mol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Concentration expressed as the amount of solute per 100 parts of solution (%)

A. Percent solution
B. Molarity
C. Normality
D. Molality

A

A . Percent solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Moles of solute per kilogram of solvent (mol/kg)

A. Percent solution
B. Molarity
C. Normality
D. Molality

A

D. Molality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Moles per liter of solution (mol/L)

A. Percent solution
B. Molarity
C. Normality
D. Molality

A

B. Molarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Equivalent weight per liter of solution (Eq/L)

A. Percent solution
B. Molarity
C. Normality
D. Molality

A

C. Normality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Number of Osmoles of solute per liter of solution or per kilogram of solvent

A. SOLUTION
B. CONCENTRATION
C. OSMOLARITY OR OSMOLALITY

A

C. OSMOLARITY OR OSMOLALITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A uniform mixture of solute and solvent and is described in terms of concentration

A. SOLUTION
B. CONCENTRATION
C. OSMOLARITY OR OSMOLALITY

A

A. SOLUTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amount of solute in a given volume of solution

A. SOLUTION
B. CONCENTRATION
C. OSMOLARITY OR OSMOLALITY

A

B. CONCENTRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normal serum osmolality:

A. 270-280 mOsm/kg
B. 275-295 mOsm/kg
C. 275-290 mOsm/kg

A

B. 275-295 mOsm/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An expression of osmotic concentration; hypertonic, isotonic, hypotonic

A. Tonicity
B. Saturation
C. Colligative properties

A

A. Tonicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Routine terms in clinical laboratory that describe the extent of saturation are dilute, concentrated, saturated, and supersaturated

A. Tonicity
B. Saturation
C. Colligative properties

A

B. Saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Physical properties of solution that depend on the relative concentration of solute and solvent but not on their identities

A. Tonicity
B. Saturation
C. Colligative properties

A

C. Colligative properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PRESSURE THAT OPPOSES OSMOSIS WHEN THE SOLVENT FLOWS THROUGH A SEMIPERMEABLE MEMBRANE TO ESTABLISH EQUILIBRIUM BETWEEN COMPARTMENTS OF DIFFERING CONCENTRATION

INCREASED BY 1.7 * 10 ^ 4

A. VAPOR PRESSURE
B. FREEZING POINT
C. BOILING POINT
D. OSMOTIC PRESSURE

A

D. OSMOTIC PRESSURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PRESSURE AT WHICH LIQUID SOLVENT IS THE EQUILIBRIUM WITH WATER VAPOR

DECREASED by 0.3 mmHg or torr

A. VAPOR PRESSURE
B. FREEZING POINT
C. BOILING POINT
D. OSMOTIC PRESSURE

A

A. VAPOR PRESSURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TEMPERATURE AT WHICH THE VAPOR PRESSURE OF THE SOLID AND LIQUID PHASES OF A SUBSTANCE ARE THE SAME

DECREASED by 1.86°c

A. VAPOR PRESSURE
B. FREEZING POINT
C. BOILING POINT
D. OSMOTIC PRESSURE

A

B. FREEZING POINT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TEMPERATURE AT WHICH THE VAPOR PRESSURE OF THE SOLVENT REACHES 1 ATM

INCREASED BY 0.52°C

A. VAPOR PRESSURE
B. FREEZING POINT
C. BOILING POINT
D. OSMOTIC PRESSURE

A

C. BOILING POINT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

✓Very high purity
✓ meets specifications of American Chemical Society

A. Analytic reagent
B. Ultra pure
C. Chemically pure
D. US Pharmacopia and National Formulatory
E. Technical or commercial

A

A. Analytic reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

✓SPECTROGRADE, NANOGRADE or HPLC GRADE
✓ used for gas chromatography, HPLC, fluorometry, AAS, immunoassays, molecular diagnostics, trace metal determinations, standardization or other techniques that require pure chemical

A. Analytic reagent
B. Ultra pure
C. Chemically pure
D. US Pharmacopia and National Formulatory
E. Technical or commercial

A

B. Ultra pure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

✓ Melting Point Analysis used to ascertain the acceptable purity range
✓ NOT RECOMMENDED FOR CLINICAL LABS but may be acceptable for some lab applications when higher purity chemicals aren’t available

A. Analytic reagent
B. Ultra pure
C. Chemically pure
D. US Pharmacopia and National Formulatory
E. Technical or commercial

A

C. Chemically pure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

✓ Not injurious to health
✓ used to manufacture drugs

A. Analytic reagent
B. Ultra pure
C. Chemically pure
D. US Pharmacopia and National Formulatory
E. Technical or commercial

A

D. US Pharmacopia and National Formulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

✓FOR INDUSTRIAL USE
✓not of sufficient purity to use as analytic reagents

A. Analytic reagent
B. Ultra pure
C. Chemically pure
D. US Pharmacopia and National Formulatory
E. Technical or commercial

A

E. Technical or commercial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

✓Most commonly used glassware in the laboratory
✓High resistance to thermal shock and chemical attack. low alkali content
✓can be heated and autoclaved
strain point 515° c

A

Borosilicate glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

✓6 * stronger than borosilicate

A

Aliminosilicate glass (corex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

✓High thermal and heat shock resistance 900°c

✓ACID resistant

A

Vycor (Corning)

“ACIDVy”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

✓Used for highly alkaline solutions
✓ALKALI resistant
✓Poor heat resistance

A

Boron free or soft glass

“Alkali-Booo”🤣

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

✓Excellent optical properties
✓Used for high precision analytic work, optical reflectors, mirrors

A

High silica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

✓Used for some DISPOSABLE glassware
✓least expensive but poor resistance to high temperature

A

Flint glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

✓Used to decrease exposure to light
✓Amber/Red

A

Low actinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

✓Relatively inert chemically resistant to most acids, alkali, and salts
✓ can be autoclaved
✓USED FOR PIPETTE TIPS, TEST TUBES

A

Polypropylene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

✓used for test tubes bottles, disposable transfer pipettes, test tube racks
✓CAN’T be AUTOCLAVED

A

Polyethylene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

✓Stronger than polypropylene
✓ better temperature tolerance but chemical resistance not as good
✓USED FOR CENTRIFUGE TUBES GRADUATED CYLINDERS

A

Polycarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

✓Rigid,clear.
✓shouldn’t be autoclave
✓used for Test tubes, Graduated tubes

A

Polystyrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

✓frequently used as tubing

A

Polyvinyl chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Extremely inert

A

Teflon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Delivers the EXACT AMOUNT it holds into a container

A

To Deliver (TD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Holds the particular volume but DOES NOT DISPENSE the EXACT amount

A

To contain (TC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Meets high standards for accuracy
RECOMMEND FOR CALIBRATION

A

Class A (A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

✓ Has a continuous etched rings on top of the pipette;
✓ exact volume is obtained when the drop is blown out
✓ Viscous Fluids

A

Blowout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

✓ Absence of etched rings on top of the pipette
✓ liquid is allowed to drain by gravity
✓ touch of last drop against wall of receiving vessel
✓ NON VISCOUS FLUIDS

A

Self-draining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Graduation marks to the tip and is generally BLOW OUT

A

Serologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

✓Does not have graduation to the tip
✓ SELF DRAINING

A

Mohr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

✓ Bulb Is In The Middle
✓ designed to dispense or transfer aqueous solution and is always self draining
✓ greatest degree of accuracy and precision
✓ used when diluting standards, calibrators, or quality control material

A. VOLUMETRIC PIPET
B. OSTWALD-FOLIN
C. PASTEUR PIPET
D. AUTOMATIC MACROPIPETS OR MICROPIPETS

A

A. VOLUMETRIC PIPET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

✓Bulb is nearer the mouthpiece
✓ blowout pipets, indicated by 2 etched continuous ring at the top

A. VOLUMETRIC PIPET
B. OSTWALD-FOLIN
C. PASTEUR PIPET
D. AUTOMATIC MACROPIPETS OR MICROPIPETS

A

B. OSTWALD-FOLIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

✓no calibration marks and are used to transfer solution or biologic fluids without consideration of a specific volume
✓ NOT TO BE USED IN ANY QUANTITATIVE ANALYTIC TECHNIQUES

A. VOLUMETRIC PIPET
B. OSTWALD-FOLIN
C. PASTEUR PIPET
D. AUTOMATIC MACROPIPETS OR MICROPIPETS

A

C. PASTEUR PIPET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MOST ROUTINELY USED PIPETTE IN TODAY’S CLINICAL CHEMISTRY LABORATORY

A. VOLUMETRIC PIPET
B. OSTWALD-FOLIN
C. PASTEUR PIPET
D. AUTOMATIC MACROPIPETS OR MICROPIPETS

A

D. AUTOMATIC MACROPIPETS OR MICROPIPETS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Produces a monolayer of cells

A

Cytocentrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Force acting on sample being

A

RCF: Relative Centrifugal Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Determined by tachometer or strobe light

A

rpm/revolutions per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

✓ Tubes are in HORIZONTAL position when ROTATING and VERTICAL in REST
✓ recommended for Serum Separator Tubes

A

Horizontal head centrifuge (swinging-bucket)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

✓ Tubes are at fixed angle 25° to 45° when rotating
✓ capable of higher speeds

A

Angle-head centrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

✓High speed capable of 100,000 rpm
✓Reference method for lipoproteins

A

Ultra centrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Multiple test analyzed one after another on a given specimen

A. Sequential Analysis
B. Parallel testing
C. Batch analysis
D. Random Access

A

A. Sequential Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Able to perform individual tests or panels, and allow for STAT samples to be added to the run ahead of other specimens; any test on any sample in any sequence

A. Sequential Analysis
B. Parallel testing
C. Batch analysis
D. Random Access

A

D. Random Access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

All samples are loaded at the same time, and a single test is performed in each sample

A. Sequential Analysis
B. Parallel testing
C. Batch analysis
D. Random Access

A

C. Batch analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

More than one test is analyzed concurrently on a given specimen

A. Sequential Analysis
B. Parallel testing
C. Batch analysis
D. Random Access

A

C. Parallel testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

System wherein reagents from other manufacturers can be used

A. Open reagent system
B. Closed reagent system

A

A. Open reagent system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Only the manufacturers reagent may be used

A. Open reagent system
B. Closed reagent system

A

B. Closed reagent system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Maximum number of tests generated per hour

A. Throughput
B. Turnaround
C. Dead volume
D. Carry over
E. Reflex testing

A

A. Throughput

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Amount of time to generate one result

A. Throughput
B. Turnaround
C. Dead volume
D. Carry over
E. Reflex testing

A

B. Turnaround

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Amount of serum that cannot be aspirated

A. Throughput
B. Turnaround
C. Dead volume
D. Carry over
E. Reflex testing

A

C. Dead volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The contamination of a sample by a previous aspirated sample

A. Throughput
B. Turn around
C. Dead volume
D. Carry over
E. Reflex testing

A

D. Carry over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Use of preliminary test result to determine if additional test should be ordered or cancelled on a particular specimen; performed manually or automated

A. Throughput
B. Turnaround
C. Dead volume
D. Carry over
E. Reflex testing

A

E. Reflex testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Produces an intense, reproducible, constant beam of polychromatic light

A. Light source/Exciter lamp
B. Entrance slit
C. Monochromator
D. Exit slit

A

A. Light source/Exciter lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Fixed in position and size to minimize unwanted or stray light and prevents scattered light into the monochromator system

A. Light source/Exciter lamp
B. Entrance slit
C. Monochromator
D. Exit slit

A

B. Entrance slit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Disperses the light into isolated wavelengths

A. Light source/Exciter lamp
B. Entrance slit
C. Monochromator
D. Exit slit

A

C. Monochromator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Select the bandpass of the selected wavelength to pass through the cuvet onto the detector

A. Light source/Exciter lamp
B. Entrance slit
C. Monochromator
D. Exit slit

A

D. Exit slit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Emits radiation that changes in intensity; Widely used

A. Continuum source
B. Line source

A

A. Continuum source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Emits limited radiation and wavelength

A. Continuum source
B. Line source

A

B. Line source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Most common used in visible and near infrared regions

A. Tungsten light bulb
B. Deuterium lamp
C. Xenon discharge lamp

A

A. Tungsten light bulb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Used in UV region

A. Tungsten light bulb
B. Deuterium lamp
C. Xenon discharge lamp

A

B. Deuterium lamp

71
Q

Continuous source of radiation in both the UV and Visible region

A. Tungsten light bulb
B. Deuterium lamp
C. Xenon discharge lamp

A

C. Xenon discharge lamp

72
Q

UV and Visible regions in Spectro

A. Mercury and Sodium Vapor Lamp
B. Hallow cathode lamp

A

A. Mercury and Sodium vapor lamp

73
Q

UV and visible in AAS

A. Mercury and Sodium Vapor Lamp
B. Hallow cathode lamp

A

B. Hallow cathode lamp

74
Q

Holds the solution being examined, sample cell, analytical cell, absorption cell

A. Cuvet
B. Photodetector
C. Meter/Readout device

A

A. Cuvet

75
Q

Converts transmitted light into photoelectric energy

A. Cuvet
B. Photodetector
C. Meter/Readout device

A

B. Photodetector

76
Q

Displace output of the detection system

A. Cuvet
B. Photodetector
C. Meter/Readout device

A

C. Meter/Readout device

77
Q

% Transmittance against Concentration

A. SEMILOGARITHMIC PAPER
B. LINEAR GRAPH PAPER

A

A. SEMILOGARITHMIC PAPER

78
Q

Absorbance against Concentration

A. SEMILOGARITHMIC PAPER
B. LINEAR GRAPH PAPER

A

B. LINEAR GRAPH PAPER

79
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Calcium

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

D. BRICK-RED

80
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Magnesium

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

G. BLUE

81
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Lithium

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

A. RED

82
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Barium

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

F. GREEN

83
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Sodium

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

B. YELLOW

84
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Potassium

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

C. LILAC/VIOLET

85
Q

COLOR OF FLAME:

Copper

A. RED
B. YELLOW
C. LILAC/VIOLET
D. BRICK-RED
E. GREEN-BLUE
F. GREEN
G. BLUE

A

E. GREEN-BLUE

86
Q

Measurement of differences in voltage potential at a constant current

A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Voltammetry

A

A. Potentiometry

Note:
It uses pH, pCO2

87
Q

✓Measures amount of electricity at a fixed potential
✓uses chloride test

A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Voltammetry

A

B. Coulometry

88
Q

✓Measurement of the current flow produced by an oxidation reduction reaction
✓Used in pO2, glucose, chloride, and peroxidase determination

A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Voltammetry

A

C. Amperometry

Note:
“ApO2”

89
Q

Measures differences in current at a constant voltage

A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Voltammetry

A

D. Polarography

90
Q

The measurement of current after a potential is applied to an electrochemical cell

A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Voltammetry

A

E. Voltammetry

91
Q

For lead and iron testing

A

Anodic stripping voltammetry

92
Q

Measures the electrolyte dissolved in the fluid phase of the sample in mmol/L of plasma water

A

ISE: Ion Selective Electrode

93
Q

✓WITHOUT SAMPLE DILUTION
✓not subject to pseudohyponatremia caused by hyperlipidemic or hyperproteinemic samples

A. Direct ISE
B. Indirect ISE

A

A. Direct ISE

94
Q

WITH SAMPLE DILUTION

A. Direct ISE
B. Indirect ISE

A

B. Indirect ISE

95
Q

Process by which Lab ensures quality results by closely monitoring pre-analytical, analytical, and post analytical stages of testing

A. Quality assessment or Quality assurance
B. Pre-analytical QA
C. Analytical QA
D. Post-Analytical QA
E. Quality System

A

A. Quality assessment or Quality assurance

96
Q

Everything that precedes test performance

Ex. Test ordering, patient preparation,
patient ID, specimen collection, specimen transport, specimen processing

A. Quality assessment or Quality assurance
B. Pre-analytical QA
C. Analytical QA
D. Post-Analytical QA
E. Quality System

A

B. Pre-analytical QA

97
Q

Everything related to essay

Ex. Test analysis, QC, reagents, calibration, Preventive Maintenance

A. Quality assessment or Quality assurance
B. Pre-analytical QA
C. Analytical QA
D. Post-Analytical QA
E. Quality System

A

C. Analytical QA

98
Q

Everything that comes after test analysis

Ex. Verification of calculations and reference ranges, review of results, notification of critical values, result reporting, test interpretation by physician, follow up patient care

A. Quality assessment or Quality assurance
B. Pre-analytical QA
C. Analytical QA
D. Post-Analytical QA
E. Quality System

A

D. Post-Analytical QA

99
Q

All of the Labs policies, processes, procedures, and resources needed to achieve quality testing

A. Quality assessment or Quality assurance
B. Pre-analytical QA
C. Analytical QA
D. Post-Analytical QA
E. Quality System

A

E. Quality System

100
Q

Ultimately prevent the reporting of incorrect patient test results

A. Quality control
B. Quality improvement

A

A. Quality control

101
Q

Goes beyond monitoring detecting and preventing errors

A. Quality control
B. Quality improvement

A

B. Quality improvement

102
Q

Used to reduce error and waste within the health care system

A

LEAN SIX SIGMA

DMAIC: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control

103
Q

PROCESS OF MONITORING RESULTS FROM CONTROL SAMPLES TO VERIFY RELIABILITY OF PATIENTS RESULTS

SYSTEM OF ENSURING DAILY ACCURACY AND PRECISION

A. Quality Control (QC)/ Intralab/ Internal QC
B. Control
C. External QC/ Interlab QC

A

A. Quality Control (QC)/ Intralab/ Internal QC

104
Q

Sample that is chemically and physically similar to unknown specimen and is tested in exactly the same manner

A. Quality Control (QC)/ Intralab/ Internal QC
B. Control
C. External QC/ Interlab QC

A

B. Control

105
Q

QC THAT EXTENDS BEYOND LAB

IMPORTANT IN MAINTAINING LONG TERM ACCURACY OF THE ANALYTICAL

A. Quality Control (QC)/ Intralab/ Internal QC
B. Control
C. External QC/ Interlab QC

A

C. External QC/ Interlab QC

106
Q

Process of TESTING AND ADJUSTING ANALYZERS READOUT to establish correlation between MEASURED and ACTUAL CORRELATION

A. CALIBRATION
B. CALIBRATOR
C. CALIBRATION VERIFICATION

A

A. CALIBRATION

107
Q

REFERENCE MATERIAL with KNOWN CONCENTRATION OF ANALYTE

Formly Called STANDARD

A. CALIBRATION
B. CALIBRATOR
C. CALIBRATION VERIFICATION

A

B. CALIBRATOR

108
Q

Testing materials of known concentrations

Test 3 levels high midpoint and low

Required every 6 months, when lot # of reagents changes, following preventive maintenance or repair, and when control are out of range

A. CALIBRATION
B. CALIBRATOR
C. CALIBRATION VERIFICATION

A

C. CALIBRATION VERIFICATION

109
Q

Statistical parameters describing spread of data about mean

A. Range
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Measures of Dispersion

A

E. Measures of Dispersion

110
Q

Difference between highest and lowest values in data set

A. Range
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Measures of Dispersion

A

A. Range

111
Q

Sum of all observations divided by number of observations.
Average of all observations

A. Range
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Measures of Dispersion

A

B. Mean

112
Q

Statistical expression of dispersion of values around mean.
Requires a minimum of 20 values

A. Range
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Measures of Dispersion

A

C. Standard deviation

113
Q

Expresses standard deviation as percentage.
The higher the CV the lower the precision

A. Range
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Measures of Dispersion

A

D. Coefficient of variation

114
Q

68% OF VALUES FALL WITHIN _____

A. +/- 1SD
B. +/- 2SD
C. +/- 3SD

A

A. +/- 1SD

115
Q

95.5% OF VALUES FALL WITHIN _____

A. +/- 1SD
B. +/- 2SD
C. +/- 3SD

A

B. +/- 2SD

116
Q

99.7% OF VALUES FALL WITHIN _____

A. +/- 1SD
B. +/- 2SD
C. +/- 3SD

A

C. +/- 3SD

117
Q

A population probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean

A

Gaussian Curve (Bell-shaped curve)

118
Q

Calculate difference between QC results and the target means.

GIVES EARLIEST INDICATION OF SYSTEMATIC ERRORS (SHIFT) NOT TREND

A

CUSUM: CUMULATIVE SUM GRAPH

119
Q

Used to compare results obtain on a high and low control serum from different labs

A

Youdin or Twin Plot

120
Q

✓Most widely used
✓A graphic representation of the acceptable limits of variation in the results of an analytical method and easily identifies RANDOM AND SYSTEMATIC ERRORS

A

Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart

121
Q

✓Six consecutive control values on SAME SIDE OF MEAN.
✓Sudden or Abrupt change
✓ main cause: IMPROPER CALIBRATION

A. Shift
B. Trend

A

A. Shift

122
Q

✓ control values INCREASING or DECREASING for 6 consecutive runs
✓ Gradual loss of Reliability in the test system
✓ main cause: DETERIORATION OF REAGENTS

A. Shift
B. Trend

A

B. Trend

123
Q

✓IMPRECISION, INDETERMINATE, UNPREDICTABLE

A. Random Error
B. Systematic Error

A

A. Random Error

124
Q

✓INACCURATE, DETERMINATE, PREDICTABLE

A. Random Error
B. Systematic Error

A

B. Systematic Error

125
Q

How close measurement is to True Value

A. Accuracy
B. Precision

A

A. Accuracy

Note:
“ TAM” T-test, Accuracy, Mean

126
Q

✓Reproducibility
✓How close results are when same sample is TESTED MULTIPLE TIMES

A. Accuracy
B. Precision

A

B. Precision

Note:
“SPF” Std. Deviation, Precision, F-test

127
Q

✓ Range of values over which lab can verify accuracy of test system
✓ also known as LINEARITY

A. Reportable range
B. Reference Interval

A

A. Reportable range

128
Q

✓ formerly called NORMAL VALUE

A. Reportable range
B. Reference Interval

A

B. Reference Interval

129
Q

✓ same as Detection Limit
✓ lowest concentration of substance that can be detected by test method
✓ desirable in SCREENING TEST

A. Analytical Sensitivity
B. Analytical Specificity

A

A. Analytical Sensitivity

130
Q

✓ ability of method to measure ONLY the analyte its supposed to measure
✓ desirable in CONFIRMATORY TEST

A. Analytical Sensitivity
B. Analytical Specificity

A

B. Analytical Specificity

131
Q

Positive result in patient WHO HAS the DISEASE

A. True Positive (TP)
B. False Positive (FP)
C. True Negative (TN)
D. False Negative (FN)

A

A. True Positive (TP)

132
Q

Positive result in patient WHO DOESN’T HAVE the DISEASE

A. True Positive (TP)
B. False Positive (FP)
C. True Negative (TN)
D. False Negative (FN)

A

B. False Positive (FP)

133
Q

Negative result in patient who DOESN’T HAVE the disease

A. True Positive (TP)
B. False Positive (FP)
C. True Negative (TN)
D. False Negative (FN)

A

C. True Negative (TN)

134
Q

Negative result in patient WHO DOES HAVE the DISEASE

A. True Positive (TP)
B. False Positive (FP)
C. True Negative (TN)
D. False Negative (FN)

A

D. False Negative (FN)

135
Q

% of population WITH the disease that TEST POSITIVE

A. Diagnostic sensitivity
B. Diagnostic specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

A. Diagnostic sensitivity

136
Q

% of population WITHOUT the disease that test NEGATIVE

A. Diagnostic sensitivity
B. Diagnostic specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

B. Diagnostic specificity

137
Q

% of time that a positive result is correct

A. Diagnostic sensitivity
B. Diagnostic specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

C. Positive predictive value (PPV)

138
Q

% of time that a negative result is correct

A. Diagnostic sensitivity
B. Diagnostic specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

139
Q

A test is defined as the proportion of cases with a specific disease or condition that give a Positive Test Result

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

A. Sensitivity

140
Q

A test is defined as the proportion of cases with Absence of the specific disease or condition that gives a Negative Test Result

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

B. Specificity

141
Q

A test that indicates the number of patients with an Abnormal test result who have the disease, compared with all patients with an abnormal result

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

C. Positive predictive value (PPV)

142
Q

A test that indicates the number of patients with a normal test result who do not have the disease, compared with all patients with a normal (negative) result

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value (PPV)
D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

A

D. Negative predictive value (NPV)

143
Q

Constriction of blood vessels and reduction of plasma volume

A. From supine to sitting/standing
B. Sitting to Supine
C. Standing to Supine
D. Prolonged bed rest

A

A. From supine to sitting/standing

144
Q

Shifting of water and electrolytes into tissue causing Hemoconcentration

A. From supine to sitting/standing
B. Sitting to Supine
C. Standing to Supine
D. Prolonged bed rest

A

B. Sitting to Supine

145
Q

Transfer Extravascular water into Vascular system causing Hemodilution

A. From supine to sitting/standing
B. Sitting to Supine
C. Standing to Supine
D. Prolonged bed rest

A

C. Standing to Supine

146
Q

Decreased Plasma Albumin due to fluid retention

A. From supine to sitting/standing
B. Sitting to Supine
C. Standing to Supine
D. Prolonged bed rest

A

D. Prolonged bed rest

147
Q

Higher in PM

A. ACTH, CORTISOL, ALDOSTERONE, IRON
B. PTH, TSH, ACP, GROWTH HORMONE

A

B. PTH, ACP, TSH, GROWTH HORMONEHORMONE (“PTAG”)

148
Q

Higher in AM

A. ACTH, CORTISOL, ALDOSTERONE, IRON
B. PTH, ACP, TSH, GROWTH HORMONE

A

A. ACTH, CORTISOL, ALDOSTERONE, IRON (“ACAI”)

149
Q

Cortisol Peaks At:

A. 4-6 am (6-8am)
B. 8pm -12am (10-11pm)

A

A. 4-6 am (6-8am)

150
Q

Cortisol Lowest At:

A. 4-6 am (6-8am)
B. 8pm -12am (10-11pm)

A

B. 8pm -12am (10-11pm)

151
Q

Squeezing site of capillary puncture

A. Increased Na
B. Increased K

A

B. Increased K

152
Q

Pumping fist during venipuncture:

A

Increased K, Lactic Acid, Ca, Phosphorus,
Decreased pH

153
Q

Storage temperature:
Decreased at room temperature:

A. Glucose
B. LD4 and LD5
C. ALP

A

A. Glucose

154
Q

Storage temperature:
Decreased at 4°C:

A. Glucose
B. LD4 and LD5
C. ALP

A

B. LD4 and LD5

155
Q

Storage temperature:
Increased at 4°C

A. Glucose
B. LD4 and LD5
C. ALP

A

C. ALP

156
Q

Evacuated tubes, increase temperature causes:

A. Decrease draw volume
B. Increase draw volume

A

A. Decrease draw volume

157
Q

Evacuated tubes, Decreased temperature causes:

A. Decrease draw volume
B. Increase draw volume

A

B. Increase draw volume

158
Q

Higher altitude lower ambient pressure:

A. Lower draw volume
B. Higher draw volume

A

A. Lower draw volume

159
Q

FBS, Triglycerides, Lipid Panel, Gastrin, Insulin

A. Fasting
B. Chilling
C. Warming
D. protection from light
E. Chain of custody

A

A. Fasting

Note:
Nothing to eat or drink EXCEPT WATER for at least 8 hours

160
Q

ACTH, acetone, ammonia,gastrin, glucagon, lactic acid, pyruvate, PTH, renin

A. Fasting
B. Chilling
C. Warming
D. protection from light
E. Chain of custody

A

B. Chilling (“3A, 2G, 2P,L, R)

Note:
Place in SLURRY OF CRUSHED ICE AND WATER;
DO NOT USE ice cubes alone because RBCs may lyse

161
Q

Cold agglutinines, cryoglobulins

A. Fasting
B. Chilling
C. Warming
D. protection from light
E. Chain of custody

A

C. Warming

Note:
Use 37° c heat block, heel warmer, or hold in hand

162
Q

Bilirubin, carotene, erythrocyte protoporphyrin, vitamin A, vitamin B12

A. Fasting
B. Chilling
C. Warming
D. protection from light
E. Chain of custody

A

D. Protection from light

Note:
Wrap in aluminum foil or amber bottle

163
Q

Any test used as evidence in legal proceedings example: Blood Alcohol, Drug Screens, DNA analysis

A. Fasting
B. Chilling
C. Warming
D. protection from light
E. Chain of custody

A

E. Chain of custody

Note:
Documentation of every step from Patient Identification, Handling, Processing, Testing, and Reporting Results

164
Q

Ideally all measurements should be performed within:

A. 30 mins to 1 hour after collection
B. 45 mins to 1 hour after collection
C. 30 mins to 2 hour after collection
D. 45 mins to 2 hour after collection

A

B. 45 mins to 1 hour after collection

165
Q

Least stable in serum not separated from cloth within 30 minutes:

A

K, P, and Glucose

166
Q

Unstable after 6 hours of not separating serum:

A

Albumin, bicarbonate, Cl, C-peptide, HDL-c, LDL-c, Iron, and Total Protein

167
Q

Centrifuge requirement:

A. 900-1500g RCF for 10 mins.
B. 1000-1500g RCF for 10 mins.
C. 900-2000g RCF for 10 mins.
D. 1000-2000g RCF for 10 mins.

A

D. 1000-2000g RCF for 10 mins.

Note:
Insufficient centri may cause incomplete barrier formation of cell contamination of the specimen

168
Q

Serum or plasma must be stored at:
If analysis is to be delayed for longer than 4 hours

A. 4°C to 5°C
B. 4°C to 6°C
C. 3°C to 5°C
D. 3°C to 6°C

A

B. 4°C to 6°C

169
Q

Analytes affected with hemolysis:

A

“PM5LICCK”
Phosphorus
Magnesium
ACP
ALP
AST
ALT
Ammonia
LD2
IRON
CATECHOLAMINES
CK
K (POTASSIUM)

170
Q

Lipemia, turbidity when serum triglyceride exceeds

A. 4.5 mmol/L
B. 4.6 mmol/L
C. 4.7 mmol/L

A

B. 4.6 mmol/L

171
Q

> 400 mg/dl TG

A. Clear
B. Lactascent
C. Turbid / hazy
D. Milky or opaque

A

B. Lactascent

172
Q

> 300 mg/dlTG

A. Clear
B. Lactascent
C. Turbid / hazy
D. Milky or opaque

A

C. Turbid / hazy

173
Q

600 mg/dl TG

A. Clear
B. Lactascent
C. Turbid / hazy
D. Milky or opaque

A

D. Milky or opaque

174
Q

200 mg/dl TG

A. Clear
B. Lactascent
C. Turbid / hazy
D. Milky or opaque

A

A. Clear

tagumpay Sa MARCH 2024! (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions