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Pumping and Aerial > chapter 3 - Apparatus Safety and Operating Emergency Vehicles > Flashcards

chapter 3 - Apparatus Safety and Operating Emergency Vehicles Flashcards

1
Q

What can overthrottling result in?

A

an excessive amount of carbon particles in the exhaust, oil dilution and additional fuel consumption.

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2
Q

When does engine lugging occur?

Example?

A

When the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is in too high a gear for the demand on the engine.
example: trying to accelerate while a vehicle is moving up a steep grade

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3
Q

Who might recommend using the transmission to slow vehicles and maintain safe speeds on decent?
Who specifies this as a measure to extend the life of service brakes?

A
  • jurisdictions

- local policy

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4
Q

Should you coast out of gear or “freewheel” while driving downhill?
Why or why not?

A
  • it is unsafe and may be illegal

- failure to use the alternate methods to slow vehicle may cause brake failure = vehicle runaway

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5
Q

Why should you limit downhill speed to lower than maximum RPM?

A

to prevent engine damage
-The engine governor cannot control engine speed downhill. The wheels turn the engine and driveshaft as gravity pulls the vehicle downhill.

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6
Q

When should you use the service brake, auxiliary brake as well as manual shifting?

A

driving downhills to lower gears to limit speed

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7
Q

Bad weather = Rig might not keep going
Weigh rig after loaded with equipment and personnel…what is the
1. Side to side axle load balance %?
2. Front to back?

A
  1. 7%

2. within the axle ratings

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8
Q

Keep rig properly loaded! Poor weight distribution can make handling unsafe! Give 4 examples.

A
  1. too much weight on steering axle = hard steering = damage to axles and tires
  2. under loading front axles (weight shifting too far to rear) can make steering axle too light to steer safely
  3. too little weight on driving axles = poor traction
  4. the drive wheels may spin easily
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9
Q

Keep weight transfer to a minimum by steering __________ and __________ and maintain a speed that is slow enough.

A
  • only as much as needed

- in a smooth and fluid motion rather then a series of multiple turns

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10
Q

Hazardous conditions like skidding and possible roll over can be caused by these?

A
  • too much speed in turns
  • harsh or abrupt steering actions
  • driving on slopes too steep for a particular rig
  • of PARTICULAR concern = water tanks that are improperly baffles/partially filled with liquids (water/foam concentrate)
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11
Q

Lateral weight transfer can cause or contribute to?

A

skidding or possible roll overs

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12
Q

Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, weight transfer takes place relative to ______ and ______.

A
  • rate

- degree of change

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13
Q

Weight transfer follows the law of….

A

inertia…“objects in motion tend to remain in motion; objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force”

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14
Q

Failure to realize the 3 angles and what can be safely traversed can result in what?

A

damage to apparatus and property of others if it “bottoms out” while crossing an obstacle

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15
Q

What is the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheel base midpoint?

A

breakover angle

  • HAVE A KEEN AWARENESS
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16
Q

What is the angle of departure?

A

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus

-HAVE A KEEN AWARENESS OF

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17
Q

What is the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus?

A

angle of approach

-HAVE A KEEN AWARENESS OF

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18
Q

What should an aerial keep in mind when traversing steep ramps, curbs, speed bumps and similar obstacles?

A
  • front (angle of approach)
  • middle (breakover angle)
  • rear (angle of departure)
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19
Q

The bumper on the cab and the rear of the vehicle are projections. What else should you be aware of?

A

aerial device hanging several feet off the front or back

front/middle/rear of aerial truck

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20
Q

What kind of transmission should consult the operator’s manual? (2)

A
  1. 2 speed rear axles

2. transmission with more than 5 speeds

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21
Q

Who might still have manual transmissions?

A
  • mobile water supplies

- older model apparatus

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22
Q

Some jurisdictions may recommend manually shifting on an automatic rig. Why?

A

In preparation for a stop. Local policy may specify this practice to extend the life of service brakes.

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23
Q

Eliminating what will produce the likelyhood of the engine sustaining damage from lugging?

A

decision making regarding when to shift gears (automatic transmissions)

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24
Q

Side/rear view mirrors and cameras should always be….

A

clean

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25
Q

After you identify blind spots, how should you compensate for the lack of vision?

A

slowing down before making turns or lane changes into areas where other vehicles or pedestrians may be hidden.

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26
Q

Who should walk around the vehicle to identify blind spots?

Then adjust each mirror to minimize what?

A
  • a partner

- # and extent of blind spots

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27
Q

When should you adjust mirrors?

A
  • start of each shift

- anytime driver responsibility changes

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28
Q

Which mirror adjustments are critical to the safe operation of any vehicle?

A

careful side view and rear view mirror adjustments

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29
Q

What do adjusting mirrors minimize before placing the rig in motion?

A

blind spots…number and extent

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30
Q

Why must you have well adjusted mirrors?

A

The large size of most apparatus makes this imperative

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31
Q

Be familiar with 7 things for non-emergency situations when driving

A
  1. adjusting mirrors
  2. potential points of contact
  3. driving downhill
  4. driving off road
  5. visual lead time
  6. bridges and railroad crossings
  7. adverse weather
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32
Q

What must a driver/operator be familiar with?

A

how to safely drive and operate the vehicle they are assigned

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33
Q

What type of transmission, in most cases, will your apparatus have?

A

automatic

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34
Q

What happens if you shut down the engine while in motion?

A

It will cut off the fuel flow from the injectors (fuel flow through injectors is requires for lubrication anytime the injector plunger is moving.) Fuel pressure can build up behind the shutoff valve and prevent the valve from opening.

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35
Q

Should you rev an engine immediately before shutting it down? Why?

A

Damage to internal componants may occur

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36
Q

What 4 things may result from shutting down an engine without sufficient cool down?

A
  1. immediate increase of engine temp from lack of coolant circulation
  2. oil film “burning” on hot surfaces
  3. damage to heads and exhaust manifolds
  4. damage to turbocharger which could result in seizure
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37
Q

A hot engine should cool to the normal operating temperature. How long should you idle to achieve this?

A

usually 3-5 minutes

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38
Q

When should you NEVER shut down an engine immediately?

A

-after a full load operation
or
-when the temperature gauge indicates that the engine is overheated

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39
Q

When should you top off the DEF (diesel exhaust fluid?)

Should you carry an extra jug on the rig?

A
  • every time you add fuel

- YES

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40
Q

What happens if a driver/operator ingnors and empty DEF (diesel exhaust fluid) tank?

A

The rig may be limited to 5 MPH (10 km/h) AND will need service from the dealer

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41
Q

What can derate (reduce the TORQUE output) the engine or limit the vehicles speed?

A

failing to keep the DEF (diesel exhaust fluid) full

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42
Q

Who should keep the diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) filled at all times?

A

driver/operator

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43
Q

What additional tank besides a fuel tank will a rig equipped with a selective catalyst reductant have?
Filled with?

A
  • Diesel exhaust fluid tank

- DEF (Diesel exhaust fluid)

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44
Q

What should the driver do if lugging occurs?

A

They should not allow the engine rpm to drop below peak torque speed

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45
Q

How can a driver be actively familiar with bridges and railroad crossings in their area?

A

always carry detailed maps of your response area and plan routs from the fire station to each potential emergency

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46
Q

When determining a route to take, plot routes that avoid…..(2)

A
  • low overpasses

- incompatible bridges

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47
Q

Which NFPA standard requires placards in every apparatus that lists the vehicle height and weight in feet and tons to emphasize the importance of watching for bridge and overpass limits?

A

NFPA 1901, standard for automotive fire apparatus

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48
Q

Drivers of aerial must ensure what at railroad that are located just before a controlled intersection?

A

that there will be room between the tracks and the stop light to fit the apparatus while the light is still red

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49
Q

How many US locations are there where there is less than 100 ft following the railroad track?
How many accident here annually?

A
  • 19,824

- 122

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50
Q

After surveying local roads and identifying problem areas around railroad tracks, what should you be prepared to do?

A

wait on the near side of the tracks until traffic has made sufficient room to proceed completely across before stopping

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51
Q

What is a major factor to consider while driving?

What make roads slippery?

A

weather

rain, snow, ice and mud

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52
Q

What should you do if you recognize the dangers of rain, snow, ice and mud that makes roads slippery?

A

adjust speed, factoring sharpness of curves, the crown of the road, road surface conditions and other traffic

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53
Q

What might you need to recognize that might be more slippery?

A

bridges, northern slopes of hills, areas prone to blowing and drifting snow

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54
Q

How many time greater might it take an apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice vs dry pavement?

A

3 to 15 times

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55
Q

Where might it be prudent for you to apply the brakes to test them on ice and snow for slickness?

A

area fee of traffic

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56
Q

In many jurisdictions, what must a civilian driver do when they encounter emergency vehicles with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding?

A

pull to the right, stop, clear intersections and remain motionless until it has passed

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57
Q

What must a driver anticipate of civilian drivers?

A

that they may not see, hear or respond appropriately to approaching apparatus

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58
Q

In regards to civilian drivers, what 6 guidelines can a driver use to help avoid potential collisions?

be familiar with warning/traffic control devices as well as specific considerations involved with intersections and passing other vehicles

A
  1. aim high in steering (find a safe path well ahead)
  2. get the big picture (stay back and see the reaction of other motorists)
  3. keep your eyes moving (scan the area - do not stare at 1 view)
  4. leave yourself an “out” (visualize an escape route to avoid a collision, prepare for the unexpected)
  5. maintain enough distance from the vehicle ahead to pull out of traffic if needed
  6. make sure that others can see and hear you (use combo of warning devices)
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59
Q

When making the public aware of approaching emergency vehicle, only use warning devices when?

A

to true emergencies

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60
Q

Who should have policies governing what type of incidents constitute actual emergencies and when to use warning devices?
What can happen if you use them indiscriminately?

A
  • local jurisdiction

- may promote a negative image of the fire service

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61
Q

Who must a driver have regard for while driving?

A

General motoring public

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62
Q

Some fire departments require apparatus warning devices to be turned off/proceed with normal traffic…where?

A

limited access highways

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63
Q

In most cases, can fire apparatus’ keep up with highway traffic?

A

NO

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64
Q

In slow moving traffic, warning devices can be used to do what?

A

negotiate passage

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65
Q

What practice used in some fire departments may be hazardous if an apparatus is delayed or detoured for some reason?

A

designated response routes

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66
Q

Particularly when another apparatus may be nearby, what might policies require?

A

use of radio reports to update location and status

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67
Q

At a stop sign on an emergency run, the driver must do what?

A
  • come to a complete stop

- approach with extreme caution

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68
Q

What may be included in audible warning devices?

A

electronic or mechanical sirens as well as air horns

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69
Q

Studies have shown that drivers respond to sounds better that do what?

A

change pitch

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70
Q

What might be the best way to get the attention of motorists when it comes to audible devices?

A

short air horn bursts

constant up and down oscillation of an electronic or mechanical siren

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71
Q

What might cause motorists to startle or panic causing them to swerve or lose control of their vehicle?

A

sudden sounding of audible warning device

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72
Q

What speed might a rig outrun the effective range of its audible warning device?

A 
50 MPH (80 km/h)
(slower speeds project much farther)
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73
Q

In some instances, increasing your speed by 20 mph (30km/h) can decrease the audible distance by ______ or more.

A

250 feet (75m)

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74
Q

How far should 2 apparatus travel apart when traveling along the same route?

A

300 to 500 ft (90 to 150m)

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75
Q

Some fire departments might require 2 rigs traveling on the same route to do this?

A

Use different siren settings

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76
Q

What might in cab headsets make it difficult to do?

A

hear ambient noise or sirens of other emergency vehicles

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77
Q

Why should you turn on your headlights, even in the day?

A

because white lights are readily visible during the daylight hours

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78
Q

What should you do to avoid blinding oncoming drivers?

A

dim headlights and turn off spotlights

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79
Q

Why should you NOT drive with high beam headlights on constantly?

A

they may obscure other warning lights

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80
Q

Colored lights might be combined with white lights in some fire departments. Consult __________and ______ when designing the warning light array for a piece of apparatus.

A

Local laws and ordinances

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81
Q

What might reduce the effectiveness of reflective trim on FF PPE? so…what should you do?

A

warning lights and scene flood lights

in certain situations, it may be appropriate to turn off warning lights once apparatus is in position

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82
Q

What may some jurisdictions do to effectively illuminate the reflective trim worn by FF? (on scene)

A

equipped apparatus with several yellow warning lights that are turned on at the scene that allow approaching vehicles’ headlights to illuminate them

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83
Q

Some studies show this about keeping low beam headlights on during daylight hours?
Where is this practiced?

A

they have fewer accidents

in some jurisdictions

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84
Q

What does NOT relieve the driver from the responsibility of using defensive driving techniques?

A

the presence of traffic control devices

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85
Q

What should you do at a green light on an emergency run?

A

maintain a speed that will allow for a quick stop or safe evasive maneuver in case another vehicle should enter the intersection.

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86
Q

What might cause a confusion of the signal preemption?

A

other responding apparatuses from different directions

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87
Q

Who might use various traffic control devices to assist emergency vehicle responses?

A

local jurisdictions

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88
Q

Who must understand the operation of the various traffic control devices in their responding area?

A

driver/operator

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89
Q

What do traffic signals in front of fire stations allow?

A

apparatus to more safely enter the roadway

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90
Q

How may a traffic signal in front of a fire station be controlled? (3)

A

by a button in the station or
a dispatcher or
station alerting system

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91
Q

Traffic lights along heavily used routes may be controlled by _______, _________ or _______.

A

dispatcher
from the fire station
remote control in the apparatus

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92
Q

What might activate sensors in traffic lights?

A

strobe lights (emitters) mounted on rig

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93
Q

How does a strobe light (emitter) work?

A

it generates an optical signal that is received by the traffic light as the rig approaches and turns their light green while turning all others red. It may also turn pedestrian crosswalks off.

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94
Q

What colors on a traffic light pole indicate that the signal from an emitter is received and a green light is coming?

A

white

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95
Q

What makes the emitter turn off on a rig while it is on scene so it will not disturb nearby traffic? Is it on all rigs and if not, what should a driver do?

A
  • the setting of the parking brake

- the driver should manually turn off the emitter

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96
Q

What can the siren do to traffic control systems in some apparatuses?

A

activate some traffic control systems

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97
Q

How does a traffic control system active with a siren?

A

a microphone on the traffic control system receives the sound of the oncoming siren and orders the appropriate signal preemption

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98
Q

How far can a siren controlled traffic control system be heard?

A

several hundred feet to about a half mile

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99
Q

What does a siren controlled traffic control system look like?

A

intersection will have device with 3 inch white and blue lights, mounted near the regular traffic light, facing each direction of travel

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100
Q

What color light will and oncoming rig see when approaching a siren controlled traffic control system and what color will the forthcoming light be?
all other directions of travel?

A

white light and green light will be forthcoming

blue light

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101
Q

If you approach a siren controlled traffic control system and it is blue, what does this mean?

A

another apparatus from a different direction has control of the system and they will have a green light and you will have a red

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102
Q

What is needed for a GPS based traffic signal? (3)

A
  • GPS device and radio transmitter, turned on in the apparatus
  • radio receiver on traffic light
  • you must be within range
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103
Q

Is there a manual disable mode on a GPS based traffic system on your rig for turning off after you arrive on scene?

A

YES

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104
Q

A GPS based traffic signal is capable of determining _______, _________, ________, ________ as well as there might be __________.

A

location, speed, status of the apparatus turning signal, a maintained record database of units identification information for historical record of signal use, a priority mode allowing higher control level than other municipal vehicles (buses, snow plows)

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105
Q

Where is the most likely place for a collision to occur?

A

intersections

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106
Q

Who requires drivers to come to a full stop and account for all vehicles in all lanes of traffic at a red light? (2)

A

Many jurisdictions and

NFPA 1500

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107
Q

What should you do with other drivers at a red light?

A

make every attempt at eye contact with them to ensure that they have seen you before proceeding

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108
Q

Where might drivers stop in unconventional locations to allow emergency vehicle to pass?

A

driving cautiously on multi lane roads and at multi lane intersections

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109
Q

Local policy may allow you to drive into apposing lanes if all lanes are blocked. How must you proceed? (2)

A
  • at a greatly reduced speed

- only if oncoming traffic cannot see the rig

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110
Q

Who should you be alert for if you drive into on coming traffic?

A

vehicles entering from side roads or driveways or other emergency vehicles

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111
Q

How should you drive when going into oncoming traffic?

A

you should avoid making sharp turns/quick motions and use broader movements to lessen weight transfer and make intended path more obvious to drivers

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112
Q

Generally, it is best to avoid passing vehicles that do not pull over to yield to the apparatus? true or false?

A

TRUE

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113
Q

What 4 guidelines should you use when passing a vehicle that does not pull over?

A
  1. always travel on innermost lane (fast lane) on multi lane roads. wait for vehicle to move to the right before passing
  2. avoid passing on right cause that is where most vehicles go
  3. before crossing center line make sure opposing lanes are clear
  4. avoid passing other emergency vehicles if possible. (sometimes smaller faster vehicles might need to pass) If so, coordinate these maneuvers by radio, with slower of 2 pulling to the right
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114
Q

Before braking, what must the driver consider? (3)

A
  • weight of the apparatus
  • condition of the brakes and tires
  • road surfaces
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115
Q

What can result in a skid and cause injury to fire fighters and lead to mechanical failure?

A

excessive or abrupt braking action

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116
Q

What are some apparatus equipped with to assist the stopping of the apparatus?

A

engine brakes or other types of retarders

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117
Q

When is the engine brake or retarder activated?

Why does this help in extending the life of the brake components and make it easier to manage the apparatus?

A
  • when the driver releases pressure from the accelerator

- because they provide a significant slowing action

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118
Q

With what should a driver of a apparatus with an engine brake, retarder or auxiliary braking system become familiar? (2)

A
  1. local traffic laws

2. manufacturers’ recommendations for use during inclement weather or other road conditions

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119
Q

What is visual lead time?

A

time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed

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120
Q

What does your visual lead time determine?

What must you match?

A
  • whether or not reaction time and stopping distances will be sufficient in an emergency
  • distance surveyed ahead of the vehicle with the speed of travel
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121
Q

How will you be aware of conditions that require actions?

A

by aiming high in steering and getting the big picture (visual lead time)

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122
Q

Driver should know the braking _______ of the vehicle they are operating.

A

characteristics

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123
Q

Who provides the info regarding stopping distances for specific apparatus?
They vary greatly so who should conduct braking distance testing?

A
  • manufactures

- local jurisdiction

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124
Q

What 4 other factors may affect the drivers ability to stop the apparatus?

A
  1. road conditions (wet, dry, snow, ice) and slope of driving surfaces
  2. speed of rig
  3. weight of vehicle
  4. type/condition of rigs tires/braking system
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125
Q

What surface provides for optimal stopping?

A

flat and dry paved surfaces

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126
Q

What requires removing all of a vehicle’s forward momentum?

A

a full and complete stop

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127
Q

As the mass or velocity of an object increases, it gains ____________. As a result, it takes longer or shorter to slow down or stop?

A
  • momentum

- longer

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128
Q

An important skill for the driver is recognizing and avoiding conditions that may lead to __________.

A

skidding

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129
Q

How would one become proficient at skid control?

A

practicing at a specialized facility with skid pads under supervision of a qualified instructor using approved apparatus

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130
Q

Where should you not practice skid control and why?

A

ordinary parking lots because it may result in roll over

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131
Q

Using tractor-drawn apparatus, you should use extreme caution and minimal speeds for what type of training?

A

skid training

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132
Q

What are 2 types of skidding?

A

acceleration and locked wheel skids

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133
Q

How should you maintain control in an acceleration skid?

A
  • not apply the brakes
  • ease off the accelerator
  • straighten out the wheels as the rig responds
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134
Q

How can you regain proper control of a locked wheel skid?

A
  • ease off the brake to unlock the drive wheels
  • straighten the front wheels as the apparatus begins to respond to control
  • slow gradually until at safe speed to continue driving
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135
Q

In a standard transmission, when should the clutch be engaged?

A

when the vehicle is under control and just before stopping the apparatus

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136
Q

Once a driver has a skid under control, what should they do?

A

create traction by gradually applying power to the wheels to further control the vehicle or
apply brakes as needed

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137
Q

When descending grades during icy conditions, a driver must balance which 3 things to maintain control?

A

service brake
transmission gear selection
retarding device

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138
Q

4 of the most common causes involving driver error include……

A
  1. driving too fast for road conditions
  2. failing to anticipate obstacles (vehicles, debris or pedestrians)
  3. improper use of auxiliary braking devices
  4. improper maintenance of vehicle air tire pressure or adequate tread depth
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139
Q

Most new fire apparatus are equipped with an all-wheel, ______ ______ _______.

A

antilock braking system (ABS)

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140
Q

How does an antilock braking system (ABS) minimize the chance of skidding when the brakes are applied forcefully? (4)

A
  1. onboard computer system that monitors each wheel and controls pressures to the brakes, maintaining optimal braking ability
  2. using a sensing device to monitor the speed of each wheel, sending signals to the onboard computer
  3. when wheel locks up, signal is sent to computer. computer compares this info with other wheels to determine if this particular wheel should be still turning. steering is maintained as long as the wheels do not lock up.
  4. reducing the brake pressure and allowing the wheel to continue to turn. once it turns, it is braked again
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141
Q

How often does the ABS computer make decisions while minimizing skidding until vehicle is brought to a stop?

A

many times per second

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142
Q

Should you pump the brakes or maintain a steady brake pressure when skidding in an apparatus that has ABS until vehicle comes to a complete stop?

A

maintain a steady brake pressure

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143
Q

Some apparatus will automatically shut ff the auxiliary brake in the case of ABS activation. This does not help prevent skids or loss of traction unless the operator is applying the brakes. Yes or No

A

YES

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144
Q

If an apparatus does NOT have ABS, will the auxiliary brake automatically be deactivated (inclement weather situations)?

A

No, it must be manually deactivated

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145
Q

What should you do in a skid driving a apparatus WITHOUT ABS? (2)

What happens if you oversteer?

A
  • release brakes and allow the wheels to rotate freely.
  • turn the steering wheel the direction you should be traveling

-you will lose control of the vehicle

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146
Q

NFPA 1901 requires all vehicles over this GVWR to be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.

A

36,000 pounds

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147
Q

Using and auxiliary braking system does these 2 things.

A
  1. helps reduce brake fade on long, steep grades

2. significantly reduces service brake system maintenance costs.

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148
Q

What are the 4 types of auxiliary brakes that aid the foundation brakes?

A
  1. exhaust brake
  2. engine compression brake
  3. transmission output retarder
  4. electromagnetic retarder
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149
Q

Vehicle speed, engine speed, temperature and control strategy are complex functions that make up the available amount of WHAT in any auxiliary braking system?

A

retardation force

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150
Q

Which 2 auxiliary braking systems provide the highest level of braking torque and are unaffected by transmission gear shift changes?

A

transmission output retarders
and
electromagnetic retarders

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151
Q

Engine brakes multiply their effectiveness through the ___________ gearing, and the brake torque will ________ as the transmission downshifts.

A
  • transmission

- increase

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152
Q

What should you do to the auxiliary brake system in inclement weather?

A

turn it off, reduce speeds

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153
Q

The sudden ______ placed on the vehicle by the operation of the auxiliary brake system on slippery roads may create a situation where the tires can no longer provide enough friction on the road surface to prevent the apparatus form entering a significant skid.

A

torque

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154
Q

Who should you refer to for more info on inclement weather and auxiliary brakes?

A

auxiliary brake manufactures’ recommendations

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155
Q

Which of the 4 auxiliary brake systems is the least capable?

A

exhaust brakes

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156
Q

Which brake system uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine’s inherent braking ability?

A

exhaust brakes

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157
Q

What brake system is electronically-actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train?

A

engine compression brake

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158
Q

Does a engine compression brake have an impact on engine temperature?

A

NO

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159
Q

The engine compression brake converts the mechanical energy of the vehicle into heat by….

A

compressing the engine intake air and then discharging the pressure to the atmosphere through the exhaust.

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160
Q

In an engine compression brake system, the heat energy introduced into the engine cooling system is maximized or minimal?

A

minimal

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161
Q

This retarder is either mounted in the driveline, or supplied as an integral part of the rear axle.

A

Electromagnetic

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162
Q

Electromagnetic retarders will experience some loss of effectiveness at high temperatures. TRUE or FALSE
Why or why not?

A

TRUE
They dissipate heat through cooling vanes into the surrounding air. Heat transfer becomes less efficient as the ambient temp rises.

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163
Q

When activated, an electromagnetic field is created by supplying electrical power to ta series of coils in the retarder. This field inhibits the rotation of the rotor and creates a braking torque at the rear wheels. IS this a transmission retarder or a electromagnetic retarder?

A

electromagnetic

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164
Q

Do various options allow the electromagnetic retarder to be applied in stages either manually or by combinations of brake and accelerator pedal settings?
YES or NO

A

YES

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165
Q

What retarder uses the viscous property of the automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline?

A

Transmission retarder

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166
Q

When activated, ________ _______ is introduced into the retarder housing and ________ is absorbed into the fluid through the opposing action of spinning vanes. This retards the vehicle through the _______ wheels and adds heat to the transmission fluid. This heat is dissipated through the transmission ________ and _________. (transmission retarder)

A
  • transmission fluid
  • energy
  • rear
  • cooler
  • radiator
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167
Q

What limits transmission retarders in high ambient environments?

A

the capacity of the vehicles cooling system

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168
Q

Do transmission retarders provide high braking capacities?

A

YES

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169
Q

What might cause the engine to disengage in a transmission retarder system?

A

high transmission fluid temperatures caused by heavy retarder use that increased the load on the engine cooling system

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170
Q

What can be improved with the use of more aggressive tire treads, tires chains, mechanical features in the driveline or ABS-based automatic traction control?
Should the driver be trained and aware of these features?

A

Traction

YES

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171
Q

Manually operated chains and automatic chains may be ineffective in snow deeper than…
and depending on……

A

3 to 6 inches, depending on the consistency of the snow, or when the vehicle is moving at very slow speeds or in reverse

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172
Q

What do automatic chains or manually applied tire chains look like?

A

short lengths of chain on a rotating hub in front of each drive wheel. the hubs swing down into place when activated from the cab. the hub with chains is driven by the drive wheels and the lengths of chain are spun under the tire by centrifugal force.

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173
Q

What spins the hub of chains?

A

centrifugal force

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174
Q

What are many vehicles that are equipped with ABS also equipped with?

A

automatic traction control (ATC)

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175
Q

What feature automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction begin to spin? It also transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction, which helps improve overall traction on slippery roads

A

Automatic Traction Control (ATC)

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176
Q

What does the mud and snow switch on a vehicle with automatic traction control do?

A

increases available traction on extra soft surfaces.

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177
Q

How long should you activate the snow and mud switch on an ATC equipped vehicle?

A

until normal traction is regained

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178
Q

When the driver needs to rock the apparatus out of a particular spot, and the ATC has deactivated the throttle, the mud and snow switch should be activated. Why must the driver use caution when activating the switch?

A

if the apparatus regains traction suddenly, axle damage may occur

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179
Q

Who should you consult for operation of particular auxiliary braking systems?

A

manufacturer’s operations manual

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180
Q

What type of rig may be equipped with Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)?

A

some aerial apparatus

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181
Q

What is the purpose of the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)?

A

improve traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions such as snow and ice

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182
Q

Can the Driver Controlled differential Lock be shifted while in motion?
When stationary?

A

YES and YES

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183
Q

What does locking the Driver Controlled Differential Lock do to the wheels?

A

both wheels are forced to turn at the same speed resulting in the differential being locked to maximize traction

184
Q

Is it normal for a driver to feel a tendency for the vehicle to move straight ahead when turning and to hear tires “scrubbing” when the Driver Controlled Differential Lock is locked?

A

YES

185
Q

Why should you disengage the DCDL Driver Controlled Differential Lock when road conditions improve?

A

to prevent line damage, tire wear and maximize control

186
Q

When do manufacturers recommend that the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL) be disengaged and why?

A
  • traveling and turning downhill
  • a dangerous condition can occur whereby the driver can lose positive steering control due to the differential lock not allowing differential rear wheel rotation
187
Q

What does the interaxle differential lock allow for?

A

speed differences between the rear driving axles

188
Q

What does the interaxle differential lock allow the operator to lock out>

A

the interaxle differential lock action between the rear tandem driving axles, creating one solid drive line between the rear axles

189
Q

When the interaxle differential action between the rear tandem driving axles, creates one solid drive line between the rear axles, each axle receives what?

A

full torque from the engine

190
Q

Leave the interaxle differential lock locked in favorable conditions.
Put the interaxle differential lock unlocked when anticipating poor tractive conditions.
true or false?

A

False
and
False

191
Q

To reduce load on the drive train and avoid equipment damage while using interaxle differential lock do these 3 things…..

A
  1. ease up on the throttle pedal when shifting into or out of the locked condition
  2. do not activate the switch while one or more of the wheels are actually slipping or spinning
  3. do not spin the wheels with the inter-axle differential locked
192
Q

What system is designed to help prevent roll-overs and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction?

A

stability control system

193
Q

Which stability system is integrated in the ABS system?

A

Roll stability control (RSC)

194
Q

Which roll stability system has usual ABS sensors along with lateral accelerometer that senses when the side force caused by cornering approaches the roll-over threshold

A

Roll stability control (RSC)

195
Q

Even if the driver does not sense an imminent roll over condition, this system becomes active?

A

ABS computer

196
Q

If you feel a difference in the vehicle stability when the Roll stability control (RSC) is activated, should you try drive differently than normal?

A

No-you should continue to drive and correct as normal

197
Q

How will the Roll stability control (RSC) FIRST try and slow the vehicle?

A

by reducing the torque from the engine

198
Q

After the Roll stability control (RSC) trys and slow the vehicle, if the rig has and engine compression brake it will……

A

cause the driver to feel the additional deceleration as the retarder is applied
SECOND

199
Q

What will the computer do in the FINAL step in the Roll stability control (RSC)?
What will the driver feel?

A
  • the computer MAY apply the service brake as well

- even more deceleration

200
Q

What is another name for the Electronic Stability Control (ESC)?

A

Electronic Stability Program (ESP)

201
Q

Is the Electronic Stability Control (ESC) a more capable program than the Roll Stability Control (RCS)?

A

YES

202
Q

What is the difference between the Roll Stability Control (RCS) and the Electronic Stability Control (ESC)?

A

RSC merely slows the vehicle down, the ESC applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel.

203
Q

How does the Electronic Stability Control (ESC) applie the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel?

A

It includes a steering wheel sensor in addition to the lateral accelerometer

204
Q

Do most Electronic Stability Control (ESC) systems reduce engine power until control is gained?

A

YES

205
Q

Do Electronic Stability Control (ESC) or Roll Stability Control (RCS) improve cornering performance?
Can they prevent all instabilities from occuring?

A

NO

NO

206
Q

What does stability control help in general?

A

reduce vehicle instabilities when cornering or sudden changes in direction occur

207
Q

Why can backing be hazardous?

A

vehicle size/mirrors do not provide full view around rig

208
Q

Who should develop a policy for the backing of fire apparatus?

A

All jurisdictions

209
Q

Should you follow all SOPs and local ordinances for backing procedures?

A

YES

210
Q

IFSTA recommends that drivers use the following 11 rules for backing….

A
  1. if possible, position so backing is not necessary
  2. walk all the way around rig to clear obstructions
  3. ensure all equipment is secure and compartments are closed
  4. require 1 or more backers
  5. preposition the lights to light the area where the spotters will stand (8-10 ft behind)
  6. back very slowly and use caution to not outpace the spotters
  7. use agreed upon hand signals
  8. use radios if feasible
  9. use back up cameras with mirrors
  10. sound 2 short honks of the horn before you start to back
  11. avoid mounting equipment that may interfere with the driver’s rear visablility
211
Q

How far back should a backer stand behind the apparatus?

A

8-10 feet and slightly left if in driver’s mirror

212
Q

True or False

All apparatus should have a backup warning alarm?

A

TRUE

213
Q

Why should you use caution, even when using the back up warning alarm?

A

the alarm may not be easily heard at a scene of an emergency

214
Q

To safely back up, the driver should use all means at their disposal including these 3 things.

A
  1. scanning between their direct field of vision
  2. video screens
  3. spotters
215
Q

Can back up cameras act as recorders as well?

A

YES

216
Q

Why do back up cameras provide a limited view of the area behind the apparatus?

A

they are somewhat limited by screen size as well as environmental factors

217
Q

What 2 ways should you communicate with your backers?

A

radio or hand signals

218
Q

Why is voice contact when backing (other than on the radio) unreliable? (3)

A

engine noise, distance and local ambient noise

219
Q

What should fire fighters be wearing when backing?

A

safety vest

220
Q

Should there be a standard backing signal between fire fighters, even if they only respond as mutual aid from nearby jurisdictions?

A

yes, they should agree and train on the same ones

221
Q

Who is responsible for making sure that there are an appropriate number of backers?

A

company officer

222
Q

The driver must keep all backers in view. If he does not see one of them or feels unsafe, what should he do?

A

stop, set the parking brake, get out of the rig and check that all understand the plan involved for backing

223
Q

Which mirror is preferable for a backer to be seen in/backing?

A

left (driver side)

224
Q

If a driver must back with a person on the right side (passenger side mirror) due to hazards, how should they stand?

A

always slightly behind and to the outside

225
Q

Should a backer change mirror positions once they have been established?

A

NO

226
Q

If glare or sun created shadows are making it difficult to back up, what should you do?

A

have an additional spotter walking at the driver’s side front fender to relay signals from the rear

227
Q

What should a driver keep on hand fro wet or snowy obscured mirrors?

A

a squeegee or towel close by

228
Q

Should the spotters remain in the spotlight?

A

YES

229
Q

Should the spotters be stopping the rig/oncoming vehicles/pedestrians at different times?

A

NO. they must be simultaneous

230
Q

How should backing hand signals be done?

A

in a slow and exaggerated motion

231
Q

What should a driver follow for backing hand signals?

A

local SOPs

232
Q

What kind of backing motion would the spotter use back and forth motion with both hands, extending arms outward with elbows bent and both palms facing self? The driver backs only when arms are in motion.

A

Backing straight

233
Q

How should a spotter communicate backing to the left or right side of the apparatus?

A

positioned in the mirror, spotter uses arm that is communicating the direction to turn pointing to that direction and moving up and down (to make turning direction more visible) while the other arm is bent and palm facing self.

234
Q

How does the spotter motion slowing down?

A

arms outstretched to sides, palms down, raise and lower arms

235
Q

When a spotter crosses both forearms into a large X, what does it mean?

A

Stopping, backing complete, immediate but normal stop required

236
Q

How would one signal an urgent stop?

A

When a spotter crosses both forearms into a large X but taps forearms together exaggerated AND uses a voice command of “STOP NOW!”

237
Q

What signal does a backer give if the backing is not going as planned (stop backing, pull forward and reestablish operation?)

A

FIRST, signal to stop. spotter turns palms outward and pushes with a back and forth motion (opposite of backing)

238
Q

What else besides the back of the apparatus should the spotters be looking for?(5)

A

front of the apparatus, tree limbs, low overhead wires, sign posts and other hazards

239
Q

After a driver has been selected and trained, how should their performance be assessed?
When should this evaluation occur?

A
  • standard evaluation method

- before operate under emergency conditions

240
Q

What NFPA standard provides specific directions on driver candidate’s evaluation and should be followed to certify to the standard?

A

NFPA 1002 - Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications

241
Q

What NFPA standard should all training and testing of drivers follow?

A

NFPA 1451 - Standard for a Fire and Emergency Service Vehicle Operations Training Program

242
Q

What might a driver’s written exam pertain to? (5)

A
  1. ALL applicable driving regulations - emergency and non-emergency
  2. department regulations
  3. hydraulic calculations
  4. specific operational questions regarding pumping
  5. department procedures or guidelines
243
Q

Depending on local needs and preferences, can the driver written test have both varied questions and open or closed book?

A

YES and YES

244
Q

NFPA 1002 specifies a number of ______ ______ ________ that the driver candidate should successfully __________ before being authorized to drive on emergencies.

A
  • practical driving exercises

- complete

245
Q

Some jurisdictions prefer that a driver candidate complete their practical driving exercises before what?

A

a road test

246
Q

Can individual jurisdictions choose to add other evolutions that simulate local conditions to the exercises given in NFPA 1002 for a driver’s practical evaluation?

A

YES

247
Q

What minimum exercises must be completed and passed for the practical driving?

A

alley dock, serpentine course, confined space turn around and diminishing clearance exercise

248
Q

If the exercises to pass the practical driving courses are not reasonable for extremely large apparatus, NFPA 1002 states what?

A

The authority having jurisdiction may modify, with suitable justification, particular dimensions to make them feasible for local conditions

249
Q

Driver/operators must demonstrate their ability to operate an apparatus on public roadways and be certified after….

A

After demonstrating they can control the apparatus they are driving

250
Q

Who might develop a road test route that will traverse any conditions particular to the area?
Does it have to meet NFPA 1002 minimum requirements?

A
  • Local jurisdiction

- YES

251
Q

Safety issues while working on and around fire apparatus include…(5)

A
  1. compartment doors
  2. working on top of rig
  3. hose restraints
  4. hose chutes
  5. intake/discharge caps
252
Q

Encourage good practices regarding compartment doors to…

A

improve the safety of the working environment

253
Q

Why should you close swing-up or swing out compartment doors? (2)

A
  • reduce potential of personnel waking into them, swing up doors because persons working on top of rig might step on them thinking they are a walking surface
  • prevent damage if driven out of station
254
Q

You can use a compartment door as a step because they can support heavy weight.
True or False

A

FALSE

255
Q

Who should be present when working on, around or under apparatus?

A

second person

256
Q

Only work on apparatus with the utmost care and with what kind of surfaces provided?
If it does not have this what should you use?

A
  • slip resistant surfaces

- rubber matting or other means to provide traction before step/stand/walk

257
Q

If on top of the apparatus, what should you be wearing according to policy?

A

PPE including helmets

258
Q

New apparatus must provide ________ restraints for all hose carried/hose storage areas that prevent unintentional deployment from the ______, _______, ________ and rear while rig is underway in normal operations..

A
  • positive

- top, sides, front

259
Q

Before operating, driver should do what to the hose?

A

ensure that it will not come loose

260
Q

When hoses have come off rigs while driving on the public streets, what has happened?

A

damage to property, serious injuries and even death

261
Q

Where might and aerial ladder carry hose

A

on the top of the body and under the aerial

262
Q

What might a aerial have in order to guide hose around the ladder turntable on its way out the back of the truck?

A

“trough” or a “chute”

263
Q

Even though a hose cute has operational advantages, what might happen to the hose coming out?
What should you do?

A
  • hose connections might get caught up while exiting
  • watch carefully when it is coming out AND take special care to lay the hose in a manner conducive to the chute design while keeping apparatus speed very slow when deploying
264
Q

If a hose gets caught up or jam on corners and obstructions in a chute, what might happen?

A

hose might pull taught or whip, damaging equipment and injuring bystandards

265
Q

What 3 specific things should you do for a chute?

A
  1. lay couplings so they are pulled out straight, without flipping around
  2. lay hose so it never crosses over itself when paying out
  3. drive 5 mph or less (7 ft of hose is pulled out per second at 5 mph, going faster coudl cause a hose jam)
266
Q

What type of equipment could be stored in the cab or other crew areas?

A

SCBA packs, helmets, flashlights, axes, maps, medical supplies or other things

267
Q

What NFPA standard states that any equipment not needed while driving must be secured in brackets or contained in storage cabinets?
Must be able to sustain a force up to how many times the equipments weight?

A
  • NFPA 1901 - Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus

- 10 times to insure it does not become a projectile in a crash

268
Q

Drivers should insure that what is secure in crew areas before going in motion?

A

equipment stored in crew areas

269
Q

How can hydraulic fluids burn or injure?

A

by leaking from hoses at high temperatures and high pressures

270
Q

Can hydraulic fluid leak out when routine connections are made?

A

YES

271
Q

Are all hydraulic fluids good for human tissue?

A

NO, some are toxic

272
Q

The driver does not need to know anything about the SDS/MSDS on hydraulic fluids used on their apparatus.
TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

273
Q

What should you always wear when working with hydraulic fluid?

A

appropriate PPE, including gloves and eye protection.

274
Q

Should the driver know the limitations/maximum number of tools that can be attached to a hydraulic system?
why or why not

A

YES - some have manifold blocks connected to the ends so multiple tools can be attached. You must know the design limitations so you do not exceed the max tools allowed.

275
Q

Where can you go to learn more about hydraulically operated extrication equipment and it’s operation?

A

IFSTA’s Principles of Vehicle Extrication manual

276
Q

Most heavy equipment operate on hydraulic power?

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

277
Q

What should you do when detecting a hydraulic leak?

A

shut down and call service tech trained in safe methods of trouble-shooting and servicing

278
Q

Why should you never search for leaks in a hydraulic system with bare hands or body parts?
What should you use instead?

A
  • as low as 100 psi can penetrate skin

- use a piece of wood /cardboard

279
Q

The high pressure injections such as hydraulic fluid, grease and paint constitute what? (even if minor) Why?

A

a medical /surgical emergency with specialists because if injected they are highly toxic

280
Q

What can The high pressure injections such as hydraulic fluid, grease and paint cause?

A

gangrene, amputation and death if not treated promptly

281
Q

What should you do before working on a hydraulic system?

A

release the pressure

282
Q

Can pressure be built up behind a cap with a chain on a discharge or inlet?

A

Yes, if the valve is opened then closed again while pumping

283
Q

Should you remove a cap on an inlet or discharge before you know if there is pressure behind it? Why or why not

A

No, pressure trapped behind it may make the cap fly off with great force/explosive force

284
Q

How should you take a cap off a intake or discharge? (3)

A

Open the bleeder valve or drain between the control valve and the cap, remove it slowly and carefully and do NOT stand in front of it.

285
Q

What is a sign of a cap with pressure behind it?

A

it will not turn easily

286
Q

What mental skills must a driver be prepared with each work period?

A

reading, writing and mathematical abilities

287
Q

What physical skills must a driver be prepared with each work period?

A

include but not limited to ability to lift and manipulate heavy objects

288
Q

What should you make sure all personnel onboard are doing before you move the vehicle?

A

seat belted

289
Q

In 2010, according to the United States Fire Administration (USFA), how many FF were killed responding to or returning from emergencies?

A

17

290
Q

Drivers are responsible for the safe transport of ________, ________ and ________ to and from the scene.

A
  • firefighters
  • apparatus
  • equipment
291
Q

The elements of safe fire apparatus operation require identifying ______ driver/operator candidates and knowing the common ______ for accidents involving apparatus.

A
  • qualified

- causes

292
Q

What standard has established minimum qualifications fro apparatus driver/operators?

A

NFPA 1002, Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifictions

293
Q

What additional NFPA standard must a driver meet the requirements of if they are responsible for operating an aerial apparatus with or without a pump? (besides 1002)

A

NFPA 1001, Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications

294
Q

In some CAREER departments, where might a driver apparatus driver/operator component that qualifies all firefighters as drivers upon graduation be held?

A

the basic recruit academy

295
Q

In other dept., drivers are promoted from FFs. What might be required of the FF? (4 or combo of any of the 4)

A
  • minimum # of years
  • written test
  • performance evaluation
  • review of personnel records
296
Q

Where might a chief officer select a member who is ready for added responsibility of driver position to become the driver?

A

volunteer sector

297
Q

What might a driver in a volunteer fire dept. be required to do after being selected by a chief officer before they can drive to emergencies?

A

pass an evaluation after a training period

298
Q 
After becoming a fire fighter, in some departments a member who has WHAT kind of experience might be allowed to enter into a driver position?
A. truck-driving
B. chief
C. fire fighting
D. training
A

A. truck-driving

299
Q

Regardless of the selection process, a driver must have a balance of experience, k_________, maturity, sense of r____________ and m______ aptitude necessary to safely and efficiently complete the many tasks which a driver may be assigned.

A
  • knowledge
  • responsibility
  • mental
300
Q

What must a candidate have successfully completed in order to meet the INTENT of NFPA 1002?

A

a Firefighter I course of equivalent

301
Q

A thorough training program must be established and maintained to include regularly scheduled WHAT to maintain driver skills and introduce new WHAT as they evolve?

A
  • review and refresher courses

- concepts

302
Q

Does regularly scheduled review and refresher courses need to be thoroughly documented and maintained in department records? YES or NO

A

YES

303
Q

Can a department require a medical evaluation of a driver’s fitness for duty in addition to maintaining and enhancing skills?

A

YES

304
Q

What skills are common to driver/operators? (7)

A

1.reading skills, 2.computer skills, 3.writing skills, 4.mathematical skills, 5. physical fitness, 6.visual acuity, 7. adequate hearing

305
Q

The ability to read English and comprehend a variety of COMPLEX and TECHNICAL material is what skill?

A
  1. reading skill
306
Q

What types of complex and technical material must a driver comprehend under their “reading skill?” (4)

A
  1. manufacturer’s operation manuals
  2. fire service manuals and periodicals
  3. maps, dispatch instructions, preincident plans
  4. SOPs or SOGs
307
Q

A driver must have SUFFICIENT (#2.) computer skills to do the following 6 things:

  1. access __________ records, memos, bulletins and _____________ manuals, and pertinent maintenance and inspection records
  2. prepare and submit requests for supplies and equipment _________
  3. _________ mobile computer
  4. access and ________ online mapping software and _________ instructions
  5. operate and understand mechanical and electronic systems such as governors, foam systems and information systems.
  6. understand __________ from the GPS
A
  • computerized
  • manufacturer’s
  • repair
  • operate
  • operate
  • dispatch
  • directions
308
Q

Should a driver operate mobile computers?

A

NOOOOOOO - focus on driving only

309
Q

To complete maintenance forms, repair requests and other standard forms and to write brief narratives on reports as required, a driver must have this skill?

A
  1. writing skills
310
Q

What can a driver use with (#4.) mathematical skills? EXAMPLE

A

solve mathematical equations such as friction loss

311
Q 
Safely and efficiently performing strenuous tasks while under stressful fire ground conditions is part of what skill a driver must have?
A. reading
B. visual acuity
C. adequate hearing
D. physical fitness
A

D. physical fitness

312
Q

What rigorous physical activities might a driver have to perform that is included in their physical fitness skill? (5)

A
  • connecting an intake hose to a hydrant
  • hand-stretching supply line to hydrant
  • deploying a portable water tank
  • deploying hard sleeve hose for drafting
  • removing heavy or bulk equipment from compartments
313
Q

In order to establish and MAINTAIN a driver’s fitness for duty, according to what NFPA standard should a periodic medical evaluation be administered under the AHJ?

A

NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health program

314
Q

Who should develop standards for visual acuity (#6. of a driver’s skills)

A

AHJ

315
Q

If the AHJ should develop standards for visual acuity (#6.), what NFPA standard provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye?

A

NFPA 1582, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

316
Q

NFPA 1582, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments contains a list of WHAT that a driver must be able to hear and recommends rejecting a candidate who has hearing WHAT among those frequencies.

A
  • frequencies

- loss

317
Q

If a medical professional is conducting a hearing test, what NFPA standard should they be informed of the specifics of?

A

NFPA 1582, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

318
Q

NFPA 1582, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments contains a list of frequencies that a driver must be able to hear and recommends rejecting a candidate who has hearing loss among those frequencies. What skill of a driver does this pertain to?

A
  1. adequate hearing
319
Q

In the US, who establishes the basic requirements for licensing a driver?

A

DOT, FEDERAL Department of Transportation

320
Q

In Canada,, who has similar authority of the DOT, FEDERAL Department of Transportation?

A

TC, Transport Canada

321
Q

Special requirements are put into place to license drivers of large trucks by the DOT and the TC. While these are national guidelines, who has latitude to alter them as necessary for the needs of its jurisdictions?

A

state and province

322
Q

In all states and provinces, drivers of fire apparatus must have a CDL commercial driver’s license. TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

323
Q

When driving under non-emergency situations, you are subject to all traffic regulations. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

324
Q

Federal laws, state or provincial motor vehicle codes, city ordinances, NFPA standards and department policies all regulate driver/operators in their WHAT?

  1. duties
  2. physical fitness
  3. testing
  4. home life
A
  1. duties
325
Q

Unless specifically exempt, drivers are subject to any statute, rule, regulation or ordinance that governs any other WHO?

A

vehicle operator

326
Q

__________ of the law does not limit your liability for failing to follow it!

A

ignorance

327
Q

What might endanger fire personnel and/or civilians if not followed? (2)

A

laws and policies

328
Q

Most driving regulations pertain to _____, ____ roads during ________ conditions.

A
  • dry
  • clear
  • daylight
329
Q

What might make driving more hazardous, making a driver adjust their speed to compensate for these conditions? (4)

A
  1. rain
  2. fog
  3. snow
  4. darkness
330
Q

A driver must be familiar with the areas in their response district that are prone to traffic _________, flooding, icing or other road ______ issues.

A
  • congestion

- hazard

331
Q

What usually describe vehicles that are in the emergency category?

  1. DOT
  2. driving statutes
  3. public
  4. officers
A
  1. driving statutes
332
Q

Driving statutes describe emergency vehicles and this classification, in most cases, covers fire department vehicles doing what using what?

A

driving to emergencies using warning devices

333
Q

What might statutes exempt emergency vehicles from doing in some jurisdictions if they are responding to an reported emergency and using their audible and visible warning devices?

A

general public driving regulations

334
Q

Statutes sometimes exempt emergency vehicles from general public driving regulations in some jurisdictions if they are responding to an reported emergency and using their audible and visible warning devices. What could 4 of these exemptions be?

A
  1. speed limits
  2. direction of travel
  3. direction of turns
  4. parking statutes and ordinances
335
Q

If a driver has an exemption to general public driving regulations, what should a driver understand? (2)

A

their content and scope

336
Q

If you are involved in an accident, you could be subject to civil and criminal prosecution if you do not obey these three types of driving regulations (legal decisions have held).

A
  1. state
  2. local
  3. departmental
337
Q

If you are involved in an accident, you could be subject to civil and criminal prosecution if you do not obey state, local and departmental regulations. Who else could be held responsible?

A

the organization they represent

338
Q

Do you have to stop for a school bus when it is flashing red lights, indicating the loading or unloading of students? YES or NO
If YES, when should they proceed and how?

A
  • in most jurisdictions, YES

- after driver or police officer gives signal it is safe, slowly, watching for kids who are UNAWARE of the rig

339
Q

The driver IS protected from legal consequences of driving with reckless disregard for the safety of others.

A

FALSE, you are not

340
Q 
Reckless disregard is no necessarily suggesting intent to cause harm, it is a harsher condition than.....
A. situational awareness
B. bad driving
C. ordinary negligence
D. not thinking
A

C. ordinary negligence

341
Q

If you are negligent in the operation of an emergency vehicle and it is involved in a collision, who might be liable?

A

driver, jurisdiction you represent

342
Q

What is usually found when the driver has been found guilty of a gross violation on standing laws, policies, or ordinances?

A

negligence

343
Q

What is an example of gross negligence?

A

driving under the influence of alcohol

344
Q 
Gross negligence is...
A. willful and wanton disregard
B. driving with the safety of others in mind
C. failure to perform
D. conscious awareness of danger
A

A. willful and wanton disregard

345
Q

Driving under the influence of alcohol is gross negligence, but also THIS as well.

A

recklessness

346
Q 
The privileges extended to the driver of an emergency vehicle do NOT relieve them of the duty to drive with \_\_\_\_ regard for the safety of the public.
A. good
B. helpful
C. careful
D. due
A

D. due

347
Q

Damaged or destroyed apparatus will leave the jurisdiction with a reduces WHAT until the apparatus can be replaced.

A

capacity

348
Q

What might cause the jurisdiction to be involved in a time-consuming and costly litigation regarding injuries or damage sustained?

A

a collision

349
Q

What can cause accidents or collisions, both by drivers and/or that of civilian motor vehicle operators? (lapse in ______ and _________)

A

lapse in judgement and awareness

350
Q

Where is the most common place for a collision to occur?

A

intersection

351
Q

When a driver drives with due caution and is fully aware of surrounding traffic, what are much less likely to occur?

A

collisions

352
Q

Who reviews and publishes reports concerning ff fatalities including vehicular accidents?

A

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

353
Q

At the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) website, you can review current as well as historical reports that do WHAT to common fire apparatus accidents?

A

analyze

354
Q

What should a driver maintain in order to lower the chances of being involved in a collision with an object, pedestrian or other vehicle?

A

situational awareness

355
Q

How can a driver establish situational awareness necessary to safely drive an emergency vehicle?

A

train and practice to become familiar with its operation and the surrounding area

356
Q

Knowledge of what is also necessary for safe driving operations?

A

local traffic laws

357
Q

Why must you remain on the scene of a collision with the apparatus? (3)

A
  • treat potential injuries
  • document damage
  • await the police
358
Q

Who has the right-of-way?

A

emergency vehicles ON responses

359
Q

Is the right-of-way an excuse for a driver getting into a collision?

A

NO

360
Q

Proper WHAT involves allowing the right-of-way if doing so decreases the chances of a collision?

A

situational awareness

361
Q

What should you anticipate from other drivers during emergency responses?

A

unpredictable behavior

362
Q

What requests to other drivers to yield to emergency vehicles? (3)

A

emergency lights, sirens and horns

363
Q

Should you recognize that some motorists may not grant the right-of-way?

A

YES

364
Q

Seven basic causes of fire apparatus collisions that reflect the lack of due regard AND situational awareness:

  1. _________ backing
  2. _________ driving
  3. _________ speed
  4. _____ of driving skill and experience
  5. overloading and ______
  6. mechanical _______
  7. _______ personal readiness
A
  1. improper
  2. reckless
  3. excessive
  4. lack
  5. misuse
  6. failure
  7. driver
365
Q

Backing accidents generally account for a __________ percentage of all damage repair costs.

A

significant

366
Q

Most injuries sustained during backing are _______?

A

minor

367
Q

What can eliminate backing injuries?

A

proper backing techniques

368
Q

You should conduct yourself ______________ behind the wheel during all driving conditions and situations.

A

professionally

369
Q

You cannot control the _______ or driving _____ of the general public (during driving).

A

attitude or driving skills

370
Q

Should you place firefighters or members of the public in situations where there is no alternative to a collision?

A

NO

371
Q

Who should develop a safety-conscious attitude?

A

driver

372
Q

What is critically important to do as a driver in regard to reckless driving?

A

remain calm and drive in a safe manner

373
Q

Drivers who drive ________, fail to observe ______ precautions and are _______ agitated in traffic are a menace to other vehicles and pedestrians and danger to ff on the apparatus.

A
  • aggressively
  • safety
  • easily
374
Q

In addition to driving with a safety-conscious attitude, what other public image should you consider?

A

public image of department

375
Q 
Communities in which your fire department is viewed to be professional, courteous and skilled are more likely to offer....
A. money
B. support
C. volunteer hours
D. cookies
A

B. support

376
Q

Can you control the public’s reaction to visual and audible warning devices?

A

NO

377
Q

What might cause the driver to want to use excessive speed?

A

sense of urgency when responding to an emergency

378
Q

What impulse must you control to maintain speeds that are safe for road conditions and the capability of the rig?

A

want to use excessive speed

379
Q

What may lead to loss of control or the inability to stop/cause difficulty when braking?

A

excessive speed

380
Q

Disc and drum brakes will both ________ if braking and driving habits are poor.

A

overheat

381
Q

Overheated brake components lose their ability to stop the vehicle, regardless of the configuration of the braking system. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

382
Q

If braking habits are poor, both DISC brakes and DRUM brakes will do this….
A. overheat
B. fall off
C. cause the apparatus to suddenly stop
D. nothing, they are made for harsher use

A

A. overheat

383
Q

Brake fade is the loss of WHAT function due to excessive use of the brakes?

A

braking

384
Q

Can radial tires and ABS braking systems reduce the potential for brake fade?

A

NO

385
Q

What can reduce the potential for brake fade and ensure maximum braking efficiency?

A

effective handling and braking techniques

386
Q

What kinds of rigs may handle differently or have differing controls?

A

those with similar function and control

387
Q 
You must be familiar with the controls or driving characteristics of your apparatus or it could lead to....
A. collision
B. causing damage
C. injury or fatality
D, All three
A

D. all three

388
Q

Lack of driving skills may result from these 5 things.

A
  1. overconfidence in driving ability
  2. inability to recognize dangerous situations
  3. false sense of security due to good driving record
  4. misunderstanding of rig capabilities
  5. insufficient training on a piece of apparatus
389
Q

Having overconfidence in your driving ability is a lack of driving skills. You must not let the adrenaline rush of responding impair good ______ and sound _______.

A
  • judgement

- decisions

390
Q

Having overconfidence in your driving ability is a lack of driving skills. The task of safely driving the apparatus should always be WHERE in your mind?

A

foremost

391
Q

According to the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), how much percent of all collisions was the driver not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct and did on recognize a dangerous situation? (lack of driving skills)

A

42%

392
Q

What provides better braking for the weight and subsequent road surface traction? (think pumper)

A

full water tank

393
Q

What is the weight difference between a empty and full pumper that holds 1,000 gallons?

A

8,000 lbs

394
Q

What is more dangerous?
A properly baffled tank that is full?
A properly baffled tank that is partially filled?
A properly baffled tank that is empty?

A

partially filled

395
Q

Not knowing about the controls of the apparatus is what piece of the 7 basic causes of collisions?

A

insufficient training on a piece of apparatus

396
Q

Overloading, nonengineered modifications and misuse can cause…

A

accidents

397
Q

If you exceed manufacturer’s designs or modify if from it’s original configurations and design, it will not perform according to specification, potentially resulting in unsafe operation. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

398
Q

What kind of failure is the PRIMARY reason for doing a daily pretrip inspection?

A

mechanical failure

399
Q

Doing a pretrip inspection for the PRIMARY reason that mechanical failure can occur during travel with no warning/immediately, what can be MINIMIZED and what can be ENHNACED?

A
  • mechanical failure

- personnel and public safety

400
Q 
Poor maintenance, especially of THIS system, can lead to mechanical failures that result in collisions?
A. electrical
B. coolant
C. engine
D. braking
A

D. braking

401
Q

By following an effective apparatus maintenance program, you can reduce the likelihood of what kind of failure?

A

mechanical

402
Q

Do vehicles built by apparatus manufacturers or “homebuilt” apparatus have design problems?

A

“homebuilt” (custom-built, overloaded)

403
Q

“homebuilt” apparatus have been built by whom?

A

fire department or local mechanic

404
Q

Sometimes before conversion, “homebuilt” government surplus/used vehicle chassis may be well ____.

A

worn

405
Q

Many “homebuilt” apparatus are operated over the _ _ _ the chassis if designed to support and are ___ heavy after being retrofitted.

A
  • GVW (gross vehicle weight)

- top

406
Q

Some causes of driver impairment (although temporary include effects from:

  1. substance ______
  2. ________/over-the-counter drugs taken as directed
  3. personal issues (impending hardship, divorce, bankruptcy
  4. _______ in the family
  5. illness
  6. depression
  7. fatigue
A
  • abuse
  • prescription
  • death
407
Q

WHO is expected to adjust to and overcome driving challenges with INTELLIGENCE, EXPEDIENCY AND SAFETY?

A

PROFESSIONAL driver/operatior

408
Q

What actions are inappropriate and DO NOT keep a professional DEMEANOR? (3)

A
  • rude gestures
  • shouting
  • using horn to express anger
409
Q

Per NFPA 1500 and SOPs of most departments, where should you don your gear (except helmet?)
Who might be the exception?

A
  • before getting on the rig

- driver, hard to drive (rubber boots/bulky gear)

410
Q

Where would you find the exception for drivers to don gear AFTER they arrive on scene?

A

department SOP

411
Q

What NFPA standards establishes requirements for seat belt use, with limited exceptions?

A

NFPA 1911 - Standard for Automotive Fire Aparatus

NFPA 1500 - Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

412
Q 
Safeguarding the health and welfare of the people it is meant to protect is WHAT of any emergency vehicle?
A. ultimate mission
B. job
C. reason
D. direction
A

A. ultimate mission

413
Q

Why should you don gear at the station?

A

so there is no need or temptation to unbuckle the seat belt

414
Q

Can you become a LETHAL projectile and a hazard if the apparatus is in a crash and you HAVE your seat belt on?

A

NO

415
Q

What is intended to restrain your upper body and keep your body in the best position to ensure the effectiveness of air bags?

A

shoulder belt

416
Q

Which shoulder should you wear the shoulder belt only?

A

outside shoulder

417
Q

What may cause the seat belt to NOT contract quickly or completely to prevent it from getting caught in the door?

A

seat belt retractor in certain configurations

418
Q

How must you confirm everyone is wearing their seat belt before you move the vehicle?

A

verbally

419
Q

Under apparatus rider safety, what type of hose is it common to be loading while driving slowly forward?

A

LDH (4-inch or larger)

420
Q

Where should the procedures be contained that describe what all members should be specifically trained on to perform the moving hose-load operation (loading while driving)?

A

WRITTEN department standard operating procedures

421
Q

When loading LDH while driving, who should be a safety observer to the operation (or who should not be)?

A

someone other than the driver or the ff loading

422
Q

What NFPA standard provides directions on how operations in loading LDH while an apparatus is moving?

A

1500

423
Q

The safety observer must have ____ contact with the hose-loading operation, as well as ____ and ___ communications (usually by portable _____) with the driver.(loading LDH while apparatus is moving)

A
  • visual
  • visual
  • voice
  • radio
424
Q

When loading LDH while driving, should you close the loading area to other vehicular traffic?

A

YES

425
Q

What direction should you only drive when loading LDH while driving?

A

forward

426
Q

When loading LDH while driving, how fast should you drive?

A

5 mph, no greater

427
Q

When loading LDH while driving, where should the loader be in relationship to the hose? (2)

A

straddling or to one side

428
Q

When loading LDH while driving, should you allow the members to stand when the apparatus is in motion?

A

NO

429
Q

For apparatus rider safety, a ff should never ride the _______, front ______ or _______ boards of a moving apparatus as specifically prohibited by NFPA ______.

A
  • tailboard
  • bumper
  • running
  • 1500
430
Q

What are older apparatus, with jump seat riding positions that are no fully enclosed, sometimes equipped with to prevent a ff from falling out of the seat?

A

safety bars or gates

431
Q 
Older apparatus, with jump seat riding positions that are no fully enclosed, are sometimes equipped with safety bars or gates to prevent a ff from falling out of the seat.  These are not a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for safety procedures that require ff to ride in safe, enclosed positions wearing seat belts.
A. change
B. suggestion
C. different way of doing things
D. substitute
A

D. substitute

432
Q

Ropes or straps holding safety bars or gates in open positions provided on jump seats provide extra security for FF. TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE, they provide NO extra safety

433
Q

Do not climb upon any vehicle surface unless it is _____ resistant and hand_____ are provided.

A
  • slip

- handholds

434
Q

Some steps may be pivoting or folding design. Make sure these are firmly _____ in the ______-bearing position before placing full _____ on step.

A
  • engaged
  • weight
  • weight
435
Q

For safe methods of entering, exiting or climbing on a vehicle, what should you keep clean of grease, mud, dirt, fuel, ice and snow? (4)

A
  • steps
  • handholds
  • shoes
  • walkways
436
Q

What should you do to surfaces that you step on on the apparatus when they are worn?

A

replace them

437
Q

What components of the emission system may effect starting, idling and shutting down an apparatus?

A

-DEF and the DPF

438
Q

Before you even start the vehicle, what must the driver know? (2)

A
  • destination

- route of travel

439
Q

What should a driver do, before starting the vehicle, that will allow the driver to consider response factors such as road closings or traffic congestion?

A

take time to review the incident location

440
Q

Follow who’s recommendations on idling engines?

A

manufacturer’s

441
Q 
What might waste fuel, lead to carbon build up in injectors, valves, pistons and cause damage to the internal engine components and emissions system?
A. idling unnecessarily
B. reving the engine
C. leaving the lights on at a fire scene
D. regenerating too quickly
A

A. idling unnecessarily

442
Q

When were engines started to be built with DPF, diesel particulate filters?

A

2007

443
Q

What part of the DPF lights when the exhaust is very hot and usually is due to an active regeneration process?
A. HEST - high exhaust system temperature indicator
B. DPF indicator
C. manual regeneration switch
D. regeneration inhibit switch

A

A. HEST - high exhaust system temperature indicator

444
Q

What part of the DPF lights when the DPF is loaded up with soot (see owner’s manual)
A. HEST - high exhaust system temperature indicator
B. DPF indicator
C. manual regeneration switch
D. regeneration inhibit switch

A

B. DPF indicator

445
Q

What part of the DPF allows the driver to manually initiate an active regeneration to burn off the DPF soot load?
A. HEST - high exhaust system temperature indicator
B. DPF indicator
C. manual regeneration switch
D. regeneration inhibit switch

A

C. manual regeneration switch

446
Q

What part of the DPF allows the driver to keep the engine from initiating an active regeneration process?
A. HEST - high exhaust system temperature indicator
B. DPF indicator
C. manual regeneration switch
D. regeneration inhibit switch

A

D. regeneration inhibit switch

447
Q

Where should you use (limited use) the regeneration inhibit switch to keep high exhaust temperatures from starting a fire?

A

dry grass or combustible material

448
Q

The DPF collects ___________ (soot) from the _______ stream and burns them more _________.

A
  • particulates
  • exhaust
  • completely
449
Q

Black smoke and dirty exhaust emissions are created by newer DPF systems. TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

450
Q

Does the soot burn out of the DPF naturally or innaturally when the exhaust is very hot?

A

naturally

451
Q

When might an active regeneration be required because the exhaust does not get hot enough? (2)

A
  • apparatus makes frequent short runs

- cold climate

452
Q

2 manners the active regeneration can occur….

A
  • automatic

- manual (parked)

453
Q

Automatic or manual regeneration occur when the engine load, exhaust temperature and engine speed are within an acceptable range?

A

automatic

454
Q

Automatic regeneration occur when the engine load, exhaust temperature and engine speed are within an acceptable range. When these conditions are met, the engine will begin dosing WHAT into the exhaust stream to raise the exhaust WHAT and burn off soot.

A
  • fuel

- temperature

455
Q

How will the driver know that they need to start and active, parked, regeneration?

A

illumination of the DPF light in cab

456
Q

Can you initiate parked regeneration during pumping operations?

A

NO

457
Q

Should you preform parked regeneration when connected to an exhaust extraction system? Why or Why not

A

No, may cause damage to the system

Pumping and Aerial (20 decks)

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