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Medical Terminology 101 > ch.11 Eyes+Ears > Flashcards

ch.11 Eyes+Ears Flashcards

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1
Q

Anis/o

A

Unequal

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2
Q

Dipl/o

A

Double

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3
Q

Presby/o

A

old age

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4
Q

Nyctal/o

A

Night

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5
Q

ptosis

A

drooping

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6
Q

-opia

A

vision, sight

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7
Q

-opsia

A

Vision, sight

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8
Q

-Ectasis

A

Stretching, dilation

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9
Q

-eso

A

inward

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10
Q

opt/i , opt/o , optic/o , ophthalm/o

A

Eyes

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11
Q

ir/i , ir/o , irid/o , irit/o

A

Iris

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12
Q

phac/o , phak/o

A

Lens

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13
Q

retin/o

A

Retina

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14
Q

dacryocyst/o , lacrim/o

A

Lacrimal Apparatus

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15
Q

acous/o , acoust/o , audi/o , audit/o , ot/o

A

Ears

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16
Q

pinn/i

A

Outer Ear

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17
Q

myring/o , tympan/o

A

Middle Ear

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18
Q

labyrinth/o

A

Inner Ear

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19
Q

blephar/o

A

Eyelid

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20
Q

-cusis

A

Hearing

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21
Q

irid/o

A

Iris, colored part of eye.

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22
Q

kerat/o

A

Cornea, hard, or horny.

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23
Q

myring/o

A

Tympanic membrane, eardrum

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24
Q

ophthalm/o

A

Eye or vision

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25
Q

-opia

A

Vision condition

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26
Q

opt/o

A

Vision or eye

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27
Q

ot/o

A

Ear or hearing

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28
Q

phak/o

A

Lens of eye

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29
Q

retin/o

A

Retina or net

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30
Q

scler/o

A

White of eye, sclera or hard

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31
Q

trop/o

A

Turn or change

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32
Q

tympan/o

A

Tympanic membrane, eardrum

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33
Q

adnexa

A

appendages or accessory structures of an organ. In the eye, these are the structures outside the eyeball, including the orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus.

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34
Q

amblyopia

A

Dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

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35
Q

ametropia

A

Any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina

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36
Q

anisocoria

A

condition in which the pupils are unequal in size

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37
Q

astigmatism

A

condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

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38
Q

audiometry

A

use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity

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39
Q

cataract

A

loss of transparency of the lens of the eye that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity

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40
Q

chalazion

A

nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland

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41
Q

cochlear implant

A

electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

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42
Q

conjunctivitis

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually caused by an infection or allergy; also known as pinkeye

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43
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

inflammation of the lacrimal gland that can be a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection

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44
Q

diplopia

A

perception of two images of a single object; also known as double vision

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45
Q

ectropion

A

eversion (turning outward) of the edge of an eyelid

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46
Q

emmetropia

A

normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

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47
Q

entropion

A

inversion (turning inward) of the edge of an eyelid

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48
Q

esotropia

A

Strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one eye or both eyes; also known as cross-eyes

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49
Q

exotropia

A

Strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other; also known as walleye

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50
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye that acts as a contrast medium

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51
Q

glaucoma

A

group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP) that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal nerve fibers

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52
Q

hemianopia

A

Blindness in one-half of the visual field

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53
Q

hordeolum

A

pus-filled and often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland; also known as a stye

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54
Q

hyperopia

A

vision defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina; also known as farsightedness

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55
Q

infectious myringitis

A

contagious inflammation associated with a middle-ear infection that causes painful blisters on the eardrum

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56
Q

iridectomy

A

surgical removal of a portion of the iris tissue

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57
Q

iritis

A

Inflammation of the uvea affecting primarily structures in the front of the eye

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58
Q

keratitis

A

Inflammation of the cornea

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59
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth of the inner ear

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60
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

Treatment of open-angle glaucoma in which a laser is used to create an opening in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly

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61
Q

mastoidectomy

A

surgical removal of mastoid cells

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62
Q

mydriasis

A

The dilation of the pupil

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63
Q

myopia

A

vision defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina; also known as nearsightedness

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64
Q

myringotomy

A

small surgical incision into the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

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65
Q

nyctalopia

A

condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night; also known as night blindness

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66
Q

nystagmus

A

Involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball

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67
Q

ophthalmoscopy

A

visual examination of the fundus (back part) of the eye with an ophthalmoscope; also known as funduscopy

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68
Q

optometrist

A

specialist who holds a Doctor of Optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine if corrective lenses are needed

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69
Q

otitis media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear

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70
Q

otomycosis

A

fungal infection of the external auditory canal; also known as swimmer’s ear

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71
Q

otopyorrhea

A

flow of pus from the ear

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72
Q

otorrhea

A

discharge from the ear

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73
Q

otosclerosis

A

Ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss

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74
Q

papilledema

A

Swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk; also known as choked disk

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75
Q

periorbital edema

A

Swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes

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76
Q

photophobia

A

Excessive sensitivity to light

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77
Q

presbycusis

A

gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as the body ages

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78
Q

presbyopia

A

Decline of near vision that occurs with age as the lens becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body become weaker

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79
Q

ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis

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80
Q

radial keratotomy

A

A surgical procedure to treat myopia

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81
Q

retinopexy

A

Treatment to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment

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82
Q

scleritis

A

Inflammation of the sclera of the eye

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83
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

Deafness that develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged

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84
Q

stapedectomy

A

surgical removal of part of the stapes bone and its replacement with a small prosthetic device

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85
Q

strabismus

A

disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus

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86
Q

tarsorrhaphy

A

partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids

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87
Q

tinnitus

A

ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

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88
Q

tonometry

A

part of a routine eye examination in which intraocular pressure (IOP) is measured

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89
Q

tympanometry

A

use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear

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90
Q

vertigo

A

sense of whirling, dizziness, and the loss of balance, often combined with nausea and vomiting.

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91
Q

vitrectomy

A

removal of the vitreous fluid of the posterior chamber of the eye and its replacement with a clear solution

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92
Q

xerophthalmia

A

Drying of the eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva; also known as dry eye

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93
Q

AC

A

air conduction

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94
Q

ALD

A

assistive listening device

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95
Q

AS

A

astigmatism

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96
Q

CAT

A

cataract

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97
Q

CI

A

conjunctivitis

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98
Q

dB

A

decibel

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99
Q

EM, em

A

emmetropia

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100
Q

FA, FAG

A

fluorescein angiography

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101
Q

G, glc

A

glaucoma

102
Q

MD

A

macular degeneration

103
Q

RK

A

radial keratotomy

104
Q

RD

A

retinal detachment

105
Q

SLE

A

slit-lamp examination

106
Q

VA

A

visual acuity

107
Q

VF

A

visual field

108
Q

chalazion

A

a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland

109
Q

hordeolum

A

also known as a stye, is a pus-filled and often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an acute infection in a sebaceous gland. Compare with a chalazion

110
Q

Blepharitis

A

swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles

111
Q

Ectropion

A

the eversion of the edge of an eyelid ( ec- means out, trop means turn, and -ion means condition). Eversion means turning outward. This usually affects the lower lid, thereby exposing the inner surface of the eyelid to irritation and preventing tears from draining properly (Figure 11.7A). Ectropion is the opposite of entropion

112
Q

Entropion

A

the inversion of the edge of an eyelid ( en- means in, trop means turn, and -ion means condition). Inversion means turning inward. This usually affects the lower eyelid and causes the eyelashes to rub against the cornea. Entropion is the opposite of ectropion

113
Q

Periorbital edema

A

is swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes This can give the face a bloated appearance and cause the eyes to be partially covered by the swollen eyelids. This swelling is associated with conditions such as allergic reaction

114
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

also known as pinkeye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva that is usually caused by an infection or allergy

115
Q

Dacryoadenitis

A

is an inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection, Signs and symptoms of this condition include sudden severe pain, redness, and pressure in the orbit of the eye

116
Q

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera. This condition, which is usually caused by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye

117
Q

Xerophthalmia

A

also known as dry eye , is drying of eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva, because the tear glands do not produce enough tears. This condition is often associated with aging. It can also be due to systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis or caused by a lack of vitamin A

118
Q

Uveitis

A

s an inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation. Complications from uveitis can potentially lead to permanent vision loss

119
Q

Iritis

A

the most common form of uveitis. This inflammation of the uvea affects primarily structures in the front of the eye. This condition has a sudden onset and may last six to eight weeks

120
Q

corneal abrasion

A

an injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea. Compare with corneal ulcer

121
Q

corneal ulcer

A

a pitting of the cornea caused by an infection or injury. Although these ulcers heal with treatment, they can leave a cloudy scar that impairs vision. Compare with corneal abrasion.

122
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A

damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes. This is discussed in the section. As diabetic retinopathy progresses, diabetic macular edema can occur

123
Q

Keratitis

A

an inflammation of the cornea. This condition can be due to many causes, including bacterial, viral, or fungal infections.

124
Q

Keratoconus

A

occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision

125
Q

Scleritis

A

an inflammation of the sclera

126
Q

Anisocoria

A

a condition in which the pupils are unequal in size. This condition can be congenital or caused by a head injury, an aneurysm, or pathology of the central nervous system

127
Q

cataract

A

the loss of transparency of the lens that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity. The formation of most cataracts is associated with aging; however, this condition can be congenital or due to an injury or disease

128
Q

Floaters

A

also known as vitreous floaters, are particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina. Floaters often occur normally but may be an indication of retinal detachment, especially when accompanied by photopsia

129
Q

Photopsia

A

the presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers. These are often caused by damage to the eye or migraine headaches

130
Q

Miosis

A

is the contraction of the pupil, normally in response to exposure to light but also possibly due to the use of prescription or illegal drugs

131
Q

Mydriasis

A

the dilation of the pupil, is the opposite of miosis. The causes of mydriasis include diseases, trauma (injury), and drugs

132
Q

Nystagmus

A

is an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use

133
Q

Papilledema

A

also known as choked disk, is swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk

134
Q

Retinal detachment

A

also known as a detached retina, and retinal tears are the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid. If not treated, the entire retina can detach, causing blindness. These conditions can be caused by head trauma, aging, or the vitreous humor separating from the retina

135
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa

A

a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision. It can be detected by the presence of dark pigmented spots in the retina

136
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

a form of vasculitis that can cause a sudden vision loss, usually in one eye

137
Q

Glaucoma

A

a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the retinal nerve fibers and the optic nerve

138
Q

Open-angle glaucoma

A

also known as chronic glaucoma, is by far the most common form of this condition. The trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure. Symptoms of this condition are not noticed by the patient until the optic nerve has been damaged; however, it can be detected earlier through regular eye examinations, including tonometry and visual field testing.

139
Q

closed-angle glaucoma

A

also known as acute glaucoma, the opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork. This narrowing can cause a sudden increase in the intraocular pressure that produces severe pain, nausea, redness of the eye, and blurred vision. Without immediate treatment, blindness can occur in as little as two days

140
Q

Macular degeneration

A

a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness

141
Q

Age-related macular degeneration

A

occurs most frequently in older people and is the leading cause of severe vision loss in those over 60

142
Q

Dry macular degeneration

A

which accounts for 90% of all AMD cases, is caused by the slow deterioration of the cells of the macula

143
Q

Wet macular degeneration

A

an advanced form of dry AMD. New blood vessels growing beneath the retina leak blood and fluid, damaging the retinal cells. These small hemorrhages usually result in rapid and severe vision loss

144
Q

Diplopia

A

also known as double vision, is the perception of two images of a single object. It is sometimes a symptom of a serious underlying disorder such as multiple sclerosis or a brain tumor

145
Q

Hemianopia

A

blindness in one-half of the visual field

146
Q

Monochromatism

A

also known as color blindness, is the inability to distinguish certain colors in a normal manner. This is a genetic condition caused by deficiencies in or the absence of certain types of cones in the retina

147
Q

Nyctalopia

A

also known as night blindness, is a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night

148
Q

Photophobia

A

means excessive sensitivity to light and can be the result of migraines, excessive wearing of contact lenses, drug use, or inflammation

149
Q

Presbyopia

A

the condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with aging. With age, near vision declines noticeably as the lens becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body become weaker. The result is that the eyes are no longer able to focus the image properly on the retina

150
Q

Strabismus

A

disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly, because the eye muscles are unable to focus together

151
Q

Esotropia

A

also known as cross-eyes, is strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one or both eyes. Esotropia is the opposite of exotropia

152
Q

Exotropia

A

also known as walleye, is strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other. Exotropia is the opposite of esotropia

153
Q

refractive disorder

A

focusing problem that occurs when the lens and cornea do not bend light so that it focuses properly on the retina

154
Q

Ametropia

A

any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina. Astigmatism, hyperopia, and myopia are all forms of ametropia

155
Q

Astigmatism

A

a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

156
Q

Hyperopia

A

also known as farsightedness, is a defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina. This condition can occur in childhood but usually causes difficulty after age 40 Hyperopia is the opposite of myopia

157
Q

Myopia

A

also known as nearsightedness, is a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina. This condition occurs most commonly around puberty. Myopia is the opposite of hyperopia

158
Q

Amblyopia

A

a dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

159
Q

Scotoma

A

also known as blind spot, is an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision

160
Q

Snellen chart

A

used to measure visual acuity. The results for each eye are recorded as a fraction with 20/20 being considered normal

161
Q

refraction test

A

done to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed. This term also refers to the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

162
Q

diopter

A

the unit of measurement of a lens’s refractive power

163
Q

cover test

A

an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision. One eye at a time is covered while the patient focuses on an object across the room

164
Q

Visual field testing

A

also known as perimetry, is performed to determine losses in peripheral vision. Peripheral means occurring away from the center. Blank sections in the visual field can be symptomatic of glaucoma or an optic nerve disorder. This test is done by having the patient look straight ahead and indicate whether or not they can see an object or flash of light when it is presented in their periphery

165
Q

Ophthalmoscopy

A

also known as funduscopy, is the use of an ophthalmoscope to visually examine the fundus (back part) of the eye. This examination includes the retina, optic disk, choroid, and blood vessels

166
Q

Dilation

A

the eyes is required in preparation for the ophthalmoscopic examination of the interior of the eye. Artificial enlargement of the pupils is achieved through the use of mydriatic drops

167
Q

Mydriatic drops

A

are placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light

168
Q

Slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy

A

a diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens. Often fluorescein staining is used to help detect foreign bodies or an infected or injured area of the eye

169
Q

Fluorescein staining

A

the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator. This dye causes a corneal abrasion to temporarily appear bright green

170
Q

Fluorescein angiography

A

a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye as a contrast medium. The resulting angiograms are used to determine whether there is proper circulation in the retinal vessels

171
Q

PERRLA

A

an acronym meaning Pupils are Equal, Round, Responsive to Light and Accommodation. This is a diagnostic observation, and any abnormality here could indicate a head injury or damage to the brain

172
Q

Tonometry

A

the measurement of intraocular pressure. Abnormally high pressure can be an indication of glaucoma

173
Q

orbitotomy

A

a surgical incision into the orbit. This procedure is performed for biopsy, abscess drainage, or removal of a tumor or foreign object

174
Q

Tarsorrhaphy

A

the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally

175
Q

corneal transplant

A

also known as keratoplasty , is the surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor

176
Q

Enucleation

A

the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact

177
Q

ocular prosthesis

A

also known as an artificial eye, may be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed. A prosthesis is an artificial substitute for a diseased or missing body part

178
Q

iridectomy

A

he surgical removal of a portion of the tissue of the iris. This procedure is most frequently performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma

179
Q

radial keratotomy

A

a surgical procedure to treat myopia. During the surgery, incisions are made in the cornea to cause it to flatten. These incisions allow the sides of the cornea to bulge outward and thereby flatten the central portion of the cornea. This brings the focal point of the eye closer to the retina and improves distance vision. Compare with LASIK, in the later section “Laser Treatments of the Eyes.”

180
Q

scleral buckle

A

a silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina. The detached layers are brought closer together by attaching this band onto the sclera, or outer wall, of the eyeball, creating an indentation or buckle effect inside the eye

181
Q

Vitrectomy

A

the removal of the vitreous humor and its replacement with a clear solution. This procedure is sometimes performed to treat a retinal detachment or when diabetic retinopathy causes blood to leak and cloud the vitreous humor

182
Q

Lensectomy

A

is the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens

183
Q

Phacoemulsification

A

is the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract. This is performed through a very small opening, and the same opening is used to slide the intraocular lens into place

184
Q

intraocular lens

A

a surgically implanted replacement for a natural lens that has been removed. There are two types of IOLs, monofocal and multifocal, which was designed to eliminate the need for additional corrective lenses

185
Q

concave lenses

A

concave lenses (curved inward) are used for myopia

186
Q

convex lenses

A

(curved outward) for hyperopia

187
Q

Bifocals

A

are lenses with two powers

188
Q

Trifocals

A

lenses with three powers

189
Q

Contact lenses

A

refractive lenses that float directly on the tear film in front of the eye. Rigid gas-permeable lenses cover the central part of the cornea, and disposable soft lenses cover the entire cornea

190
Q

laser iridotomy

A

uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye. This procedure is performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma by creating an opening that allows the aqueous humor to flow between the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior segment of the eye

191
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

is used to treat open-angle glaucoma by creating openings in the trabecular meshwork to allow the fluid to drain properly

192
Q

LASIK

A

Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis. In situ means in its original place. LASIK is used to treat vision conditions, such as myopia, that are caused by the shape of the cornea. During this procedure, a flap is opened in the surface of the cornea, and then a laser is used to change the shape of a deep corneal layer. Compare with radial keratotomy

193
Q

Photocoagulation

A

s the use of a laser to treat some forms of wet macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels. This technique is also used to repair small retinal tears by intentionally forming scar tissue to seal the holes

194
Q

Retinopexy

A

is used to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment

195
Q

pneumatic retinopexy

A

gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity to put pressure on the area of repair while it heals. The bubble gradually dissipates

196
Q

Impacted cerumen

A

an accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal. Impacted means lodged or wedged firmly in place

197
Q

Otalgia

A

also known as an earache, is pain in the ear

198
Q

Otitis

A

means any inflammation of the ear ( ot means ear, and -itis means inflammation). The second part of the term gives the location of the inflammation. For example, otitis externa is an inflammation of the external auditory canal, also known as swimmer’s ear

199
Q

Otomycosis

A

a fungal infection of the external auditory canal

200
Q

Otopyorrhea

A

the flow of pus from the ear

201
Q

Otorrhea

A

any discharge from the ear. In rare cases this could include leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

202
Q

Otorrhagia

A

bleeding from the ear

203
Q

Barotrauma

A

a pressure-related ear condition. These conditions can be caused by pressure changes when flying, driving in the mountains, or scuba diving or when the eustachian tube is blocked

204
Q

cholesteatoma

A

also known as a pearly tumor, is a destructive epidermal cyst in the middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol. It can be congenital or a serious complication of chronic otitis media

205
Q

Mastoiditis

A

is an inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone. This condition may develop when acute otitis media that cannot be controlled with antibiotics spreads to the mastoid process.

206
Q

Infectious myringitis

A

a contagious inflammation that causes painful blisters on the eardrum. This condition is associated with a middle ear infection. It is not to be confused with infectious meningitis, which is an inflammation of the brain and spinal cord

207
Q

Otitis media

A

an inflammation of the middle ear

208
Q

Acute otitis media

A

usually associated with an upper respiratory infection and is most commonly seen in young children. This condition can lead to a ruptured eardrum due to the buildup of pus or fluid in the middle ear

209
Q

Serous otitis media

A

fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection. This condition can follow acute otitis media or can be caused by obstruction of the eustachian tube

210
Q

Otosclerosis

A

the ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss. Ankylosis means fused together. This condition is treated with a stapedectomy

211
Q

Labyrinthitis

A

an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness

212
Q

Vertigo

A

a sense of whirling, dizziness, and loss of balance that is often combined with nausea and vomiting. Although it is a symptom of many disorders, recurrent vertigo is sometimes associated with inner ear problems such as Ménière’s disease

213
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

a common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small crystals in the semicircular canals. BPPV, labyrinthitis, and Ménière’s disease are examples of vestibular disorders, which are disorders of the body’s balance-controlling vestibular system in the inner ear

214
Q

Ménière’s disease

A

a rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss, and tinnitus

215
Q

Tinnitus

A

commonly pronounced, is a condition of a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears. It is often associated with hearing loss and is more likely to occur when there has been prolonged exposure to loud noises

216
Q

Aphakia

A

without a lens in the eye

217
Q

presbycusis

A

loss of hearing due to old age

218
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

a brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear. This is one of the most common types of brain tumors and can cause hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus

219
Q

Deafness

A

the complete or partial loss of the ability to hear. It can range from the inability to hear sounds of a certain pitch or intensity, to a complete loss of hearing

220
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear. Causes of this hearing loss include a buildup of earwax, infection, fluid in the middle ear, a punctured eardrum, otosclerosis, and scarring. This type of hearing loss can often be treated

221
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

also known as nerve deafness, develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged. This is usually due to age, noise exposure, or an acoustic neuroma. The source of this hearing loss can be located in the inner ear, in the nerve from the inner ear to the brain, or in the brain

222
Q

noise-induced hearing loss

A

a type of nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to extremely loud noises such as a gunshot or to moderately loud noises that continue for long periods of time

223
Q

decibel

A

commonly used as the measurement of the loudness of sound

224
Q

audiological evaluation

A

also known as speech audiometry, is the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness. This testing is best achieved in a sound-treated room with earphones. The resulting graph is an audiogram that represents the ability to hear a variety of sounds at various loudness levels

225
Q

Audiometry

A

the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity. An audiometer is an electronic device that produces acoustic stimuli of a set frequency and intensity

226
Q

hertz

A

a measure of sound frequency that determines how high or low a pitch is. Note: The singular and plural of hertz are the same

227
Q

otoscope

A

which is an instrument used to examine the external ear canal, is discussed further in Chapter 15. A pneumatic otoscope has the attachment of a bulb filled with air; during an exam with an otoscope the bulb is pressed to visualize whether or not the tympanic membrane is immobile, indicating possible otitis media

228
Q

Monaural testing

A

involves one ear. Compare with binaural testing

229
Q

Binaural testing

A

involves both ears. Compare with monaural testing

230
Q

Tympanometry

A

the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear. The resulting record is a tympanogram. This is used to test for middle-ear fluid buildup or eustachian tube obstruction, or to evaluate a conductive hearing loss

231
Q

Acoustic reflectometry

A

measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, a way to test how much fluid is in the middle ear to diagnose otitis media

232
Q

Weber and Rinne test

A

a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses. The patient’s perception of the tuning fork’s vibrations helps evaluate his or her hearing ability by air conduction compared to that of bone conduction

233
Q

Otoplasty

A

the surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear. This is sometimes done as a cosmetic surgery called ear pinning to bring protruding ears closer to the head

234
Q

Ear tubes

A

formally known as tympanostomy tubes, are tiny ventilating tubes placed through the eardrum to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure that can build up after childhood ear infections

235
Q

mastoidectomy

A

is the surgical removal of mastoid cells. This procedure is used to treat mastoiditis that cannot be controlled with antibiotics or in preparation for the placement of a cochlear implant

236
Q

myringotomy

A

a small surgical incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

237
Q

stapedectomy

A

the surgical removal of the top portion of the stapes bone and the insertion of a small prosthetic device known as a piston that conducts sound vibrations to the inner ear

238
Q

Tympanoplasty

A

is the surgical correction of a damaged middle ear, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function

239
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

the surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth. This procedure is performed to relieve uncontrolled vertigo; however, it causes complete hearing loss in the affected ear

240
Q

Vestibular rehabilitation therapy

A

a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders, the majority of which are caused by problems in the inner ear and vestibular nerve

241
Q

assistive listening device

A

transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid. An ALD can be helpful in eliminating distracting background noise. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that many public places provide assisted listening devices

242
Q

cochlear implant

A

an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve . The external speech processor captures sounds and converts them into digital signals. Electrodes that are implanted into the cochlea receive the signals and stimulate the auditory nerve. The brain receives these signals and perceives them as sound; however, it may take several months to adjust to the difference in speech when it is received in this manner

243
Q

Fenestration

A

a surgical procedure in which a new opening is created in the labyrinth to restore lost hearing

244
Q

Hearing aids

A

electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss. Sometimes a sensorineural hearing loss can be corrected with a hearing aid

245
Q

analog hearing aid

A

s an external electronic device that uses a microphone to detect and amplify sounds

246
Q

digital hearing aid

A

a computer chip to convert the incoming sound into a code that can be filtered before being amplified. This is designed to best compensate for a specific type of hearing loss. Hearing aid technology has steadily advanced, and some are even programmable from a smart phone or tablet

247
Q

hearing aids are worn

A

behind the ear (BTE), in the ear (ITE), in the canal(ITC), completely in the canal (CIC).

248
Q

refraction

A

ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

249
Q

cerumen

A

Earwax

250
Q

Canthus

A

the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet

Medical Terminology 101 (20 decks)

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