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CH 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the evolutionary perspective?

A
  • natural selection and adaptive behavior
  • evolutionary psychology
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2
Q

what happens during the embryonic period

A

rate of cell differentiation intensifies, support systems for cells form, and organs develop

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3
Q

what is an embryo

A

mass of cells with three layers

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4
Q

what will the inner layer of cells in an embryo form during the embryonic period form?

A

endoderm will develop into the digestive and respiratory system
internal body parts

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5
Q

what will the outermost layer of cells form of an embryo during the embryonic period form?

A

the ectoderm will become the nervous system, sensory receptors (ears, nose, and eye, e.g.), and skin parts (e.g. hair and nails)
primarily produces surface parts

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6
Q

what will the middle layer of cells in the embryos embryonic period form

A

mesoderm will become the circulatory system, bones, muscles, excretory system, and reproductive system
primarily produces parts that surround the internal areas

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7
Q

What is natural selection according to the evolutionary perspective?

A

evolutionary process by which individuals of a species that are best adapted are the ones to survive and reproduce

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8
Q

What is adaptive behavior according to the evolutionary perspective?

A

promotes an organisms survival in the natural habitat, because an organism possesses characteristics needed for survival

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9
Q

What is evolutionary psychology?

A

emphasizes the importance of adaption and reproduction to ensure sruvival

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10
Q

where are chromosomes found

A

the nucleus of each human cell contains chromosomes

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11
Q

What are the genetic foundations of development ?

A
  • genes and chromosomes
  • genetic principles
  • chromosomal and gene-linked abnormalities
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12
Q

What are chromosomes?

A
  • threadlike structures located in the nucleus
  • made up of deoxyribonucleic acid
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13
Q

What is DNA?

A
  • complex double-helix molecule that contains genetic code or information
    “human genetic code is carried in fertilized egg and passed down to make humans”
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14
Q

what are genes?

A

units (short segments from DNA) of hereditary information
- helps cells to reproduce themselves
- manufacture the proteins that maintain life
+ each gene has its designated place on a particular chromosome

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15
Q

what is the co-construction of biology

A

biology, culture, and the individual

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

what are proteins

A

the building blocks of cells
+ regulators that direct the body’s process

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18
Q

does a person have more proteins or genes

A

appear more proteins than genes

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19
Q

What did the Human Genome project lead to

A
  • linkage analysis; helps discover the location of a gene or a genes in relation to a marker gene
  • used in the search for a disease-related genes
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20
Q

what is the human genome project method?

A

identify genetic variations linked to a particular disease

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21
Q

Are genes are dependent ?

A

Yes, they are dependent and there are more proteins than genes

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22
Q

who is bandura (chapter 1)

A

bandura had a social cognitive theory that evolution influences human adaptation

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23
Q

what do we obtain from evolution

A

bodily structures and biological potentialities
but does not dictate behavior

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24
Q

How many genes are in human genome?

A

there are approx. 20, 000 genes
genes collar with each other and non-genetic factors both inside and outside the body

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25
Q

what in an individuals environment affects genes?

A

negative influence on gene expression
- stress
- exercise
- respiration
- nutrition
- radiation
- temperature
- lack of sleep

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26
Q

how can radiation exhibit gene expression

A

radiation changes the rate of DNA synthesis

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27
Q

How can sleep deprivation affect gene expression negatively

A

increases inflammation, expression of stress related genes and impairment of protein functioning

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28
Q

Do all cells in the body have chromosomes?

A

all of the cells in the body except sperm and egg, have 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs

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29
Q

how can a mutated gene occur

A

mistake by the cellular machinery
damage by environment agent (e.g. radiation)

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30
Q

what is the process of meiosis

A

men testes and woman ovaries duplicate chromosomes but then divides twice each, to form four cells, each of which only have half of the material of the parent cell. at end each egg and sperm have 23 unpaired chromosomes

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31
Q

how does an offspring have half of both parent genetic material

A

b/c of zygote that has 46 chromosomes (23 each) that have paired themselves from man and woman

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32
Q

How can exercise negatively affect gene expression?

A

through process called methylation;
when tiny atoms attach themselves to the outside of a gene making it more or less capable of receiving and responding to biochemical signals from body.
behavior but not structure is change

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33
Q

can an X-linked inheritance affect both the man and woman?

A

both can have X gene linked abnormalities; the woman has two X chromosomes while the man has an X and Y chromosomes.

woman with fragile X syndrome are left with one X but the X by itelf overrides it. A man with no X (Klinefelter syndome) are more womanly and underdeveloped

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34
Q

how may tobacco and diet affect gene behavior

A

through process of methylation (change behavior but not structure)

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35
Q

is methylation bad for the body?

A

may be involved in depression, breast caner and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

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36
Q

what can genes be thought of

A

collaborative + enduring

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37
Q

can hormones affect genes

A

because of environmental factors, genes can turn “on” and “off” genes after making their way into the cell

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38
Q

What is mitosis?

A

cellular reproduction in which the cell’s nucleus duplicates itself into two new cells (each cell contains the same DNA as parent cell)

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39
Q

What is Meiosis?

A

cell division forming eggs and sperm, or gametes

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40
Q

What is fertilization?

A

Reproductive stage when egg and sperm fuse to create a zygote
zygote - single cell formed through fertilization

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41
Q

What are the sources of variability in genes and chromosomes?

A

a unique zygote; combining parents’ two sets of genes increases genetic variability in offspring

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42
Q

what is a mutated gene?

A

permanently altered segment of DNA

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43
Q

What are susceptibility genes?

A

make the individual more vulnerable to specific disease or accelerated aging

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44
Q

what are longevity genes?

A

make the individual less vulnerable to certain disease and more likely to live to an older age

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45
Q

what is genotype?

A

person’s genetic material

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46
Q

what is phenotype?

A

how an individuals genotype is expressed in observable and measure physical and psychological characteristics how you look and act based on environment and genes

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47
Q

expression is influenced by environmental factors

A

yes environment can effect the way you look (expression)
e.g. genetic potential for height may be stunted by lack of access to proper nutrition

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48
Q

What does genetic principle mean?

A

to determine how a genotype is expressed to create a particular phenotype

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49
Q

what is dominant-recessive genes principle ?

A

one gene of a pair always exerts its effects, overriding the potential influence of the other gene

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50
Q

what is sex linked genes?

A
  • when a mutated gene is carried on the X chromosome, the result is called X-linked inheritance
  • most X-linked inherited diseases manifest in males who only have one X chromosome
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51
Q

what is genetic imprinting?

A
  • occurs when the expression of a gene has different effects depending on whether the gene is passed on by mother or father
  • chemical process preventing one member of the gene pair from expressing itself
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52
Q

what is polygenic inheritance?

A
  • multiple genes adding to a trait
  • gene-gene interaction: studies focusing on the interdependence of two or more genes in influencing characteristics, behavior, diseases, and development
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53
Q

Down syndrome

A
  • extra chromosome (21 more than common)
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54
Q

what does an extra chromosome do?

A

cause mild to severe intellectual disability and physical abnormalities

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55
Q

how to treat Down syndrome?

A

surgery
early intervention
infant stimulation
special learning programs
1 in 1.900 briths at age 20
1 in 300 births at age 35
1 in 30 births at age 45

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56
Q

Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

A

extra X chromosome (instead of XY is XXY
sex linked chromosomal disorder to males

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57
Q

what does an extra X chromosome do to a man?

A

cause physical and intellectual issues
underdeveloped testes, enlarged breasts, becoming tall

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58
Q

How to treat Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

A

Hormone therapy can be effective
1 in 1.000 male births

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59
Q

fragile X syndrome

A

Abnormality in the X chromosome (constricted and often breaks)
gene linked

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60
Q

what does an abnormality in the X chromosome do?

A

cause intellectual disability, learning disabilities (aka autism), or short attention span

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61
Q

how to treat Fragile X syndrome

A

special education, speech and language therapy
more common in males than females

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62
Q

turner syndrome (X0)

A

a missing X chromosome in females

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63
Q

what does a missing X chromosome in females do?

A

cause intellectual disability and sexual underdevelopment

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64
Q

how to treat turner syndrome?

A

hormone therapy in childhood and puberty
1 in 2.500 female births

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65
Q

XYY syndrome

A

males has an extra Y chromosome

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66
Q

What does an extra Y chromosome do?

A

can cause above-average height

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67
Q

how to treat XYY syndrome

A

no special treatment required
1 in 1,000 male births

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68
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A

glandular dysfunction
- excessive thick mucus
- breathing problems
- block digestion
resulting in a shortened life span
* 1 in 2,000 births*

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69
Q

how to treat cystic fibrosis

A
  • physical and oxygen therapy
  • synthetic enzymes
  • antibiotics
  • most live to middle age
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70
Q

what happens when the glandular dysfunctions and interferes with mucus production

A

breathing and digestion are hampered which shortens life span

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71
Q

What is diabetes

A

body does not produce enough insulin
1 in 2,500 births

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72
Q

what happens when the body does not produce enough insulin

A

causes abnormal metabolism of sugar

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73
Q

how to treat diabetes

A

early onset can be fatal unless treated with insulin

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74
Q

what is hemophilia

A

delayed blood clotting
1 in 10,000 males

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75
Q

What does delayed blood cutting do?

A

cause internal and external bleeding

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76
Q

how to treat hemophilia

A

blood transfusions/injections can reduce or prevent damage due to internal bleeding

1 in 10k males

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77
Q

how does root word hemo mean

A

blood

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78
Q

what does Philip mean

A

love

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79
Q

what is Hunington’s disease ?

A

central nervous system deteriorates
1 in 20,000 births

gene-linked

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80
Q

what happens when the central nervous system deteriorates?

A

produces problems in muscle coordination and mental deterioration

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81
Q

how to treat huningtons disease

A

doesn’t usually appear until age 35 or older; death likely 10 to 20 years after symptoms appear

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82
Q

what is Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

metabolic disorder (cannot properly metabolize an amino acid called phenylalanine)
1 in 10.000 to 1 in 20.000 births + genetic disorder

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83
Q

what does metabolic disorder cause

A

intellectual disability and hyperactivity

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84
Q

how to treat phenyiketonuria (PKU)

A

special diet can result in average intelligence and normal life span

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85
Q

what is sickle-cell anemia

A

blood disorder that limits the body’s oxygen supply
1 in 400 African American children (lower among other groups)

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86
Q

what happens when there is a blood disorder that limits the body’s oxygen supply

A

cause joint swelling, as well as heart and kidney failure

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87
Q

how to treat sickle-cell anemia

A

penicillin, medication for pain, antibiotic. blood transfusion, and hydroxyuerea therapy (can start as young as 9mo. of age)

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88
Q

what is spina bifida

A

neural tube disorder
2 in 1,000 births

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89
Q

what happens when having a neural tube disorder

A

that causes brain and spine abnormalities

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90
Q

what does the term gene-gene interaction mean?

A

studies that focus on the interdependence process by which two or more genes influence
- characteristics, behavior, disease, and development

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91
Q

how to treat spina bifida

A

corrective surgery at birth.
orthopedic devices.
physical/medical therapy

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92
Q

what is Tay Sachs disease

A

deceleration of mental and physical development
1 in 30 American Jew is a carrier

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93
Q

What causes deceleration of mental and physical development

A

an accumulation of lipids in the nervous system

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94
Q

how to treat tay-sachs disease

A

medication and special diet are used, but death is likely by 5 years of age

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95
Q

What are choices to take when having reproductive challenges?

A
  • prenatal diagnostic tests
  • infertility and reproductive techonlogy
  • adoption
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96
Q

what is a critic of Gene x environment (G X E) interaction?

A

plagued by difficulties in replicating results, inflated claims, and other weaknesses

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97
Q
A
98
Q

tee

A

hee

99
Q

What is nature-nurture = Gene x Environment = G X E

A

nature is biological inherited genes
nurture is environment that influences development
gene are biologically inheredeted info
environment is environment influences

100
Q

blank

A

blank

101
Q

what is twin study

A

behavioral similarity of identical and fraternal twins is compared

102
Q

what is adoption study

A

seeks to discover whether behavioral and psychological characteristics of adopted children are more like their
- adoptive parents who provide a home environment
- biological parents who contributed their heredity

103
Q

what is the passive genotype in correlation of heredity-environment

A

children inherit genetic tendencies from their parents, and parents, and also can provide an environment that matches their own genetic tendencies
*e.g. Musically inclined parents usually have musically inclined children, and they are likely to provide an environment rich in music for their children. *

104
Q

what is evocative genotype in heredity-environment correlations

A

the Childs genetic tendencies elicit stimulation from the environment that supports a particular trait. Thus, genes evoke environmental support
e.g. a happy, outgoing child elicits smiles and friendly responses from others

105
Q

what is (niche-picking) Active genotype-environment in heredity-environment correlations

A

children actively seek out niches in their environment that reflect their own interests and talents and are thus in accord with their genotype
Libraries, sports fields, and a
store with musical instruments
are For Examples of environmental niches children
might seek out if they have
intellectual interests in books,
talent in sports, or musical
talents, respectively.

106
Q

what is epigenetic view

A

development is the result of an ongoing bidirectional interchange between heredity and environment to produces a person wellbeing (e.g. intelligence, temperature, health,+)

107
Q

what is one way that gene x environment (GXE) interact with the epignetic view

A
  • heredity and environment influence development and interactions of specific DNA sequences
  • Epigenetic mechanisms involve molecular modification of DNA
    strand as a result of environmental inputs in ways that alter
    gene functioning.
108
Q

what is the criticism about the gene x environment (G X E) interaction

A
109
Q

what can happen if someone has the short version of the 5-HTTLPR (gene involving the neurotransmitter serotonin)?

A

develop depression only if they also lead stressful lives
- gene indirectly caused depression due to interacting with stressful environment (aka higher cortisol stress reactivity)

110
Q

what is another way that Gene x Environment (GXE) interact

A

epigenetic mechanisms involve molecular modification of DNA strand as a result of environment inputs in ways that alter gene functioning

111
Q

what is the heredity - environment correlation view

A
  • developmental influence has one direction
    - heredity influences environment
112
Q

what are epigenetic views

A

developmental influence is bidirectional
- heredity and environment influence each other

113
Q

what can be concluded about heredity-environment interaction

A

not additive

114
Q

what is another conclusion about heredity-environment interaction

A

complex behaviors are influences by genes and environments in a way that gives people a propensity for a particular development trajectory

115
Q

what is the germinal period in the course of prenatal development

A

occurs in the first 2 weeks after conception
- creation of the zygote
- continued cell division
- attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall

116
Q

what have other G X E research experiences focused on ?

A

attachment,
parenting,
supportive child-rearing environments

117
Q

what can the short version of 5-HTTLPR gene do to a person

A
  • e.g. unresolved attachment issues (b/c parent abandonment)
  • depression (high cortisol stress reactivity)
118
Q

what is blastocyst

A

inner layers of cells that develops into the embryo

119
Q

what is implantation

A

the embedding (implant/plant) of the blastocyst in the uterine wall
- takes place during the second week after conception

120
Q

what is trophoblast

A

outer layer of cells that provides nutrition and support for the embryo

121
Q

when does the embryonic period in the course of prenatal development

A

occurs 2 to 8 weeks after conception

122
Q

what occurs 2 to 8 weeks after conception

A

rate of cell differentiation intensifies, and mass of cells is now called embryo

123
Q

what are the three layers of cells in the embryonic period

A

endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm, middle, and outer layers

124
Q

what happens during the embryo form

A

life-support systems for the embryo form and organs appear

125
Q

what is amnion

A

contains a clear fluid in which the developing embryo floats that occurs in the embryonic period
temperature + humidity controlled, + shockproof

126
Q

what cannot pass through the placental wall?

A

red blood cells
most bacteria,
maternal waste,
hormones,
drugs can pass to some degree

127
Q

from the mothers blood what is being pass to the embryo/ fetus?

A

very small molecules;
- oxygen
- water
- salt
- nutrients
from baby blood being passed back and forth
-carbon dioxide
- digestive waste

128
Q

what is the umbilical cord that forms during the embryonic period consisted of

A

two arteries and one vein and connects the baby to the placenta

129
Q

what is a placenta

A

disk shaped group of tissues in which small blood vessels from the mother and the fetus intertwine but do not join

130
Q

what is organogenesis

A

organ formation that takes place during the first 2 months of prenatal development
extremely vulnerable to environmental influences

131
Q

how long is the fetal period

A

7 month period between 2 months after conception and birth

132
Q

what are neurons in the brain during the course of prenatal development

A

nerve cells in the brain that handle information processing at the cellular level

133
Q

how many neurons are babies born with

A

20 to 100 billion neurons

134
Q

what is the first important phase of the brains development

A

neural tube

135
Q

what is spina bifida

A

incomplete development development of the spinal cord
- varying degree of paralysis of the lower limbs
(crutches, wheelchair, braces)

136
Q

what can put the fetus at risk of developing neural tube defects

A

-maternal diabetes
- obesity
-high level of maternal stress

137
Q

what is the neural tube

A

early formation of the nervous system
side note; failure of the neural tube to close may cause anencephaly and spina bifida

138
Q

what are some of the prenatal tests

A
  • ultrasound sonography
  • chorionic villus sampling
  • amniocentesis
  • maternal blood screening
  • fetal MRI, fetal sex determination (noninvasive prenatal diagnosis)
139
Q

what can help prevent a neural tube defect

A
  • B vitamin folic acid
140
Q

what is anencephaly?

A

when the head end of the neural tube fails to close
- highest regions of the brain fail to develop
- baby dies in womb

141
Q

what is the second important phase of the brains development

A

Neurogenesis

142
Q

what is neurogenesis

A

generation of new neurons

143
Q

what is neuronal migration

A

cells moving outward from their point of origin to their appropriate locations

144
Q

what is neural connectivity

A

neurons connect, continues postnatally

145
Q

how many trimesters are there in the prenatal development

A

three trimesters
1tri = first 3 months
2tri = middle 3 months
3tri = last 3 months

146
Q

what is the 1/3 section in the 1st trimester

A
  • 4 weeks
  • is less than 1/10 inch long
  • beginning development of spinal cord, nervous system, gastorintestinal system, heart, and lungs
  • amniotic sac envelops the preliminary tissues of entire body
  • is called a “zygote”
147
Q

what is 2/3 section in the 1st trimester

A

8 weeks
- just over an inch long
- face is forming with rudimentary eyes, ears, mouth, and tooth buds
- arms and legs are moving
- brain is forming
- fetal heartbeat is detectable with ultrasound
- is called an “embryo”

148
Q

what is 3/3 section of the 1st trimester

A

12 weeks
- is about 3 inches long and weighs about 1 ounce
- can move arms, legs, fingers, and toes
- fingerprint are present
- can smile smile, frown, suck, and swallow
- sex is distinguishable
- can urinate
- is called a “fetus”

149
Q

what is the 1/3 section of the 2nd trimester of the prenatal development

A

16 weeks
- is about 6 inches long and weighs about 4 to 7 ounces
- heartbeat is strong
- skin is think, transparent
- downy hair (lanugo) covers body
- fingernails and toenails are forming
- has coordinated movements is able to roll over in amniotic fluid

150
Q

what is the 2/3 section of the 2nd trimester of the prenatal development

A

20 weeks
- is about 12 inches long and weight close to 1 pound
- heartbeat is audible with ordinary stethoscope
- suck thumb
- hiccups
- hair, eyelashes, everybrows are present

151
Q

what is the 3/3 section of the 2 trimester of the prenatal development

A

24 weeks
- is about 14 inches long and weighs 1 to 1 1/2 pounds
- skin is wrinkled and covered with protective coating (vernix cases)
- eyes are open
- waste matter is collect in bowel
- has strong grip

152
Q

what is the 1/3 section of the 3rd trimester of prenatal development

A

28 weeks
- is about 16 inches long and weighs about 3 pounds
- is adding body fat
- is very active
- rudimentary breathing movements are present

153
Q

what is 2/3 section of the 3rd trimester of prenatal development

A

32 weeks
- is 16 1/2 to 18 inches long and weighs 4 to 5 pounds
- has periods of sleep and wakefulness
- respond to sounds
- may assume the birth position
- bones of head are soft and flexible
- iron is stored in liver

154
Q

what is the 3/3 sections of the 3rd trimester of prenatal development

A

36 to 38 weeks
- is 19 to 20 inches long and weighs 6 to 7 1/2 pounds
- skin is less wrinkled
- vernix caseosa is thick
- lanugo is mostly gone
- is less active
- is gaining immunities from mother

155
Q

what are prenatal diagnostic tests

A
  • ultra sound sonography
  • chorionic villus sampling
  • amniocentesis
  • maternal blood screening
  • fetal sex determination
156
Q

what is infertility

A

inability to conceive a child after 12 months of regular intercourse without contraception

157
Q
A
158
Q

what is In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)

A

eggs and sperm are combined in a laboratory dish by experts

159
Q

what can be done with zygote or fertilized egg

A

can be transferred into the woman’s uterus

160
Q

can multiple zygotes be transferred in to a woman’s uterus (IVF)?

A

multiple zygotes are often transferred but can increase health risks

161
Q

is IVF always successful

A

IVF success rate depends on the mother’s age and other factors (older it decreases)

162
Q

what is adoption

A

social and legal process that establishes parent-child relationship between persons unrelated at birth
(increased diversity of adopted children and adoptive parents) (types of adoption include domestic public welfare system, private domestic, and international private)

163
Q

who is more likely to have a positive outcome when adopted?

A

children who are adopted at a very early age

164
Q

are adopted children better than other groups?

A

adopted children fare much better than children raised in long-term foster care

165
Q

what is teratogen?

A

any agent that can cause a birth defect or negatively alter cognitive and behavorial developmental outcomes

166
Q

what is teratology

A

study of the cause of birth defects

167
Q

what does teratogen (negative/birth defects) depend on

A

damage and severity depend on
- dose
- genetic susceptibility
- time of exposure

168
Q

what negative effects of exposure during the fetal period do?

A
  • stunt growth
  • fetal brain development problems
  • organ functioning problems
169
Q

what antibiotics are harmful during prenatal development

A

streptomycin and tetracycline

170
Q

can prescription drugs function as teratogens (birth defect causers)?

A

yes, prescription drugs can

171
Q

what negative/birth defects can anti depressants cause

A

miscarriage, preterm birth, autism spectrum disorders

172
Q

what hormones are bad to prenatal development

A

progestin and synthetic estrogen

173
Q

what is accutane

A

acne medication; and is hazards to prenatal development (teratology)

174
Q

what oral contraceptive is harmful during prenatal development (teratology)

A

isotretinoin

175
Q

are diet pills harmful during prenatal development

A

yes they are hazards during prenatal development and teratologies even though they are nonprescription

176
Q

is aspirin in high does harmful during prenatal development?

A

yes it is even though it is non prescription

177
Q

what do psychoactive drugs do?

A
  • act on the nervous system
  • alter states of consciousness,
  • modify perceptions
  • changing moods
178
Q

caffeine, methamphetamine, cocaine, marijuana, and heroin, alcohol, and nicotine are

A

psychoactive drugs that are hazards to prenatal development

179
Q

what does marijuana lead to during the prenatal development?

A
  • low birth weight
  • greater chances of being in NICU neonatal intensive care unit
180
Q

what does heroin lead to during the prenatal period

A

withdrawal
behavioral problems

181
Q

what does alcohol lead to during the prenatal period

A

Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD) when mothers heavily drink alcohol during preganancy

182
Q

what can fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) be characterized?

A
  • by learning and behavioral problems
  • associated with early death from suicide, accidents, alcohol poisoning, or drugs
183
Q

what does nicotine consumption do during the prenatal developnet

A

low birth weight,
ADHD,
impaired newborn brain development,
offspring smoking

184
Q

what does having incompatible blood type mean that makes a hazard to prenatal development?

A

incompatibility between the mother’s and father’s blood types poses risk to prenatal development

185
Q

what are environmental hazards that is a hazard to prenatal development

A

radiation
toxic wastes
other chemical pollutants

186
Q

what are some maternal diseases that is a hazard to prenatal development

A
  • rubella and syphilis
  • genitial herpes and HIV/AIDS
  • diabetes
187
Q

what part of a maternal diet and nutrition makes it a hazard to prenatal development

A

lack of folic acid and consuming mercury-laden fish

188
Q

what is a hazard to prenatal development

A

(three M’s);
- maternal diet and nutrition
- maternal obesity
- maternal age
&
- emotional states
- paternal factors

189
Q

what are emotional states that make a hazard during prenatal development

A
  • stress
  • depression
  • fear
  • anxiety leading to unhealthy behaviors
190
Q

what makes paternal factors a hazard to prenatal development

A
  • sperm abnormalities from lead
  • radiation exposure may lead to miscarriage or diseases
  • smoking during the mother’s pregnancy
191
Q

what is prenatal care

A

screening for manageable conditions and treatable disease

192
Q

what are some programs for prenatal care

A
  • educational
  • social
  • nutritional services
193
Q

what does exercise during prenatal care do

A
  • regulate blood pressure and reduce risk of hypertension
  • conditions the body, controls weight gain, regulates bowels
  • yoga reduces stress, enhances immune system functioning
  • is associated with a more positive mental state, higher vaginal birth rate, reduced Cesarean deliveries
  • advances development of neonatal brain
194
Q

what is centering pregnancy

A

relationship-centered program providing complete prenatal care in a group setting or group prenatal care

195
Q

what type of meetings do the parents attend at second trimester

A

long 10-member peer meetings instead of brief physician checkups for support

196
Q

what are the 1/3 stages of birth process

A

first stage:
uterine contractions are 15 to 20 minutes apart and last up to 1 minute
longest stage was recorded 6 to 12 hours

197
Q

what is the 2/3 stage of the birth process

A

second stage:
begins when the baby’s head starts to move through the cervix and birth canal (45 minutes to 1 hour)
ends when baby is completely out

198
Q

what is the 3/3 stage of the birth process?

A

third stage:
afterbirth: when the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are detached and expelled, lasting minutes

199
Q

how many births take place in the hospital (US)

A

98.5%

200
Q

how many percentage give birth outside of hospital

A

1.5 percent
- 63% are at home
- 31% are at birthing centers

201
Q

what is doula

A

a caregiver who provides continuous, physical, emotional, and educational support for the mother before, during, and after childbirth

202
Q

what are methods of childbirth?

A

natural childbirth
prepared childbirth
cesarean delivery

203
Q

what medications are used in childbirth?

A

analgesia, anesthesia, and oxytocin
(pain relievers)

204
Q

what is natural childbirth in birth process?

A

it reduces mother’s pain by decreasing her fear through
- education about childbirth
- relaxation techniques during delivery

205
Q

what is prepared childbirth during the birthprocess

A

lamaze method;
- breathing technique to control pushing in the final stages of labor
- provides detailed anatomy and physiology course

206
Q

what is cesarean delivery in birth process

A

surgically removing the baby from the mother’s uterus through an abdominal incision
- breech position baby, fetal distress, maternal vaginal bleeding, natural birth hindered by epidural
- debate over benefits vs risk, respiratory complication, rate in United States is higher

207
Q

what is the Apgar scale

A

used to assess the health of newborns at 1 and 5 minutes after birth

208
Q

what is evaluated when assessing the newborn

A
  • infants heart rate
  • respiratory effort
  • muscle tone
  • body color
  • reflex irritability
209
Q

what is Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS)

A

a way to assess the newborn. used in the first month of life to assess the newborn’s neurological development, reflexes, and reactions to people and objects

210
Q

Neonatal Intensive Care unit Neurobehavioral scale (NNNS)

A

assessment of the newborns behavior, neurological and stress responses, and regulatory capacities

211
Q

what is low birth weight infants:

A

weighs less than 5 1/2 pounds at birth

212
Q

what is very low birth weight in an infant

A

3 1/2

213
Q

what is extremely low birth weight in an infant

A

2 lbs

214
Q

what are preterm infants

A

born before the completion of 37 weeks of gestation

215
Q

what is small for date or gestational infants?

A

infants’ birth weights are below normal considering the length of pregnancy
maybe full term or preterm

216
Q

preterm birth and low birth weight consequences

A

more health and cognitive developmental problems than normal birth weight infants

217
Q

how to nurture low birth weight and preterm infants

A
  • kangaroo care
  • massage therapy
218
Q

what is kangaroo care

A

involves skin to skin contact
- long term benefits
e.g. better respiratory and cardiovascular functioning, sleep patterns, and cognitive functioning from ages 6 months to 10 years
- positive emotional and cognitive effects present after 20 years
e.g. emerging adults had social skills, and reduced school absenteeism, hyperactivity, and aggressivenesswha

219
Q

what does massage therapy do when nurturing low birth weight and preterm infants

A

increases infant weight, reduced stress, and reduced hospital stay

220
Q

what is rooming-in arrangement

A

baby remains in the mother’s room most most of the time during its hospital stay

221
Q

what is postpartum depression

A

involves a major depressive episode that typically occurs 4 weeks after delivery

222
Q

what adjustments are made during the postpartum period

A

emotional and psychological adjustments

223
Q

what is the postpartum period

A

period after childbirth that lasts until the mother’s body has completed its adjustment and has returned to a nearly pre pregnant state

224
Q

what adjustments are needed during postpartum period

A

physical, emotional, and psychological

225
Q

what are physical adjustments in the post partum period

A

fatigue;
loss of sleep = stress, marital conflict, impaired decision making
hormonal changes = estrogen and progesterone levels drop steeply when placenta is delivered and remain low until the ovaries start producing hormones again

226
Q

what are emotional and psychological defects in the postpartum period

A
  • postpartum depression
  • difficulty coping with daily tasks (peak 3 to 5 days after giving birth and come and go for several months)
  • subdue even without treatment usually within 1 to 2 weeks
  • risk of; depression anxiety during pregnancy, low self esteem, postpartum blues, poor marital relationship, lack of social support, history of depression
  • long term impact on Childs emotions and behaviors
  • spouse or partner experiencing depression also affects infants
    -both parents experiencing depression negatively impacts infant bonding
227
Q

how many woman have postpartum blues (symptoms 2 to 3 days after delivery)

A

70%

228
Q

how many woman have postpartum depression (symptom linger for weeks or months and interfere with daily functioning)

A

10%

229
Q

how many woman have no symptoms after giving birth

A

20%

230
Q

what does maternal blood screening look for

A

16th to 18th weeks
identifies risks for birth defects such as;
- spina bifida
- Down syndrome
(triple screen; measures three substances in the mother’s blood)

231
Q

what is the earliest for a baby sex to be determined

A

7 weeks into pregnancy

232
Q

what is the reason for infertility in a woman

A
  • woman may not be ovulating (releasing eggs to be fertilized)
  • producing abnormal ova + fallopian blocked tubes
  • condition
233
Q

what is the cause of infertility in a man

A
  • produce too few sperm,
  • sperm may lack motility (move adequately)
  • blocked passageway
234
Q

how can infertility be helped

A
  • surgery
    -hormone base drugs
235
Q

what are noninvasive techqnies

A

cell free DNA
- analysis in blood plasma for sex of fetus

236
Q

can the stress hormone cortisol pass the placenta

A

yes

237
Q

what is amniocentesis

A

15th and 18th week later the better in pregnancy
- sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn by syringe and tested for chromosomal or metabolic disorders

238
Q

what is ultrasound sonography

A

often 7 weeks into/later in pregnancy;
- high frequency sound waves directed into the pregnant woman’s abdomen
(echo from sound transformed to see fetus inner structure)

239
Q

what can an ultrasound sonography detect

A
  • microcephaly (abnormally small brain = intellectual disability)
  • number of fetuses
  • clue to baby sex
240
Q

what is fetal MRI

A

Magnetic resonance imaging
(powerful magnet and radio images to generate detailed images of the body’s organs and structures)

241
Q

what fetal abnormalities can fetal MRI detect

A
  • central nervous system
  • chest
  • gastrointestinal tract
  • genital/urinary organs
  • organs
  • placenta

nurs (6 decks)

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