Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

what type of murmur is aortic regurgitation

A

early diastolic

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2
Q

what type of murmur is aortic stenosis

A

ejection systolic

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3
Q

what type of murmur is mitral regurgitation

A

pan systolic

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4
Q

what type of murmur is mitral stenosis

A

mid diastolic

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5
Q

most common cause of mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic fever

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6
Q

acute management of Atrial Fibrillation

A

immediate DC cardioversion

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7
Q

management of paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation

A

dont require long term anti-arrythmic therapy
flecainide (pill in pocket)

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8
Q

electrical cardioversion

A

done in A fib.
patient needs to be anti coagulated (DOaC e.g. edoxaban)
or transesophageal echo to check for thrombus

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9
Q

pharmacological cardioversion

A

flecainide or amiodarone
still needs anticoagulation

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10
Q

treatments for persistent/permanent a fib

A

verapamil
carvedilol
digoxin

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11
Q

aortic dissection presentation and classification

A

tearing chest pain
Stanford type A = ascending aorta
type B = descending aortia

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12
Q

investigation + management of aortic dissection

A

CT aortogram/angiogram = diagnosis
ECG / echo to investigate

Type A = surgical (valve graft)
Type B = medical (labetalol to control arterial BP)

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13
Q

indications of amiodarone

A

arrhythmias, only used as last resort

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14
Q

what is brugada syndrome, affected population, Mx

A

inherited arrhythmia
causes sudden death in east asian males with structurally normal hearts

Implantable Cardioverter - Defibrillator

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15
Q

ECG for brugada syndrome

A

cove shaped ST segment with negative T wave

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16
Q

how to diagnose brugada syndrome

A

ECG (cove shaped ST segment with negative T wave)
+ family history / V fib / syncope

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17
Q

pathophysiology of Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome

A

accessory pathway opens between SA node and AV node, ventricles contract too early (accessory pathway doesn’t account for the normal delay)
supraventricular tachycardia

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18
Q

ECG findings for WPW

A

delta wave (slurred upstroke of the QRS)

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19
Q

Mx for stable and unstable patients with WPW

A

stable: vagal manoeuvres/meds (amiodarone)
unstable: immediate DC cardio version

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20
Q

definitive treatment for WPW

A

radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway

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21
Q

Wellen syndrome ECG

A

biphasic/negative T wave in leads V2 + V3

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22
Q

cause of wellen syndrome

A

stenosis of LAD, major risk for MI

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23
Q

meds for heart failure

A

ABAL
ACEi , beta blocker, aldosterone antagonist, loop diuretic

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23
Q

meds for heart failure

A

ABAL
ACEi , beta blocker, aldosterone antagonist, loop diuretic

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24
irregular R R interval
a fib
25
what is cardiac resynchronisation therapy (CRT) used for
connects to the ventricles, allows them to contract properly. used in severe heart failure
26
what is cardioversion used for
reset to sinus rhythm
27
what is a permanent pacemaker used for
takes over entire electrical conduction
28
broad complex is defined as?
>120ms
29
presentation of aortic stenosis
pulmonary edema low volume pulse low pulse pressure slow rising carotid pulse ejection systolic murmur and 4th heart sound forceful apex beat unheard A2 (aortic closure sound)
30
indications for embolectomy vs thrombolysis
embolectomy: remove an embolus (a blood clot originating from elsewhere and moving to this location) thrombolysis: break down a clot that has formed there
31
non specific symptoms e.g. cough, fatigue, weight loss, hoarseness, night sweats dockyard worker
malignant pleural mesotheliomaM
32
Mx of a Malignant pleural mesothelioma
combination therapy (chemo + radio)
33
management of peripheral arterial disease
1. 12 week exercise program 2. Stenting and angioplasty 3. Bypass surgery 4. Naftidrofuryl oxalate
34
Mx of acute arterial embolus
fogarty embolectomy
35
initial Mx of hyponatremia
fluid restriction
36
diagnosis of renal artery stenosis
MRI with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
37
how does cardiac contraction occur
increase CAMP activates protein kinase A which stimulates calcium release this acts on Calcium sensitive calcium channels to release even more calcium binds to Troponin C exposes the actin binding site actin binds to myosin CONTRACTION
38
cardiac output equation
heart rate x stroke volume
39
what is preload
degree of stretch applied to the cardiac muscle during filling (end of diastole and before systole)
40
what is afterload
force against which the heart has to overcome to contract
41
what are the two waveforms on JVP and what do they indicate?
A wave - R atrial contraction V wave = R atrial venous filling
42
what heart failure drugs improve morbidity and mortality
ACE inhibitors and beta blockers
43
what heart failure drugs improve mortality only
mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (spironolactone) ivabradine hydralazine + nitrate
44
causes of constrictive pericarditis
TB mediastinal irradiation cardiac surgery
45
signs of constrictive pericarditis
pericardial knock in early diastole (ventricle cannot fill effectively) kussmauls sign (paradoxical rise in JVP upon inspiration)
46
what criteria is used to diagnose rheumatic fever
Jones major and minor evidence of strep A infection in past week AND 2 major OR 1 major 2 minor
47
major jones criteria
JONES polyarthritis carditis subcut nodules erythema migratum sydenham chorea
48
minor jones criteria
CRPPPF raised CRP Previous rheumatic fever polyarthralgia fever >38
49
Mx of acute rheumatic fever
bed rest 1mg benzyl penicillin or 10 days PO phenoxymethylpencillin high dose aspirin ACEIs and corticosteroids for caridtis
50
complications of acute rheumatic fever
mitral stenosis infective endocarditis
51
where is best to hear mitral stenosis
apex beat
52
hypokalaemia ECG changes
small T waves ST depression U waves
53
hyperkalemia ECG changes
tall tented T waves broad QRS absent P waves
54
hyperkalemia management
30ml of 10% calcium gluconate
55
mitral valve prolapse findings (x2)
mid systolic click late systolic murmur
56
mitral stenosis findings (x1)
mid diastolic murmur over apex
57
what coronary artery commonly causes inferior MI
right coronary artery
58
what coronary artery commonly causes anteroseptal MI (what leads)
left anterior descending V1-4
59
what vein is the best to measure JVP and why
right internal jugular vein it has a straight continuation with the brachiocephalic and SVC
60
AVNRT + management
AV nodal reentrant tachycardia Impulse re-enters the AV node Mx: 1) vagal maneuvres 2) 6mg adenosine 3) 12 mg adenosine 4) 12mg adenosine
61
clinic and ABPM target for >80
clinic 150/90 ABPM 145/85
62
clinic and ABPM target for <80
clinic 140/90 ABPM 135/85
63
indications for Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
everyone in clinic with BP >140/90
64
nitrates are contraindicated in
aortic stenosis
65
when is digoxin used in AF Mx
when they do little exercise / bed bound
66
what meds are used for rate control
beta blocker verapamil diltiazem digoxin
67
when is rate control indicated
fast ventricular rate
68
when is rhythm control indicated
reversible cause of AF heart failure acute AF
69
>48 since AF onset what to do, what is preferred
anticoagulation for 3 weeks electrical cardioversion preferred
70
<48 hrs since AF onset what to do, what is preferred
pharmacological cardioversion is preferred amiodarone, flecainide
71
when is flecainide contraindicated and what is used instead
structural heart disease amiodarone used instead
72
aortic dissection urgent management
limited fluid resus(permissive hypotension) CT scan refer to cardiothoracic surgeon
73
indications for CABG
more than 50% narrowing plus: left ventricular dysfunction triple vessel disease angina persisting despite all steps of medical management left main stem narrowing diabetics
74
what are all the steps of medical management for angina
lifestyle changes sublingual GTN to use for attacks 1. beta blocker 2. Add a dihydropyridine CCB e.g. amlodipine 3. long acting nitrate (isosorbide nitrate) / ivabradine **aspirin and statin for prevention
75
symptoms of DVT and right side weakness what is it Ix
venous thrombosis becoming an arterial embolus due to patient foramen ovale or ASD Ix: transoesophageal echo
76
6 absolute contraindications to thrombolysis
active internal bleeding or uncontrollable external bleeding suspected aortic dissection recent head trauma (< 2 weeks) intracranial neoplasms history of proven haemorrhagic stroke or cerebral infarction < 2 months earlier uncontrolled high blood pressure (> 200/120 mmHg).
77
6 relative contraindications to thrombolysis
pregnancy peptic ulcer INR >1.8 prolonged CPR bleeding disorders recent surgery
78
8 reversible causes of cardiac arrest
4Hs: hyper/hypokalaemia, hypothermia, hypoxia, hypovolemia 4Ts: thrombosis, tamponade, tension pneumo, toxins
79
why is adrenaline used in cardiac arrest
it causes systemic vasoconstriction (alpha effect) increased cerebral and coronary perfusion pressure
80
5 waveforms on the central venous pressure graph and what they show
a: atrial contraction c: tricuspid closes x: ventricular contraction v: atrial filling y: tricuspid opening
81
regularly spaced QRS complexes no P waves tachycardic
atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia
82
how to check for PFO or ASD in adults
bubble echocardiography
83
some causes of acquired hyperlipidaemia
hypothyroidism hypopituitarism pregnancy sedentary lifestyle
84
familial hyperchylomicronaemia Ix and bloods
Apo C II deficiency very high VLDL and chylomicrons
85
familial hypercholesterolaemia Ix inheritance bloods who to suspect in
reduced LDL receptors Apo B 100 deficiency autosomal dominant high LDL young IHD, strong family history
86
familial combined hyperlipidaemia blood results x 2 assoc
no known gene high VLDL high Apolipoprotein B assoc w metabolic syndrome
87
familial dysbetalipoproteinaemia defect bloods
defect in Apo E high VLDL and chylomicrons
88
familial hypertriglyceridaemia assoc bloods
assoc with pancreatitis high VLDL chylomicrons
89
moa statin
HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor
90
side effects statin
myositis myalgia hepatitis
91
score for clotting in a fib
Stroke prevention: calc CHADSVASC. Cong HF; HTN; Age>75 (2px) ; Diabetics mell ; Stroke prev (2px) ; Vascular disease ; Age 65-74 (1px) ; Sex (female)
92
widespread ST elevation..
pericarditis
93
stable vs unstable angina
unstable is part of ACS. chest pain at rest or minimal exertion, getting worse and worse (less distance walked precipitates chest pain) Stable: chest pain is predictable, after exertion Both: No trop rise or ST elevation
94
what is curative in atrial flutter
cardio version is more useful that medication radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid isthmus is curative for most patients
95
which cardiac enzyme is the first to rise after MI
myoglobin
96
which cardiac enzyme can be used to see if there is a re-infarction
CK-MB
97
what is electrical alternans and what does it suggest
alternate beat variation in the QRS complex assoc with cardiac tamponade/pericardial effusion
98
pulsus paradoxus and what does it suggest
massive drop in BP during inspiration cardiac tamponade, COPD
99
echo findings in HOCM
Mitral regurg, systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the anterior mitral valve asymmetric septal hypertrophy
100
pathophis of HOCM
autosomal dominant defect in gene encoding beta-myosin heavy chain
101
4 causes of dilated cardiomyopathy
wet beri beri (thiamine B1 deficiency) alcohol coxsackie B virus doxorubicin
102
2 causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy
radiation amyloidosis
103
infective endocarditis classification system
Duke
104
loud s1 opening snap is what ....
mitral stenosis
105
cardiac arrest: VF and pulseless VT management in a coronary care uni with cardiac monitoring
shock shock shock amiodarone + adrenaline
106
what are the shockable and non shockable rhythms
shockable: V fib and pulseless v tach non-shockable: asystole and pulseless electrical activity
107
torsades des pointes can turn into what what symptom shows this
ventricular fibrillation syncope
108
ideal dose of adrenaline in shockable rhythm
1mg
109
rSR' pattern in V1-3 ('M' shaped QRS complex)
right bundle branch block
110
right bundle branch block and left axis deviation
bifascicular block
111
inheritance pattern of HOCM
autosomal dominant
112
infective endocarditis, indication for emergency valve replacement surgery
heart failure
113
what anti emetic makes clopidogrel less effective
omeprazole
114
corrigans pulse
collapsing pulse - Aortic regurg
115
quinckes sign
nailbed pulsation - aortic regurt
116
narrow pulse pressure
aortic stenosis
117
aortic stenosis cause in <65 years old and >65 yearss
>65 = calcification <65 = bicuspid aortic valve
118
Mx of bradycardia 3 steps
1. atropine 2. transcutaneous pacing 3. transvenous pacing
119
what is seen on CXR in aortic dissection
widened mediastinum
120
5 steps to manage HOCM
1. beta blockers 2. amiodaron 3. ICD 4. dual chamber pacemaker 5. endocarditis prophylaxis
121
staph aureus
IE in IVDU
122
staph epidermis
IE in prosthetic valve
123
strep viridans
IE in developing countries or after dental procedure
124
tall R waves V1-2
posterior MI
125
finding of aortic dissection on CT angiogram
false lumen
126
best method of access for PCI
radial artery
127
pulmonary stenosis murmur + inspiration/expiration
ejection systolic murmur louder on inspiration
128
v fib and v tach Mx in an unmonitored area
1 shock
129
what murmur is common in rheumatic fever
mistral regurg aortic regurg
130
what anticoagulant is recommended for patients undergoing PCI
unfractionated heparin
131
what to do before choosing whether to anticoagulant an AF patient
do CHADSVAS score. if > 2 give DOAC