Bootcamp Q's, continued!

Question 1

T/F?

Plant cells contain a cell wall, but not a cell membrane.

What organelle takes up the most space within a plant cell?

Answer 1

FALSE - plant cells contain both

in a plant cell, the vacuole takes up the most space

Question 2

When steroid hormones are being transported in the blood, they must be bound to ______ _____.

When bound, they are ______ to be used as hormones and must ______ from being bound before being used

Answer 2

protein carriers, unavailable, dissociate

Question 3

Which allow a cell to adhere to an extracellular matrix?

a) plasmodesmata
b) focal adhesions and hemidesmosomes
c) gap junctions
d) tight junctions

Answer 3

B

Question 4

During the lysogenic cycle, viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA and will remain as a ______ in a dormant state.

T/F? When a virus infects a cell, both the viral genetic material and capsid will enter the cell for replication

T/F?

Viruses do contain DNA and can either be RNA or DNA

Answer 4

provirus/prophage

FALSE - When a virus infects a cell, the viral genetic material must enter the cell so that it may be replicated for the assembly of new viruses. The capsid may or may not enter depending on the type of virus.

TRUE

Question 5

Bacterial Gene Cloning

Answer 5

bacterial genetic cloning -

a piece of DNA with a certain desired gene (or genes) is introduced to a sample of competent bacteria (bacteria that can take up DNA from their environment via transformation). The bacteria and the recombinant DNA within it can then be reproduced to replicate the DNA.

Question 6

Colchicine is a drug used for the treatment of gout. Its mechanism of action inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to tubulin. Consuming this drug before or during pregnancy would most likely have an adverse effect on all of the following cellular activities EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Embryonic cell cleavage

B. Mitotic spindle formation

C. Egg transportation into the fallopian tube

D. Cleavage furrow formation

E. Fertilization

Answer 6

D

Microtubules may be required at the structural level of a cell (as in sperm or fimbriae), or in intracellular processes (mitotic spindle formation and cell division).

Below, only cleavage furrow formation – which uses microfilaments rather than microtubules – would not by affected by inhibition of microtubules.

Question 7

The _____ will produce GnRH, which is a tropic hormone that will cause the release of what two hormones from the anterior pituitary gland?

Define tropic hormones.

Answer 7

hypothalamus, FSH and LH

Tropic hormones are hormones that are released from one endocrine gland and target another endocrine gland. A tropic hormone causes another endocrine gland to release hormones.

Question 8

What structure will produce progesterone and estrogen after ovulation?

What is maintaining these two hormones?

Answer 8

corpus luteum

FSH and LH

Question 9

What type of cells will produce antibodies?

Which are responsible for recognition of allergens (via IgE) and response?

Which are responsible for the rapid response to previously encountered antigens?

Which is responsible for the membrane attack complex?

Answer 9

Plasma cells

Mast cells

Memory B cells and Memory T cells

The complement system

Question 10

Heparin

Answer 10

Histamine causes vasodilation, and heparin helps to prevent clots from forming—both of which promote more blood entry; associated with basophils/mast cells

Question 11

Which of the following situations will result in the firing of an action potential? Assume the resting membrane potential = -70mV and the threshold potential = -55mV.

A. Summation of graded potentials equals -50mV at the synaptic cleft

B. Summation of graded potentials equals -50mV at the axon hillock

C. Summation of graded potentials equals -60mV at the synaptic cleft

D. Summation of graded potentials equals -60mV at the axon hillock

E. Summation of graded potentials equals -75mV at the axon terminal

Answer 11

B

Question 12

If the summation is ______ than the threshold potential, an action potential (will/will not) occur and head towards the axon terminal

Answer 12

If the summation is higher (less negative) than the threshold potential, an action potential will fire down the axon (headed towards the axon terminal).

Question 13

A patient is taking an experimental drug that is known to have a side effect of suppressing the AV node’s function. Which of the following would one expect to observe in this patient as a direct result of this side effect?

A. Simultaneous contraction of the atria and ventricles

B. Backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria

C. Disrupted heart rate from impaired pacemaker function

D. Inability to stimulate contraction in the left and right atria

E. Increased electrical impulse through the bundle of His

Answer 13

A

Question 14

Function of the AV node

Answer 14

adds a brief delay in between the atria contracting and the contraction of the ventricles.

Question 15

The peripheral chemoreceptors located in the carotid bodies (and aortic arch) monitor blood levels of which of the following?

a) CO2
b) HCO3-
c) O2
d) H+
e) a, c, and d
f) a and b

Answer 15

. The peripheral chemoreceptors located in the carotid bodies (and aortic arch) monitor blood levels of [CO2], [O2], and [H+].

(E)

Question 16

What are the pre and postganglionic neurotransmitters for the SNS?

Answer 16

preganglionic - acetylcholine

postganglionic - epinephrine and norepinephrine

Question 17

Linked genes have a (lower/higher) chance of being inherited together and a (lower/higher) chance for recombination

Answer 17

inherited together = higher chance

recombination = lower chance

Question 18

All of the following are typically true with regards to bacterial genetic material EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Bacteria usually have a single, circular chromosome

B. Bacteria are able to perform transcription and translation simultaneously

C. Bacterial DNA does not contain introns

D. Bacterial mRNA is translated by a smaller ribosome than the ribosome used by eukaryotes

E. Bacterial chromatin is located within the nucleoid region of the cell

Answer 18

E

Bacteria lack a nucleus and their genetic material is located in the nucleoid region, but prokaryotic DNA (which includes bacteria and archaea) is not organized into chromatin.

Chromatin organization of DNA is specific to eukaryotic cells.

Question 19

Which of the following plant categories is correctly matched with its characteristics?

A. Bryophytes: non-vascular; sporophyte dominant generation; spore dispersal

B. Angiosperms: vascular; sporophyte dominant generation; seed dispersal

C. Gymnosperms: vascular; gametophyte dominant generation; seed dispersal

D. Monocots: one cotyledon, scattered vascular tissue, taproot present

E. Dicots: two cotyledons, netlike veins, no taproot present

Answer 19

B

Question 20

Describe the veins for monocots and dictos.

How are their floral organs organized?

Identify which has a taproot (main root)

Answer 20

Monocots - parallel veins, foral organs in multiples of 3, NO TAP ROOT

Dicots- netlike veins, vascular tissue arranged in a ring, and their floral organs are usually in multiples of four or five, TAP ROOT

Question 21

All of the following answer choices correctly match an organism with its excretory system EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Jellyfish – nephridia

B. Algae – contractile vacuole

C. Flatworm – flame cell

D. Starfish - simple diffusion

E. Grasshopper – Malpighian tubules

Answer 21

A

This is a false statement and therefore the answer choice is correct.

Mollusca and Annelida use nephridia (simple nephrons) to remove waste. Cnidarians (like jellyfish) do not have a specialized excretory system.

Question 22

T/F?

Fungi are photosynthetic organisms

Answer 22

FALSE - fungi are HETEROTROPHIC and CANNOT produce their own food!

Question 23

When does the cortical reaction occur?

A. During the completion of meiosis I

B. After ovulation triggers cortical granule release

C. After the sperm fuses with the egg

D. As the fertilized egg undergoes cleavage

E. As the embryo implants into the uterus

Answer 23

C

The slow block of polyspermy occurs gradually after the sperm has fused with the egg and is known as the cortical reaction.

Question 24

A researcher would like to learn more about the role of the notochord in development. Just before neurulation begins in a chimpanzee, the researcher inserts a sheath that encapsulates the notochord and prevents it from signaling with the rest of the body. Which developmental process would be most immediately interrupted by this experiment?

A. Folding of the neural plate to form the neural fold

B. Formation of the brain and spinal cord

C. Convergence of the neural folds to form the neural tube

D. Induction of the overlying ectoderm to form the neural plate

E. Formation of teeth from the neural crest cells

Answer 24

D

The notochord (mesodermal) stimulates a portion of the ectoderm to thicken, forming the neural plate.

The neural plate begins to fold in on itself. During the folding stage it is referred to as the neural fold, because of the creases formed (creases = folds).

The neural fold continues to fold in on itself until its edges touch, and it forms a complete tube. At this stage the structure is referred to as the neural tube.

The neural tube develops and differentiates to become the central nervous system.

Question 25

T/F? The notochord will develop into the central nervous system.

Which layer is the notochord derived from?

Answer 25

FALSE

The notochord is derived from the mesoderm. The notochord induces neurulation, the formation of the neural tube – but does not itself form the neural tube.

The neural tube will eventually form the central nervous system (brain, spinal cord), and the neural tube / nervous system are a product of the ectoderm.

Question 26

Define the term ‘releaser’ in reference to animal behavior

Answer 26

the simple, recognizable feature of a complex stimulus that stimulates a fixed action pattern.

An example of a releaser is the red belly of a male insect which simulates an attack by other male insects of the same species; this fixed action response can be elicited with an artificial red colored model, which replicates the simple, recognizable feature of the releaser.

Question 27

Differentiate between the intertidal zone and an estuary

Answer 27

The intertidal zone is the zone where the ocean meets land – it is above water at low tide and below water at high tide.

An estuary is where freshwater from a coast (via a river or stream) meets a saltwater ocean.

Question 28

If two species are competing for the same resources, which of the following is LEAST likely to result in the successful longevity of both species?

A. Convergent evolution

B. Habitat isolation

C. Character displacement

D. Resource partitioning

E. Temporal isolation

Answer 28

A

In convergent evolution two species are evolving to become more similar.

If two species are convergently evolving to be more similar, there would be even more competition for the same resources.

If two species are competing for the same resources they would need to divergently evolve (evolve to become less similar) or face extinction.

Question 29

Which of the scenarios best represents the actions of a bacterial facultative anaerobe in the presence of oxygen?

A. The cell undergoes substrate level phosphorylation to produce all of its ATP

B. The cell releases carbon during Krebs cycle as CO2 molecules

C. The cell generates ATP across its mitochondrial membrane

D. The cell regenerates NADH through fermentation

E. The cell will die in the presence of oxygen

Answer 29

B

Original answer - A - If oxygen is present, a facultative anaerobic will preferably use oxidative phosphorylation to produce most of its ATP.

Question 30

Differentiate between oxidative phosphorylation and substrate level phosphorylation

Answer 30

Substrate level phosphorylation - direct transfer of a phosphate group onto an adenosine diphosphate (ADP), to form ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

Oxidative phosphorylation relies on energy released by oxidation of electron NADH and FADH2 in the electron transport chain. A series of redox reactions will occur along the electron transport chain, and this oxidative energy will generate power for the ATP synthase to turn ADP into ATP.

Question 31

T/F? During elongation, amino acids are joined together via disulfide bonds

Answer 31

FALSE - they are joined by peptide bonds; disulfide bonds join cysteine residues together

Question 32

Which of the following is true of eukaryotic protein translation and its components?

A. The start sequence AUG codes for the amino acid threonine

B. Folding of the translated protein is determined strictly by chaperone proteins

C. During elongation, amino acids are joined together via disulfide bonds

D. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase requires ATP for its function

E. The stop codons UGA, UAA, and UAG code for the amino acid serine

Answer 32

D

Question 33

A researcher studying energy production in cells decides to focus on the cellular respiration process that produces pyruvate. When observing this process in human cells, where should the researcher look?

A. Intermembrane space

B. Cytoplasm

C. Mitochondrial matrix

D. Across the cellular membrane

E. Across the mitochondrial outer membrane

Answer 33

B

The question specifies that the process produces pyruvate, which is a product of glycolysis. To answer the question correctly, we only need to identify where glycolysis takes place in the eukaryotic cell, as humans are eukaryotes. While eukaryotes do have membrane bound organelles (including mitochondria), glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 34

Which of the following is a major intramolecular force seen in a protein only after tertiary conformation is completed, but before the quaternary structure begins to form?

A. Subunit bonding

B. Hydrogen bonding

C. Peptide bonding

D. Covalent bonding

E. Hydrophobic interactions

Answer 34

E

Covalent bonding makes up all the bonds in the primary structure. This includes the bonds between atoms within an amino acid, as well as the bonds from one amino acid to the next within the primary structure (peptide bonds).

Hydrophobic interactions are only found in tertiary structure but not secondary structure, making them visible only after tertiary confirmation is complete, but no sooner.

Question 35

What part of the inner ear is directly responsible for transducing a sound wave into a neuronal signal?

A. Tympanic membrane

B. Cochlea

C. Stapes

D. Semicircular canal

E. Oval window

Answer 35

B

The cochlea is the ‘snail shaped’ portion of the ear which is responsible for the signal transduction (converting one signal into another type of signal) of auditory waves into a signal to the brain.

Question 36

Differentiate between the functions of the ear

Semicircular canal

oval window

cochlea

ossicles

tympanic membrane

Answer 36

tympanic membrane - converts the pulsatile pressure sound waves that it receives from the outer ear into waves of mechanical pressure that it sends to the middle ear.

Cochlea - ‘snail shaped’ portion of the ear which is responsible for the signal transduction of auditory waves into a signal to the brain.

Ossicles - three bones of the middle ear, referred to as the ossicles. The ossicles transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.

Semicircular canal - fluid containing canals whicih give the brain information about motion.

Oval window - entrance for the sound waves to the cochlea.

Question 37

T/F? The axial skeleton consists of the skull, the spine, and the pelvic girdles

Answer 37

FALSE - axial skeleton consists of the skull, spine, and rib cage

Question 38

Differentiate between intramembranous and endochondral ossification

Answer 38

Intramembranous ossification is less common and is used for flat bones; bone is created directly within a fibrous membrane.

Endochondral ossification is more common and is used for the long bones ; first cartilage is laid down, and bone replaces this cartilage (indirect bone formation).

Question 39

Syncytium

Answer 39

a multinucleated cell that result from multiple uninuclear cells fusing together (such as skeletal muscle cells in animals).

Question 40

What is an example of nonfilamentous fungi?

Answer 40

yeast

Question 41

Embryonic mesoderm gives rise to which of the following, in humans?

A. The brain

B. The skeletal muscle

C. Epidermis

D. Lining of the stomach

E. Lining of the bladder

Answer 41

B

Ectoderm is your attracto-derm. This is how you attract partners, which might eventually lead to sexual intercourse. Things like your brain and nervous system (you gotta be smart!), your epidermis (outer layer of skin), nails and hair, your enamel (pearly whites!), your ability to get over your nervousness and ask the person out (lots of epinephrine and norepinephrine [adrenalin], produced by the adrenal medulla, and you hopefully aren’t sweating too much and can keep these sweat glands in check), those mammary glands, and your eyes and ears (the sensory parts of them!)

Mesoderm is your means-oderm. These derivatives are the means you require to have sex. Things like your skeleton, your different muscle types (gotta be able to move!), your blood system (need that blood pumping!), your gonads (obvious reasons!), your adrenal cortex – which can produce androgens (male sex hormones galore!). And spleen sounds like mean, from meansoderm.

And then End-oderm are your endernals (internals) with PLTT. The linings of the digestive, respiratory, and bladder systems, along with Pancreas, Liver, Thyroid + Parathyroid, Thymus (PLTT).