BLOCK 12: READINESS - Unit 3: Emergency Response Operations (complete) Flashcards

1
Q

Begins when the Incident Commander (IC) determines that there is a need for BE at the scene. Once the IC has requested BE on scene, BE will be requested through fire dispatch or the installation command post.

A

INITIAL NOTIFICATION

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2
Q

The BE member taking the phone call utilizes checklist ______________________________ to collect information that includes:

 Caller’s name / Rank / Phone number
 Type of incident/description
 Location of scene
 IC information
 Safe route from BE office to scene

A

GP 8: General Response Info and Procedures (GRIP)

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3
Q

Once BE has been notified of the response, checklist GP 8. Response Actions should be started. The first step on this checklist after initiating GP 7. General Response Info and Procedures (GRIP) is to initiate _______________ procedures for the BE office.

A

ACCOUNTABILITY/RECALL

“Accountability is important. Where did he go? - back to his dorm to eat rotisserie chicken?!”
– Sgt. Crawford

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4
Q

Once available manpower has been accounted for and recalled (if necessary), the BE Team Chief can start assigning __________ to personnel.

A

ROLES

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5
Q

Role assignment should be accomplished within _____ minutes of the initial notification.

A

15 MINUTES

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6
Q

This person will be in charge of the entire response, normally the highest ranking or most experienced.

A

TEAM CHIEF

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7
Q

Coordinates BE operations at the incident site. Collects situational and resource status from the Team Chief, evaluates it, and processes the information to develop action plans.

A

OPS CHIEF

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8
Q

Each entry team has a designated Team __________ who has overall responsibility for the team’s actions while making entry.

A

TEAM LEAD

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9
Q

Stores, inventories, and distributes BE equipment and supplies. Ensures operation checks and background readings are accomplished for all equipment. Ensures equipment is in a ready-to-use state when the entry team departs.

A

EQUIPMENT (ROLE)

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10
Q

Remains in the BE office and acts as reach back support for the Team Chief. Utilizes resources to support incident management activities. Performs research and draws on the expertise of other agencies and organizations.

A

BIO BASE

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11
Q

Collects, records, and safeguards all documents relevant to the incident. Maintains a timeline/log of events for later reference.

A

RECORDER

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12
Q

It is the goal of the Team Chief to make face-to-face contact with the _______________ as soon as possible once requested.

A

INCIDENT COMMANDER (IC)

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13
Q

Includes a checklist of the standard BE response equipment package. For an all-hazards approach, BE should respond will all types of equipment. This checklist can be used by the designated Equipment lead to ensure all necessary items are loaded for transport.

A

GP 9. Pre-Departure Checklist

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14
Q

For each team making entry into the hot zone, an _______________ must be created and approved by the Incident Commander (IC).

A

ENTRY PLAN

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15
Q

This is a short description of the scenario. Include what is known and unknown at the moment.

A

INCIDENT OVERVIEW

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16
Q

Diagram of the area being entered. Mark locations where team will be accomplishing tasks such as sampling locations and where to set up a tarp to work on.

A

ENTRY PLAN DIAGRAM

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17
Q

What are some comments that should be included on the Health Risk Assessment checklist?

A

PPE/control recommendations, risk rational, and the strategy for further sampling and analysis.

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18
Q

The last section of GP 8. Response Actions is ____________________, which covers the
following:

  • HOT WASH
  • AFTER ACTION REPORT (AAR)
  • RECONSTITUTE EQUIPMENT
  • DOCUMENT EXPOSURES
A

POST RESPONSE ACTIONS

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19
Q

A meeting to discuss how a response was executed. It is the chance for all members of the team to identify what went well, what did not go well, and what lessons the team can learn.

A

HOT WASH

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20
Q

Sometimes referred to as the Post-Incident/Exercise Summary (PIES), is a document that summarizes what occurred during a response. It covers the who, what, where, when, and why of a response.

A

AFTER ACTION REPORT (AAR)

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21
Q

This is the process of getting the equipment ready for the next response. All equipment that was taken to the scene needs to be returned to its proper place in the BE office.

A

RECONSTITUTE EQUIPMENT

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22
Q

An incident report should be created in DOEHRS if there are any exposures to document.

A

DOCUMENTING EXPOSURES

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23
Q

In general, hazards should be ruled out in this order:

A
  1. Radiological > 2. Chemical > 3. Biological
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24
Q

The Department of Transportation (DOT) categorizes radioactive material as a Class _____ hazardous material.

A

CLASS 7

Radioactive White- I: less than or equal to 0.5 mRem/hr
Radioactive Yellow-II: greater than 0.5 mRem/hr but less than or equal to 50 mRem/hr
Radioactive Yellow-III: Greater than 50 mRem/hr but less than or equal to 200mRem/hr

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25
Q

Any area, accessible to personnel, in which there exists radiation at such levels that a major portion of the body could receive in any one hour a dose exceeding 5 millirem, or in any five consecutive days a dose exceeding 100 millirem.

A

RADIATION AREA

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26
Q

Any area, accessible to personnel, in which there exists radiation at such levels, that a major portion of the body could receive in any one hour a dose in excess of 100 millirem.

A

HIGH RADIATION AREA

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27
Q

Any room, enclosure, or operating area in which airborne radioactive materials, composed wholly or partly of radioactive material, exist in concentrations in excess of the amounts specified in Column 1 of Table 1 of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20.

A

AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA

28
Q

Also known as a “dirty bomb,” is intended to disperse radioactive material into the environment.

A

RADIOLOGICAL DISPERSAL DEVICE (RDD)

29
Q

Simply a radioactive source that is hidden in a stationary location, for example under the seat on a bus.

A

RADIOLOGICAL EXPOSURE DEVICE (RED)

30
Q

The Incident Commander (IC) must accept the risk associated with these exposures; it is _____’s responsibility to ensure the IC and workers are aware of the risks.

A

BIOENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING (BE)

31
Q

Caused by a large dose of penetrating radiation in a very short amount of time.

A

ACUTE RADIATION SYNDROME (ARS)

32
Q

Any chemicals (manufactured, used, transported or stored) that can cause death or other harm through the toxic properties of those materials.

A

CHEMICAL HAZARDS

33
Q

The density of a vapor or gas in comparison to dry air.

A

VAPOR DENSITY

34
Q

Any atmosphere containing less than 19.5% oxygen.

A

OXYGEN DEFICIENT ATMOSPHERE

35
Q

The concentration of a gas or vapor in air below which a flame will not propagate when exposed to an ignition source.

A

LOWER EXPLOSIVE LIMIT (LEL)

36
Q

The concentration above which an individual can detect a vapor or gas using their sense of smell.

A

ODOR THRESHOLD

37
Q

An atmospheric condition that traps air, gases, and vapors near the surface and impedes their dispersion.

A

AIR INVERSION

Air inversions are more likely to happen in a valley and occur when the air near the ground becomes cooler than the air above it.

38
Q

A concentration that poses an immediate threat to life or causes irreversible or delayed adverse health effects.

A

IMMEDIATELY DANGEROUS TO LIFE / HEALTH

39
Q

Those chemical agents and precursors that are prohibited under the international Chemical Weapons Convention. This definition also encompasses munitions or delivery systems for prohibited substances.

A

CHEMICAL WEAPONS

40
Q

Substances developed for use in military operations to kill, injure, or incapacitate, mainly through physiological effects resulting from chemical exposure.

A

CHEMICAL AGENTS

Chemical agents are grouped into four types^

41
Q

Attack the nervous system and affect muscle control, vision, heart, and lung functions. They do this by disrupting the normal transmission of messages between nerves and their receiving organs.

A

NERVE AGENTS

42
Q

Drugs or other agents that produces blisters.

A

BLISTER AGENTS / VESICANTS

43
Q

Disrupt the oxygen-carrying properties of the blood.

A

BLOOD AGENTS

44
Q

Chemical agents that attack lung tissue and cause irritation and inflammation of the bronchial tubes and lungs, primarily causing pulmonary edema.

A

CHOKING (PULMONARY) AGENTS

45
Q

Generally used for law enforcement actions, but are prohibited under the Chemical Weapons Convention.

A

RIOT CONTROL AGENTS

46
Q

Chemicals that are manufactured for use in industrial operations or research.

A

TIC/TIMs

47
Q

Deliver, disperse, or disseminate a biological agent (including arthropod vectors).

A

BIOLOGICAL WEAPONS

48
Q

The most likely and effective way for terrorists to disseminate biological weapons is through _______________.

A

AEROSOLIZATION

49
Q

The time between exposure and the onset of symptoms during which a biological agent may be passed to other people.

A

INCUBATION PERIOD

50
Q

Disease-producing microorganisms (e.g., bacteria, viruses, fungi) that attack via biological processes.

A

PATHOGENS

51
Q

Poisonous substances derived from living organisms (but may also be produced synthetically).

A

TOXINS

52
Q

What are some factors that make biological agents a significant threat?

A
  • Small doses can produce lethal or incapacitating effects over an extensive area.
  • They are difficult to detect in a timely manner.
  • They are easy to conceal and can be covertly deployed.
  • The large variety of potential biological agents significantly complicates effective prophylactic and therapeutic treatments.
53
Q

The standardized BE Response Checklists include GP _______________ to assist in the communication of the HRA.

A

GP 11. HEALTH RISK ASSESSMENT (HRA)

54
Q

Level of PPE required when the greatest potential for exposure to hazards exists, and when the greatest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection is required.

A

LEVEL A PROTECTION

Examples of Level A clothing and equipment include:

 positive pressure, full face-piece self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) or positive pressure supplied air respirator with escape SCBA
 totally encapsulated chemical- and vapor-protective suit
 inner and outer chemical-resistant gloves
 Disposable protective suit, gloves, and boots

55
Q

Level of PPE required when the concentration and type of airborne substances is known and the criteria for using air purifying respirators are met.

A

LEVEL C PROTECTION

Typical Level C equipment includes:

 full-face air purifying respirators
 inner and outer chemical-resistant gloves
 hard hat
 escape mask
 disposable chemical-resistant outer boots.

56
Q

Level of PPE required under circumstances requiring the highest level of respiratory protection, with lesser level of skin protection.

A

LEVEL B PROTECTION

Examples of Level B protection include:

 positive pressure, full face-piece self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) or positive pressure supplied air respirator with escape SCBA
 inner and outer chemical-resistant gloves
 face shield
 hooded chemical resistant clothing
 coveralls
 Outer chemical-resistant boots.

57
Q

The minimum level of PPE protection required.

A

LEVEL D PROTECTION

Level D protective equipment may include:

 gloves
 coveralls
 safety glasses
 face shield
 Chemical-resistant, steel-toe boots or shoes.

58
Q

The main reason to decontaminate sampling equipment after every sampling event is to prevent _______________.

A

CROSS-CONTAMINATION

59
Q

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and State environmental laws require proper decontamination of equipment as a part of QA/QC implementation to reduce the risk of crosscontamination and _______________

A

DATA INVALIDATION

60
Q

What is the purpose of the 10% nitric acid rinse during CBRN sampling equipment decontamination?

A

The acid rinse provides a low pH media for the removal of trace metals.

61
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

During equipment decontamination, the equipment must be dried with a proper drying cloth.

A

FALSE

Air drying allows the solvent to evaporate completely without introducing particulates from a drying cloth.

62
Q

What level of PPE should be considered when the hazard is unknown?

A

LEVEL A PROTECTION

63
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Proper decontamination of equipment as a part of QA/QC implementation to reduce the risk of crosscontamination and invalid data is required by law.

A

TRUE

It is required by EPA and some state environmental laws.

64
Q

Which level of PPE may be considered when ambient atmospheric vapors or gas levels have not approached sufficiently high concentrations to warrant level A protection.

A

LEVEL B PROTECTION

65
Q

What makes biological agents difficult to detect in a timely manner?

A

The presence of an incubation period, during which the agent may be passed asymptomatically to other people.

66
Q

Lifesaving or protection of large populations can warrant a radiological exposure of up to __________.

A

25 rem

67
Q

What are BE’s two primary responsibilities of emergency response?

A

Health Risk Assessments (HRA) and PPE recommendations