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Pharma > Autonomics > Flashcards

Autonomics Flashcards

1
Q

Sympathetic effect on blood vessels of the skin

A

Constriction

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2
Q

Sympathetic effect on skeletal blood vessels

A

Vasodilation

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3
Q

Sympathetic effect on GIT and bladder wall

A

Relaxation

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4
Q

Sympathetic effect on GIT and bladder sphincter

A

Contraction

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5
Q

B1 receptors are found in

A

Heart and kidneys

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6
Q

D1 receptors are found in

A

Renal splanchnic

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7
Q

D2 and D3 receptors are found in

A

CNS

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8
Q

Thoracolumbar

A

CNS

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9
Q

Craniosacral

A

Peripheral

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10
Q

Long preganglionic nerve

A

Parasympathetic

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11
Q

Effect of sympathetic response on uterus

A

Both contraction and relaxation

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12
Q

Primary transmitter at the somatic skeletal muscle NMJ

A

Acetylcholine

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13
Q

Acetylcholine is synthesized from acetyl CoA and choline by what enzyme

A

Choline acetyltransferase

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14
Q

Choline transport is inhibited by

A

Hemicholinuim

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15
Q

Ach is transported into vesicle and inhibited by

A

Vesamicol

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16
Q

This alters synaptobrevins to prevent release of Ach

A

Botulinum toxin

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17
Q

Inhibits action of acetylcholinesterase

A

Neostigmine
Carbamates
Organophosphates

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18
Q

Cholinomimetic that activates M receptors and is used for bowel and bladder atony

A

Betanechol

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19
Q

M3 selective muscarinic drug that is found in ciliary muscle and salivary glands

Used in glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

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20
Q

Triad of Sjogren syndrome

A

Xerostomia
Xerophthalmia
Rheumatoid arthritis

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21
Q

Activates nicotinic Ach receptors and used for smoking cessation

A

Varenicline

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22
Q

MOA of indirect acting cholinomimetics

A

Bind to cholinesterase and undergo hydrolysis

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23
Q

Indirect acting cholinomimetic used for the DIAGNOSIS of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

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24
Q

Used for reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade

A

Neostigmine

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25
Q

Indirect cholinomimetic used for glaucoma

A

Physostigmine
Echothiophate
Demecarium

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26
Q

Neostigmine muscarinic effects are blocked by

A

Atropine

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27
Q

Acute worsening of symptoms due to infection, stress or UNDERmedication

A

Myasthenic crisis

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28
Q

Excessive activation of cholinoceptors due to overstimulation

A

Cholinergic crisis

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29
Q

Signs of cholinergic crisis

A

Skeletal muscle weakness and parasympathetic signs

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30
Q

Galantamine
Donezepil
Tacrine

A

Rivastigmine

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31
Q

Indirect acting cholinomimetic used in alzheimers disease

A

Rivastigmine

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32
Q

Organophosphate poisoning

DUMBBELSS

A 
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Excitation (skeletalcms and CNS)
Emesis
Lacrimation
Sweating
Salivation
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33
Q

Antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

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34
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that competitively blocks all muscarinic receptors

A

Atropine

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35
Q

Cholinergic antagonist notorius for causing hyperthermia

A

Atropine

36
Q

Cholinesterase regenerator

A

Pralidoxime

37
Q

Binds phosphorus of organophosphates and breaks bonds with cholinesterase

A

Pralidoxime

38
Q

Pralidoxime must be administered before ____ of organophosphate poisoning

A

6-8 hours

39
Q

Cholinergic muscarinic antagonist that is used for Parkinson’s disease

A

Benztropine
Biperiden
Trihexyphenidyl

40
Q

Benztropine reduces more ___ than bradykinesia or rigidity

A

Tremors

41
Q

Muscarinic antagonists for Parkinsonism

TRI to park your Benz, BIP here

A

Trihexyphenidyl
Benztropine
Biperiden

42
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that blocks muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle

A

Ipratropium

Tiotropium

43
Q

More effective cholinergic antagonist more effective in COPD and heart disease

A

Ipratropium

Tiotropium

44
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that antagonizes histamine and serotonin

A

Scopolamine

45
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that blocks M3 receptors

Used in IBS

A

Hyoscyamine
Glycopyrrolate
Dicyclomine

46
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that has increased IOP as side effect

A

Dicyclomine and Oxybutynin

47
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that reduces detrusor muscle tone and used for urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin

48
Q

Atropine Toxicity

A 
Hot as a hare
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet
Blind as a bat
Mad as a hatter
49
Q

Contraindications to muscarinic blockers

A

Infants
Angle closure glaucoma
BPH

50
Q

First succesful agents for the treatment of hypertension

A

Ganglion blockers

51
Q

Competitive pharma antagonists at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

A

Hexamethonium
Trimethaphan
Mecamylamine

(Ganglion Blockers)

52
Q

Primary neurotransmitter at the sympathetic postganglionic neuron-effector cell synapses in most tissues

A

Norepinephrine

53
Q

Nonselective MAOI for depression

TIP

A

Tranylcypromine
Isocarboxazid
Phenelzine

54
Q

Inactivating enzymes for catecholamines

A

MAO

COMT

55
Q

MAO A or MAO B:

Norepinephrine and Epinephrine?

A

MAO A

56
Q

MAO A or MAO B:

Dopamine?

A

MAO B

57
Q

Tyrosine is hydroxylated by _____________to DOPA

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase

58
Q

Tyrosine hydroxylase is inhibited by this drug

A

Metyrosine

59
Q

Vesicular transport of norepinephrine and dopamine is inhibited by

A

Reserpine

60
Q

This drug prevents entry of calcium that promotes release of norepinephrine

A

Guanethidine

61
Q

Release of norepinephrine is promoted by

A

Amphetamine

Tyramine

62
Q

Diffusion and reuptake of norepinephrine is blocked by

A

Cocaine and TCA

63
Q

Diffusion and reuptake of NE is promoted by

A

MAOI and COMT inhibitors

64
Q

Effect of alpha 2 receptors on platelets

A

Aggregation

65
Q

Effect of B1 in kidneys

A

Release renin

66
Q

Nonselective beta agonist used for asthma

A

Isoproterenol

67
Q

Alpha 1 selective agonist used as nasal decongestant, mydriatic

A 
Phenylephrine
Tetrahydrozoline
Xylometazoline
Midodrine
Naphazoline
68
Q

Side effect of phenylephrine

A

Rebound nasal congestion

Rhinitis medicamentosa

69
Q

Generic side effect of alpha 2 agonists

A

Sedation

70
Q

Alpha 2 selective agonist that is used for hypertension

A

Clonidine

71
Q

Used to treat rebound HTN in clonidine

A

Phentolamine

72
Q 
Other names:
Guanfacibe
Guanabenz
Dexmedetomidine
Tizanidine
A

Methydopa

73
Q

Known side effect of methyldopa

A

Hemolytic anemia (positive coombs test)

74
Q

Alpha 2 selective used to treat galucoma by decreasing secretion of aqueous humor

A

Apraclonidine

Brimonidine

75
Q

Beta 2 selective agonist used as tocolysis for preterm labor

A

Terbutaline

Ritodrine

76
Q

Cardioselective B1 blockers

NBEAM

A 
Nebivolol
Betaxolol
Esmolol
Atenolol, Alprenolol, Acebutalol
Metoprolol
77
Q

IRREVERSIBLY blocks alpha receptors

Used for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

78
Q

drug used for pheochromocytoma that REVERSIBLY blocks alpha receptors

A

Phentolamine

Tolazoline

79
Q

Most selective alpha 1 selective antagonist used for prostatic smooth muscle

A

Tamsulosin

80
Q

Pharmacologic advantage of alpha 1 selectivity?

A

Less severe and less commin reflec tachycardia

81
Q

Used for pheochromocytoma that has combined alpha and beta blockade

A

Carvedilol and labetalol

82
Q

Beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

ISA PA

A

Pindolol
Acebutolol

--------
Carteolol
Bopindolol
Oxprenolol
Celiprolol
Penbutolol
83
Q

Beta blockers with NO local anesthetic activity

A

Timolol

Betaxolol

84
Q

Longest half life beta blocker

A

Nadolol

85
Q

Shortest half life beta blocker

A

Esmolol

Pharma (15 decks)

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