Action Options and Response Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

True or false, Predetermined procedures are only useful if the real incident is very similar to the one in the predetermined scenario.

A

False, many of the procedures within the plan are applicable to a wide variety of incident types. Following preocedures leads to decreases chances of error and injury.

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2
Q

What actions can be taken at a dangerous goods incident, even before an IC is established?

A

Protective actions like, notifying, isolating and scene control.

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3
Q

In Canada, what agency acts as the emergency response centre form dangerous goods incidents?

A

CANUTEC Canadian Transport Emergency Centre

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4
Q

When calling CANUTEC for advice of a dangerous goods incident, what information must you collect and share with them?

A

-your name, callback number
-Location and type of problem
-Name and id number of materials involved
-Shipper
-Carrier name, trailer/tank/rail car number
-container type
-Quantity of material spilled
etc

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5
Q

Onve the protective actions have been completed and the IC has been established, what is the next step?

A

SIze-up

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6
Q

What is the importance of a size up?

A

Determines the response objectives and the tactics.

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7
Q

What is the diffrence between hazard and risk?

A

Hazards are things that can harm you like traffic hazards or fire hazards, and risk is the likelyhood that they will harm you. So, if you are at a car accident on a busy highway at night, their is a higher likelyhood of you getting struck by a vehicle due to the high speeds and low visibility, so there is a high risk.

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8
Q

Which of the following are pieces of information that you should gather on the way to the scene, and which are pieces of information that you should gather at the scene? -Wind Direction -Number and type of injuries -Available response personnel -Occupancy Type -Land Use -Type of incident - Product and container information -Presence of victims -Location of incident -Equipment access -Equipment and resources responding -Time of day -Topography -Weather

A

-Wind Direction -Number and type of injuries -Available response personnel -Occupancy Type -Land Use -Type of incident - Product and container information -Presence of victims -Location of incident -Equipment access -Equipment and resources responding -Time of day -Topography -Weather

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9
Q

What six hazards should you look out for while surveying the surroundings of a dangerous goods spill?

A
  • Downed Power lines
  • Oncoming traffic
  • Potential victims and exposures
  • Weather and time of day
  • Topography
  • Information about the building and contents if inside
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10
Q

True or false, turning on a flashlight can ignite flammable atmospheres.

A

True, anything that has an electric componant can theoretically ignite a flammable atmosphere.

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11
Q

How does the time of day influence the spread of gases?

A

Winds are typically stronger during the day which accelerates spread. Although, if an incident occurs at night it can be more difficult to contain it in the dark, so gases may spread farther.

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12
Q

True or false, topography does not affect the spread of gases

A

False, while wind direction is more important to the spread direction of gases, gravity and topography play a role. If a gas is lighter than air it will spred uphill and if it is lighter than air it will spread downhill.

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13
Q

What are the four requirements for maintaining continuous situational awareness at an incident?

A
  • Size-up
  • Interpreting signs
  • Assessing what is happening over the course fo the incident
  • Predicting outcomes based on the plan of action
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14
Q

What are the three levels of situational awareness?

A
  1. Perception - Perceive the situation.
  2. Cpmprehension - Apply knowledge and experience to our perception.
  3. Application - Predict what will happen and what actions are required.
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15
Q

List the eight factors that can be detrimental to proper situational awareness.

A
  1. Ambiguity
  2. Distraction
  3. Fixation
  4. Overload
  5. Complacency
  6. Improper procedure
  7. Unresolved discrepancy
  8. Lack of comprehensive hazard surveillance
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16
Q

True or false, incident level 1 is more serious than a level 2 or level three incident.

A

False. level 3 is the most severe, then level 2 and then level 1.

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17
Q

Give and example of what a dangerous goods incident level 1 might be.

A

Small gasoline spill

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18
Q

What incident level is a pipeline burst?

A

At least Incident level 2, but if it becomes large enough it could become an incident level 3.

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19
Q

What are the three kinds of operational strategies?

A
  • Nonintervention
  • Defensive
  • Offensive
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20
Q

What is the most important factor to concider when choosing an operational strategy?

A

The safety of first responders.

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21
Q

True or false, you can use more than one operational strategy at once on the same incident.

A

True

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22
Q

Give an example of an incident where a nonintervention strategy is the prefered operational strategy.

A

A pressurized vessel that is in danger of BLEVE due to a fire burning underneath it.

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23
Q

During an inicial responce, what are the four stages of the problem solving process?

A
  • Information gathering stage
  • A processing or planning stage
  • Implementation or output stage
  • A review or evaluation stage
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24
Q

When should first responders use a risk based response plan?

A

When the dangerous good is unable to be identified, it is smart to only focus on the things that you know and plan according to that information. Use monitoring equipment. Don’t make a plan based on what you suspect the dangerous good to be.

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25
Q

What are the stages of developing an incident action plan?

A
  1. Identify response objectives
  2. Select action options
  3. Determine how actions will be carried out.
  4. Assess results of actions
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26
Q

What criteria must every response objective include?

A
  • It must be achievable
  • it must prevent further injuries
  • It must cause as little damage as possible to the environment and property
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27
Q

True or false, firefighters at dangerous goods incidents are allowed to perform actions that risk their safety if there is a possibility of saving a victim’s life.

A

True.

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28
Q

True or false, a firefighter at a dangerous goods incident is not allowed to perform actions that put their safety at risk to protect property.

A

False, they are allowed to save property if there is minimal risk to their safety.

29
Q

True or false, a firefighter is never allowed to endanger themselves if there is no possibility of saving lives or property.

A

True

30
Q

True or false, for every person working in the hot zone another person has to be in the warm zone in full PPE, in case the person needs to be rescued.

A

True

31
Q

What are the four stages of an evacuation?

A
  • Notification
  • Transportation
  • Relocation facilities and temporary shelters
  • Reentry
32
Q

What are the two methods for product control?

A

Spill control aims to control the spread of a product that has already escaped its container.

Leak control aims to prevent a product from escaping its container.

33
Q

What are the three types of terrorist attack?

A
  1. Using force that involves illegal activities
  2. Intimidation or coercion
  3. Supporting political or social objectives
34
Q

True or false, most terrorist attacks involve incidents that are more complex and severe.

A

True

35
Q

True or false, most incidents that are suspected of being terrorist attacks must have a unified command structure.

A

True

36
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A

It represents the five types of direct physical terrorism; Chemical, Biological, Radioactive, Nuclear, and Explosive.

37
Q

What are the two kinds of indirect terrorist attacks?

A

Cyber, and agricultural

38
Q

What seven locations are generaly the most likely to be targeted in a terrorist attack?

A
  • Mass transport
  • Critical infrastructure
  • Areas of public assembly
  • High profile buildings and locations
  • Industrial sites
  • Educational sites
  • Medical and science facilities
39
Q

List all seven types of WMD from most likely to be encountered to least likely to be encountered.

A
  • Explosives
  • Biological toxins
  • Industrial chemicals
  • Biological pathogens
  • Radiological materials
  • Military-grade chemical weapons
  • Nuclear weapons
40
Q

Which WMD do most experts agree poses the greatest threat today?

A

Explosives because they are so prevalent.

41
Q

What is a secondary attack?

A

When an primary terrorist device goes off and then a second device is detonated to kill all the responders at the scene.

42
Q

What is the difference between a high explosive and a low explosive?

A

A high explosive detonates faster than the speed of sound and a low explosive detonates slower than the speed of sound.

43
Q

What is a primary explosive?

A

Highly sensitive to heat and used as detomators.

44
Q

What are secondary explosives?

A

Less sensitive to heat. Can only be activiated by a primary detonator.

45
Q

What is a tertiary Explosive?

A

Insensitive materials based on ammonium nitrate.

46
Q

What does the FBI acronym ALERT stand for?

A
  • Alone and nervous
  • Loose and/or bulky clothing
  • Exposed wires
  • Rigid mid-section
  • Tightened hands
47
Q

What are the six types of Chemical agents used in warfare or terroroist attacks?

A
  • Nerve agents
  • Blister agents
  • Blood agents
  • Chocking agents
  • Riot agents
  • Toxic industrial materials (TIMs)
48
Q

What does the acronym DUMBELS stand for?

A

It is an acronym that is used to teach people about the symptoms of chemical exposure.

  • Defecation
  • Urination
  • Muscular twitching
  • Bronchospasm (Wheezing)
  • Emesis (vomiting)
  • Lacrimation (tearing)
  • Salivation
49
Q

True or false, Nerve agents are actually liquids in a vapor state.

A

True

50
Q

What is the best course of action when treating someone who hhas been exposed to a nerve agent?

A

Get them to the hospital as quickly as possible to administer the adidote.

51
Q

True or false, Blister agents cannot affect your lungs or stomach, the blistering is limited to the skin.

A

False, blisters can form in the lungs, skin and blood-forming organs, causing vomiting, coughing and diarrhea.

52
Q

True or false, Blister agents are more difficult to remove from a contaminated area than nerve agents.

A

True, because they are more viscous.

53
Q

Blodd agents are chemical asphyxiants, how do they harm people?

A

They either prevent blood cells from carrying oxygen to the body’s cells or they prevent the cells from using the oxygen.

54
Q

Name the three most common chemical asphyxiants.

A

Arsine - smells like garlic

Hydrogen cyanide - smells like bitter almonds

Cyanogen chloride - pungent odor

55
Q

How do chocking agents affect the body?

A

They cause tissue damage in the lungs.

56
Q

What are the two most common chocking agents?

A

Chlorine

Phosgene

57
Q

If you are in the middle of the city and you smell freshly cut hay, what might it actually be?

A

High levels of phosgene.

58
Q

What are the two general catagories of riot control agents?

A
  • Incapacitants
  • Voiting agents
59
Q

What are the four types of Biological attacks?

A

Viral agents

Bacterial agents

Rickettsia

Biological toxins

60
Q

True or false, most biological toxins cause immediate health effects.

A

False, most take hours, days, or weeks to show any effect. The exception are neurotoxins.

61
Q

What are the six modes of disease transmission for biological organisms?

A
  1. Airborn transmission
  2. Contact with infected droplets
  3. Direct contact
  4. Indirect contact
  5. Ingestion of contaminated food
  6. Vector (ticks)
62
Q

In what ways can firefighters working on victims avoid contracting biological organisms and spreading them to other victims?

A
  1. Wear disposable gloves
  2. Change gloves when working on another victim
  3. Wash hands after working on a victim
  4. Wear protective face shield and mask
  5. Contact local health department if you have questions.
63
Q

What are some indicators of a meth lab?

A
  • Lots of matches
  • Packages of cold medicine
  • Propane tanks with blue fittings
  • Hot plates
  • Red phospohorous
  • Lithium
64
Q

What are some indicators of a homemade explosives lab?

A
  • Blasting caps
  • Wires
  • Detonation cord
  • Ammonium nitrate
  • Hexamine fuel tablets
65
Q

What are the four componants fo the final stage of ‘evaluating progress’ the APIE process?

A
  • Porgress reports
  • Recovery
  • When to withdraw
  • Termination
66
Q

At what point do you need to concider withdrawing from the incident?

A

When the danger levels increase due to; sudden increase of temperature, sudden change in pressure, sudden increase in flames.

67
Q

Explain what the recovery stage involves.

A

Recover aims to return the scene to a safe condition. During this stage, personel are debriefed to gather information on important observations, actions taken, and the timeline of the incident.

68
Q

What is the purpose of the Termination stage of the Progress evaluation phase?

A

Post incident critique aims to find out what the fire department did right and what they did wrong, how they can continue to do things well and how to improve on mistakes.