a level biology qurestions Flashcards

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1
Q

describe the role of proteins in the production of polypeptides - dont include transcription

A

Mrna binds to ribosomes
two codon binding sites
fromation of peptide bond between amino acids

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2
Q

suggest how glycogen acts as a source of energy

A

hydolysed to glucose which is used in respiration

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3
Q

suggest and explain two ways the surfsce membrsne of cell linngs the uterus may be adpated to a;llow rapid transport of nutrients

A

large sa:vol
lots of protein channels for facillitated diffusion

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4
Q

Sodium ions from salt (sodium chloride) are absorbed by cells lining the gut. Some
of these cells have membranes with a carrier protein called NHE3.
NHE3 actively transports one sodium ion into the cell in exchange for one proton
(hydrogen ion) out of the cell.
Use your knowledge of transport across cell membranes to suggest how NHE3
does this.

A

-co trasnport
-uses atp
- changes shape of the protein when sodium ion and proton bind

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5
Q

describe how bacteria divide

A
  1. Binary fission;
  2. Replication of (circular) DNA;
  3. Division of cytoplasm to produce 2 daughter
    cells;
  4. Each with single copy of (circular) DNA;
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6
Q

Suggest one advantage to a bacterium of secreting an extracellular protease in its
natural environment.
Explain your answer.

A
  1. To digest protein;
  2. (So) they can absorb amino acids for
    growth/reproduction/protein synthesis/synthesis
    of named cell component;
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7
Q

describe how phagocytosis of a virus leads to presentation of its antigen

A
  1. Phagosome/vesicle fuses with lysosome;
  2. (Virus) destroyed by lysozymes/hydrolytic
    enzymes;
  3. Peptides/antigen (from virus) are displayed on
    the cell membrane;
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8
Q

An environmental scientist investigated a possible relationship between air
pollution and the size of seeds produced by one species of tree.
He was provided with a very large number of seeds collected from a population of
trees in the centre of a city and also a very large number of seeds collected from a
population of trees in the countryside.
Describe how he should collect and process data from these seeds to investigate
whether there is a difference in seed size between these two populations of trees

A
  1. Use random sample of seeds (from each
    population);
  2. Use (large enough) sample to be representative
    of whole population;
  3. Indication of what size was measured eg mass;
  4. Calculate a mean and standard deviation (for
    each population);
  5. Use the (Student’s) t-test;
  6. Analyse whether there is a significant difference
    between (the means of) the two populations;
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9
Q

suggest and explain why the combined actions of endopeptidases and exopeptidase are more efficient than exo on their own

A

endopeptidases hydrolyse internal peptide bond
more ends

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10
Q

why the addition of respiratory inhibitors stop the absorption of amino acids

A

no atp produced
na ions. not moved
no diffusion gradient for na

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11
Q

reasons why ph would remain constant in hyrodlyses of triglyceride

A

enzymes denatured and. no more fatty acids produced

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12
Q

name the part of a pancreatic cell that produces the inactive form of trypsin

A

ribosome

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13
Q

state the advantage of producing trypsin in an active form inside cells in the pancreas

A

does n to digest protein inside cell
sp pancreatic tissue damaged

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14
Q

messenger RNA is used during translation is to from polypeptides
describe how Myrna is produced in the nucleus of the cell

A

Helicase
breaks hydrogen bonds
only one dna strand acts as template
rna nucleotide attracted to exposed
according to base pairing rule
rna polymerase join nucleriudes together
pre Mrna qsplikced to remove introns

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15
Q

the concentration of glucose in the blood rises after eating a meal containing carbohydrates

A

-starch digested to maltose
-maltose digested to glucose
-digestion of sucrose =single step

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16
Q

healthy people have amylase in their blood. This does not cause any harmful effects in the body explain why

A

amylase is specific so no starch in humannbloof

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17
Q

pancreatitis can lead to the release of prote3in digesting enzymes into the blood this is harmful t the body
suggest one reason why

A

could digest own body/proteins
eg.membrane protein

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18
Q

describe how these phagocytosis white blood cells destroy bacteria

A

Phagocyte attracted to bacteria by chemicals

engulf bacteria
bacteria in vacuole
lysosome fuses with
bacteria hydrolysed/digested

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19
Q

the epithelial cells that line Ithe small intestine are adapted for the absorption of glucose. Explain how

A

microbial provide a large
many mitochondria produce atp
Carrier protein for active transport
channel/carrier for facillitated
co transport of sodium ions
membrane bound enzymes digests disaccharides

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20
Q

describe the role of enzymes of the digestive system in the complete breakdown of starch

A

amylase
starch to maltose
maltase
maltose to glucose
hydrolysis of glycosisdc bond

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21
Q

describe the processes involved in the absorption of the products of starch digestion

A

glucose moves in with sodium via channel/carrier protein
sodium removed by active transport
into blood
maintaining low conc of sodium
glucose moves into blood by facilitated diffusion

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22
Q

duggrdt hoe the chylomicrons leave the epithelial cells

give a reason for your answer

A

exocysiris
too large to leave via other method

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23
Q

if a sample of blood is mixed with dissolved lipids and no cells seen then why

A

phopsholipid bilayer is dissolved

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24
Q

in each cardiac cycle the arterial pressure has a maximum value explain the link between the maximum value and the events of the cardiac cycle

A

corresponds to ventricles contracting

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25
Q

the water potential of the plasma at the venue end of the capillary is more negative than the water potential at the arteriole end

A

plasma proteins are too large

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26
Q

what causes the absence of heamoglobin in tissue fluid

A

haemgoblib. in rbc

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27
Q

haemoglobin is a protein with a quaternary structure what does this mean

A

several polypeptide chains

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28
Q

explain how oxygen in a red blood cells is made available for respiration in active tissue

A

low ph
dissociation of haemoglobin

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29
Q

the hydrostatic pressure of blood at the arteriole end of the capillary helps to form tissue fluid explain how

A

hydrostatic pressure higher than osmotic effect
forces out small molecules

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29
Q

describe how the increase in pressure of the blood in the artery results from the events in the cardiac cycle

A

caused by blood leaving the heart as a result of ventricles contracting

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30
Q

the elastic fibres in the wall of the artery to help smooth blood flow what happens to these fibres as the pressure of the blood in the artery changes

A

-stretch as pressure increases
-recoil

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31
Q

give one way in which the structure of the wall of Ana artery is sismila to the structure of the wall pf the capillary

A

both have endothelium cells

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32
Q

why data represented as %

A

easier to compare if sample size is effectifekt the same

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33
Q

what is partial pressure meant

A

measure of conc of gas

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34
Q

explain the advantage of the difference in dissociation curve during exercise (lower than rest)

A

haemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen
more o2 for respiration

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35
Q

give two ways in which total oxygen supplied to muscles during excserise is increased

A

inc depth
inc stoke volume

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36
Q

after several mo nth of training an athlete has had the sane cardiac output has a lower resting heart rate than before explain why

A

inc in volume/size of ventricles

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37
Q

explain how the structure of the arteries reduces fluctuations in pressure

A

Islamic which allows it to recoil

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38
Q

explain how the structure of the capillaries is related to function

A

one cell thick so short diffusion distance

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39
Q

describe and explain how water is exchanged between the blood and tissue fluid as blood flows along the capillary

A

-hp forces water out
-hp higher than wp
proteins remain in blood
-wp higher than hp
-water returns by osmosis
-water moves out at arteriole

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40
Q

which chamber of the heart produces the increase in pressure recorded in the aorta

A

left ventricle

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41
Q

explain how aerobic respiration in cells leads to a change in the ph of blood plasma

A

co2 produced and h+ ions released

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42
Q

what os the advantage to tissue cells of a reduction in the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen when the plasma ph decreases

A

high rate response low ph
more o2 released

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43
Q

explain how efficient gas exchange is ensures by the dissociation curve for the foetus being to the left of the dissociation curve for the women

A

fetal haemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen
loads oxygen from mothers blood

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44
Q

a women tajes moderate excerisse explain what causes her heart rate to increase while she excserises

A

rate of respiration increases
carbon dioxide conc inc
chemoreceptors in aporta
impulses to medulla
inc frequency of impulses
along sympathetic pathway to sinoatrial node

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45
Q

describe the route taken when electrical impulses are transmitted from the sinoatrial node to the muscles of the ventricles in a healthy heart

A

through cardiac muscle;
to atrioventricular node;
along bundle of His / Purkyne fibres;

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46
Q

explain why there is a net loss of water from. capillary at the arterial end

A

at arterial end) hydrostatic pressure / blood pressure;
greater than pressure of water potential gradient / greater than osmotic uptake;

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47
Q

the total volume of fluid that passes from the capillaries to the surrounding tissue fluid is normally greater than the volume that is reabsorbs into them
describe what happens to the extra fluid

A

removed by lymphatic system / lymph; returned to blood;

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48
Q

tissue fluid accumulates in the tissues of people who do not eat enough protein explain why

A

less protein in blood;
water potential gradient is lower (less –ve / higher ).

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49
Q

explain the advantage of the curve for metal haemoglobin being fiddferent from the curve of adult haemoglobin

A

fetal haemoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen / takes up oxygen (becomes saturated) at lower partial pressure;
at partial pressures when adult haemoglobin dissociates fetal haemoglobin takes up oxygen;

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50
Q

how does the elastic tissue help to smooth out the flow of blood in the blood vessels

A

stretches / expands to accommodate increase in blood
volume / when ventricle contracts / increase in blood pressure; recoils when blood volume decreases / when ventricle
relaxes / blood pressure decreases;

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51
Q

the maximum pressure in the left atrium is lower than the maximum pressure in the left ventricle
what causes this difference in maximum pressure

A

less muscle / thin(ner) wall in left atrium;

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52
Q

explain how a change in ph from 7.4 to 7.2 affects the supply pf xugen by haemoglobin to the tissue

A

more oxygen unloaded / given up / affinity decreased / reduced saturation; oxyhaemoglobin dissociates at higher oxygen concentration / partial pressure / more oxygen unloaded at the same ppO ;

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53
Q

in the light dependent reaction of photosynthesis , the carbon in co2 becomes carbon in tp explain how

A

.
1)Carbon dioxide combines with ribulose bisphosphate / RuBP;
2. To produce two molecules of glycerate 3-phosphate / GP;
3. Reduced to triose phosphate / TP;
4. Requires reduced NADP;
5. Energy from ATP;

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54
Q

the scientists monitored the number of hours of sunshine per month. Explain why they monitored the number of hours of sunshine

A

So that they could eliminate this factor from affecting the yield

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55
Q

the temp ,fertiliser number of pests were controlled during investigation . name one other factor which should have been controlled during the investigation. explain why variation in this factor would affect yield.

A

variety of tomato
yield will vary with different varieties

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56
Q

additional information is required for tomato growth to decide whether it is economically profitable to addd extra co2 to produce very early tomato

A

1)costs of co2 supply
2)price of tomatoes

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57
Q

in the light dependent reaction of photosynthesis light enemy generates atp

A

1)light excites electrons
2)redox reaction series
3)etc
4)energy released
5)atp generated from ads and phosphate

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58
Q

describe the light independent reactions of photosynthesis and explain how they show the continued synthesis of hexose sugars

A

-co2 =RUBP
-2GP-TP
-energy/atp
-ewduced nap
-tp forms hexose
-all rubs reformed

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59
Q

explain why the increase in the dry mass of a plant over 12 months is less than the mass of hexose produced over the same period

A

-some hexose used in resp
-co2 produced
-some parts of the plant are eaten

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60
Q

changing the co2 had a greater effect on the rate of transpiration when the plants were wasters than when they were kept in dry conditions. explain why

A

dry conditions-stomata partially closed
due to turgor in guard cells

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61
Q

in the presence of oxygen respiration yields more atp per molecule of glucose than it does in the absence of oxygen explain why

A

-oxygen as terminal hydrogen
-atp formed in glycolysis
-aerobic respiration

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62
Q

describe how light energy absorbed by chlorophyll molecule is used to synthesis atp

A

-excitation of electrons leave chlorophyll atp prodcued
-etc
-loss of energy by electrons
-adp and pi

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63
Q

role of chlorophyll in photolysis

A

-absorbs light
-loses electrons

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64
Q

how the energy pf light is converted into chemical energy in the light dependant reactions

A

-electeons raised ti higher energy levels
-etc
-act produced

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65
Q

exlain why between 300-360 secs the conc of radioactive rubs increased

A

-no co2 to combine with
-rubp- gp-tp

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66
Q

atp function in light independent reactions

A

provides energy for gp-tp

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67
Q

reduced nadp function in light independent reactions

A

provides h/electrins from gp-tp

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68
Q

explain why the concentration of oxygen and amount of add fell during the investigation

A

-adp and phosphate forms atp
-oxygen used to form water

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69
Q

describe how reduced nadp is reduced in the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis

A

-electrons from chlorophyll

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70
Q

explain why there is twice the amount of glyxerate 3 phosphate as ribulose biphopshate when the co2 conc is high

A

more co2 binding to rubp to produce 2 gp

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71
Q

explain the rise in the amount of rubp after the co2 conc is reduced

A

less used to combine to co2

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72
Q

explain how lack of light caused the amount of radioactively labelled glycerine 3 phosphate to rise

A

-atp and reduced nap fromed
-gp is not being used to form rubp

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73
Q

where does light independent take ;lace

A

stroma

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74
Q

explain why the tubes were placed the same distance from the lamp

A

same amount of heat

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75
Q

explain how enhancing the co2 conc helps inc yield

A

rate of photosynthesis increased;
normal atmospheric concentration a limiting factor / more / faster production of biomass or sugars / more products of photosynthesis transported to fruits;

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76
Q

maintaining a high temp in. a glasshouse in winter when the light intensity is low may reduced the yield explain how

A

increases rate of respiration; rate of photosynthesis too low to replace respiratory loss

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77
Q

two products of light dependent stage

A

nadph
atp

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78
Q

the products od the light dependent reaction are used in light independent of photosynthesis what are these products used for

A

to make sugars 9
44

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79
Q

Explain what is meant by the tertiary structure of a protein

A

Way in which the whole protein / polypeptide is folded / shape adopted by whole protein molecule / further folding of 2° structure;

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80
Q

Explain how heating an enzyme leads to it being denatured.

A

More (kinetic) energy;
Bonds / specified bonds (holding tertiary structure) break;

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81
Q

Describe how the sequence of amino acids in part of the protein from Job’s enable this protein to act as an enzyme inhibitor.

A

1)
2. This is tertiary structure;
3. Has similar shape to substrate;
4. Fits / competes for active site;
5. Fits at site other than active site;
6. Distorting active site;
7. Therefore substrate will not fit (active site)

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82
Q

Haemoglobin is a protein with a quaternary structure. What is meant by a quaternary structure?

A

aggregation of several polypeptide chanins / tertiary structures

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83
Q

Explain how oxygen in a red blood cell is made available for respiration in active tissues.

A

Low pH / (more)H
Oxygen diffuses from r.b.c. to tissues;

(increased) dissociation of haemoglobin;

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84
Q

Haemoglobin is broken down in the liver. One product of this breakdown is amino acids. Give one use in the body of these amino acids

A

Deaminated for use in respiration / used in protein synthesis / suitable

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85
Q

(b) How does maintaining a constant body temperature allow metabolic reactions in cells to proceed with maximum efficiency?

A

body temp 37 degrees optimum for enzymes
excesss can denature
fewer e-s complex
fewer complexes
cannot bind
reaction slowed

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86
Q

4
Lactose is a disaccharide found in milk. In the small intestine, it is digested into glucose and galactose by the enzyme lactase. Molecules of lactase are located in the plasma membranes of cells lining the small intestine.
(a) What evidence in the paragraph suggests that galactose is a monosaccharide

A

digestion of a disaccharide into monosaccharides

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87
Q

Name one other digestive enzyme that is located in the plasma membranes of cells lining the small intestine

A

dipeptidase

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88
Q

Give an advantage of lactase and other digestive enzymes being located in the plasma membranes of cells lining the small intestine, rather than being secreted into the lumen of the small intestine.

A

more effective absorption of products by the enzymes

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89
Q

(c) The absorption of galactose from the small intestine is reduced if the absorbing cells are treated with a respiratory inhibitor, such as cyanide. Suggest an explanation for this.

A

no atp formed
active transport into cell

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90
Q

explain why the rate of the reaction decreases as the reactions

A

substrate decreases so fewer complexes

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91
Q

Explain how inhibitors affect the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions.

A

-inhibitors in general - prevent entry ,binding of substrate to active
-fewer e-s complexes formed
-competitive -
-non competitive -binds to alloestric site and change shape of active sire

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92
Q

name two polymer present in mammals and fish that contain nitrogen

A

proteins
haemoglobin

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93
Q

describe how urea is removed from the blood

A

-hydorstatic pressure
-ultrafiltrartion at Bowmans capsule
-through basement membrane
-enabled by small size of urea molecule

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94
Q

Explain how urea is concentrated in the filtrate.

A

-reabroption of water
-by osmosis
-active transport of ions

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95
Q

by what processes does used urea enter the fluid in the abdominal cavity from the blood

A

by (simple) diffusion;

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96
Q

why dialysis fluid changed every five hours

A

to maintain concentration gradients

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97
Q

how to ensure specimens collected at random

A

-random coordinates and grid area

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98
Q

how non competitive inhibitor would decrease the rate of the reaction catalysed by the enzyme

A

binds to allosteric binding site
changes shape
can no longer bind

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99
Q

how amino acids are closely held together to form active site

A

amino acid chains folds
disulphide bridges holding structure together

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100
Q

The higher the altitude, the lower the mean temperature. Explain how the lower temperature at high altitude reduces the growth of plants.

A

-lower enzyme activity
-decrease in rate of photo and less carb produced
-lowerr resp
-less nutrient uptake

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101
Q

Which two substances are formed when two amino acid molecules join together

A

dipeptide and water

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102
Q

Explain how a change in the primary structure of a globular protein may result in a different three-dimensional structure.

A

sequence of amino acids change
tertiary structure changes
bonds formed in different places

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103
Q

explain why there is no further decrease in there conc of potassium ion in the solution with the inhibitor after 60 minutes

A

absorption viz diffusion no longer occurs
because no conc gradient

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104
Q

The substance malonate is an inhibitor of respiration. It has a structure very similar to the substrate of an enzyme that catalyses one of the reactions of respiration. Explain how malonate inhibits respiration

A

binds to complimentary acirvcw sure
prevent substrate from forming enzyme substrate complex

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105
Q

(c) Explain how
(i) raising the temperature to 35 °C affects carbohydrase activity;

A

inc kr
inc collisooms
fast rate of es complexes being formed
inc take of break down of starch

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106
Q

decreasing the pH affects carbohydrase activity

A

changes shape of the active site
disrupts the bonds
fewer es formed
inc h+ ions
decreases break down of starch

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107
Q

describe how you would carry out an investigation to find the optimum temperature for the acritivty of urease

A

method to maintain tens- water bath
-time taken touters indictor blue

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108
Q

describe how t lympjpcytes recognise and respond to the influent Virus

A

receptor recognise shape
clone
destroy virus

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109
Q

1e) Explain how a change in a sequence of DNA bases could result in a non-functional enzyme.

A

Change in (sequence of) amino acids / primary structure;
Change in hydrogen / ionic / disulfide bonds leads to change in tertiary structure / active site (of enzyme

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110
Q

2(d) The scientists found that, in a second species of bacterium, 29% of the bases were guanine.
Explain the difference in the percentage of guanine bases in the two species of bacterium.

A

Different genes;
Different (DNA) base sequences

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111
Q

3(b) A piece of mRNA is 660 nucleotides long but the DNA coding strand from which it was transcribed is 870 nucleotides long.

Explain this difference in the number of nucleotides.

What is the maximum number of amino acids in the protein translated from this piece of mRNA? Explain your answer.
Number of amino acids and
Explanation

A

220; allow 218 or 219-allow 2
Three bases / nucleotides code for one amino acid;

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112
Q

3bii two differences between the structure of mana and trna

A

mRNA has no base-pairing, tRNA has base-pairing / mRNA linear,
tRNA cloverleaf shape; mRNA has no binding site for amino acids,
tRNA has; mRNA different for each gene / many kinds, only few / 20 / 64 kinds of tRNA; accept mRNA longer / larger / more nucleotides than tRNA

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113
Q

4b A particular gene is 562 base-pairs long. However, the resulting mRNA is only 441 nucleotides long. Explain this difference

A

idea that DNA contains introns / mRNA is only exons / mRNA is “edited’;

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114
Q

4c tetracycline binds to bacterial ribosomes. This is shown in the diagram.
Protein synthesis in bacteria is similar to that in eukaryotic cells. Explain how tetracycline stops protein synthesis.

A

binds to / blocks codon / triplet on mRNA so anticodon / tRNA will not fit in / base-pair;
amino acids not delivered / joined;

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115
Q

5a)Explain why there are clear zones around some of the discs containing antibiotic.

A

antibiotic has diffused / spread / moved into agar; killed / inhibited bacteria;

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116
Q

5c) tacycline prevents bacterial growth by preventing protein synthesis. Give two other ways in which antibiotics can prevent bacterial growth.

A

disrupts cell wall / prevents cell wall synthesis; stops DNA replication;

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117
Q

6(ii) At what stage in the cell cycle would these errors in copying DNA bases occur?

A

S-phase / interphase;

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118
Q

6e)Starting with mRNA in the nucleus of a cell, describe how a molecule of protein is synthesised.

A

1) mana leaves nucleus through nuclear pore
2) to ribosome
3)trena molecule bring amino acids to ribosomes
4)specific trna molecule for specific amino acid
5)anticodon of trna corresponds to complimwntayr codon on MRNA
6)peptide bond from and collects another amino acida
8)ribosomes move along mrna

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119
Q

7a)sequence of pertain synthesis

A

cbefad

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119
Q

ii )in which part of the cell does the two strands of dna molecules separate

A

nucleus

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120
Q

8a)what is the role of rna polymerase in transcription

A

join / attach nucleotide

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121
Q

ii) name the organelle involved in translation

A

ribosome

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122
Q

9a give two factors other than cost that should be considers when selecting an antibiotic to treat and bacterial disease

A

side effects / allergic reactions / low toxicity to cells;
interaction with other drugs / effective in conditions of use / reasonably stable; should only act on the problem bacteria / narrow spectrum;
how much resistance the bacteria have built up;

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123
Q

b tetracycline- prevents tRNA binding
Chloramphenicol- prevents peptide bonds forming
explain how each of these antibiotics slows down the rate pf growth of bacteria

A

tetracycline
prevents tRNA binding to ribosomes / amino acid / mRNA
amino acids not available / brought / picked up;
chloramphenicol
prevents amino acids being joined / prevents primary structure forming;
no enzymes / no structural proteins formed

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124
Q

10a. describe the role of trna in the process of translation

A

(b) anticodon complementary to codon / reads message on mRNA; specific amino acid;
carried / transferred (to ribosome);
correct sequence of amino acids along polypeptide;

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125
Q

11a- name one mutagenic agent

A

high energy radiation

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126
Q

11bi describe how a deletion mutation alters the structure of a gene

A

removal of one or more bases / nucleotide;
frameshift / (from point of mutation) base sequence change;

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127
Q

11bii for example describe and explain how the altered gene could result in flax plants with white coloured flowers

A

sequence of bases in mRNA would change;
(sequence of) amino acids different / different primary structure; (active site / enzyme 1) changed tertiary shape / changed active sites;
white pigment does not bind;
lilac pigment not produced / white pigment remains unchanged / enzyme 1 does not function;

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128
Q

12) Chlamydomonas lives in fresh-water ponds. It uses its flagella to swim towards light of moderate intesnitryt but away from v eat bright light
using infdirmaton. in the diagram explain the advnagteg of this behaviour

A

chloroplast, so cell photosynthesises and moves to optimum / best light intensity for photosynthesis;
avoids damage due to bright light;

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129
Q

(b)
A Chlamydomonas cell has two flagella. These flagella contain a single sort of protein. A flagellum consists of a bundle of 242 filaments. Each filament consists of 7500 protein molecules. Each protein molecule contains 900 amino acid units.
(i) What would be the minimum number of nucleotides in the coding region of the mRNA used to synthesise this protein?

A

2700

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130
Q

13C Give two factors which might increase the frequency at which a mutation in DNA occurs.

A

high energy radiation / X rays / ultraviolet light / gamma rays; high energy particles / alpha particles / beta particles;
named chemical mutagens e.g. benzene / caffeine / pesticide / mustard gas / tobacco tar / free radicals;
(two named examples of any of the above = 2 marks)
length of time of exposure (to a mutagen); dosage (of mutagen);

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131
Q

13 Lysozyme is an enzyme consisting of a single polypeptide chain of 129 amino acids.
(a) What is the minimum number of nucleotide bases needed to code for this enzyme?

A

387

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132
Q

14 B Describe how the information on mRNA is translated into CFTR at the ribosome.

A

codon on mRNA;
specific / complementary base pairing with; anti-codon on tRNA;
specific tRNA for each amino acid;
protein formed by condensation reactions / peptide bonds formed;

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133
Q

15 BI Describe the role of macrophages in stimulating B lymphocytes.

A

antigen in membrane presented to lymphocytes / produce cytokinins;

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134
Q

16 )Mitochondria contain the genes needed for the synthesis of the enzymes involved in the electron transport chain. One of these enzymes is cytochrome oxidase. If a mutation occurs during replication of the mitochondrial genes, functional cytochrome oxidase may not be produced.
S Explain why mutation of a mitochondrial gene might result in no functional cytochrome oxidase being produced.

A

16
change in base / nucleotide (in DNA);
change in base sequence of mRNA / change in codons / idea of frameshift following deletion or addition / incorrect tRNA / anticodon; incorrect amino acids / different primary structure / fomation of new stop codon;
different tertiary structure / different 3D structure / different polypeptide / shortened polypeptide;
different shape of active site / no active site presen

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135
Q

18) Starting with mRNA, describe how the process of translation leads to the production of a polypeptide.

A

mRNA attaches to ribosome;
codon on mRNA;
binds to an anti-codon on tRNA;
each tRNA brings a specific amino acid;
sequence of codons / bases on mRNA determines order of amino acids; formation of peptide bonds / amino acids joined by condensation reactions;

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136
Q

21 (b)
Explain how a gene codes for a protein

A

Base sequence (on DNA/in gene);
Determines sequence of amino acids;
By determining base sequence on (messenger) RNA; Code is a triplet code/three base code for an amino acid;

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137
Q

21 a two different res tween the structure of dna and rna

A

Large molecule
Smaller
Double stranded
Single stranded
Contains Thymine (T)
Contains Uracil (U)
Contains deoxyribose
Contains ribose

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138
Q

20b describe the part played by rna in protein synthesis

A

Carries coded information about the sequence of amino acids; Copied from DNA/gene;
Code is in sequence of bases / triplet / three bases / a codon codes for one amino acid;
Moves out of nucleus/goes into cytoplasm; To ribosomes

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139
Q

(a) Explain why it was important that the piece of the epidermis that the student removed was thin.

A

single layer of cells so light can pass through

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140
Q

1b Suggest how the student could have used his slide to find the number of stomata per cm

A

Method of determining area of field of view / area seen using microscope;
Count number of stomata in field of view;
Repeats and calculation of mean;

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141
Q

1c The stomata on the leaves of pine trees are found in pits below the leaf surface. Explain how this helps to reduce water loss.

A

Water vapour accumulates / increased humidity / reduced air movement (around stomata);
Water potential / diffusion gradient reduced;

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142
Q

2a What is a tissue?

A

Group of) similar / identical cells / cells with a common origin

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143
Q

2bi Starch was present in the cells of this tissue. Describe how the student could find out where in the cells the starch was present.

A

Add iodine / stain specific for starch to the slide / cells / tissue / add iodine / stain specific for starch and examine under microscope;
Blue-black / blue / black / purple;

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144
Q

2b ii The student cut a thin section of the tissue. Explain why it was important that the section was thin.

A

Need a single layer of cells / only a few cells thick / not too many layers / detail obscured by cells underneath;
Light must be able to pass through;

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145
Q

2c The cell walls of potato cells contain cellulose. Cellulose and starch are both carbohydrates. Describe two ways in which molecules of cellulose are similar to molecules of starch.

A

Both are polymers / made of monomers;
Joined by condensation / molecules can be broken down by hydrolysis;
Both have 1-4 links;
Contain C(arbon), H(ydrogen) and O(xygen) / both made up of glucose;
Both insoluble;
Both contain glycosidic bonds;

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146
Q

3a the scientists put the same number of skin tumour cells in each dish at the start of this investigation. Explain why it was important to put the same number of cells in each dish.

A

To ensure the colour is the same at the start;

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147
Q

3c An article in a newspaper claimed that these data show that bromelain can be used to treat cancer.
Give three reasons why we should be careful about accepting this claim.

A

Use of mouse cells (rather than human);
(Carried out) in vitro / not in living organisms;
Only tested on one type of cancer;

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148
Q

3d The rate of cell division is important in investigations into cancer. Suggest why.

A

The faster the rate of division the faster the cancer would grow;
By measuring rate of cell division you could see how effective the treatment was;

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149
Q

3e cientists have investigated the effects of bromelain on cancer growth in humans. Suggest why they gave bromelain in addition to, rather than instead of, the usual treatment.

A

Not ethical to replace conventional treatment;
As life of patient is at risk (if bromelain not effective);

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150
Q

5aiExplain why
(i) the leaves were homogenised,

A

break open cells / release cell contents;

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151
Q

4
Scientists use optical microscopes and transmission electron microscopes (TEMs) to investigate cell structure. Explain the advantages and the limitations of using a TEM to investigate cell structure.

A

Advantages:
1 Small objects can be seen;
2 TEM has high resolution as wavelength of electrons shorter;
Accept better
Limitations:
3 Cannot look at living cells as cells must be in a vacuum / must cut section / thin specimen;
4 Preparation may create artefact
5 Does not produce colour image;

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152
Q

why buffer solution used

A

keep pH the same / controls pH;

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153
Q

6a Organelle found in plant cells. Contains
inner membranes arranged in stacks. Organelle B
Name organelle B.

A

Chloroplast;

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154
Q

6c ii The ground liver was centrifuged at low speed. The pellet that formed at the bottom of the centrifuge tube was thrown away and the supernatant centrifuged again at higher speed. Explain why it was necessary to first centrifuge the ground liver at low speed in order to obtain a suspension of organelle D

A

To remove organelle C / nuclei; Which are larger / more dense;

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155
Q

7e (e) Skin cells may be studied with a transmission electron microscope or an optical microscope. Explain the advantages and limitations of using a transmission electron microscope to study cells

A

Advantages:
1 Small objects can be seen;
2 TEM has high resolution as wavelength of electrons shorter;
Accept better
Limitations:
3 Cannot look at living cells as cells must be in a vacuum;
4 must cut section / thin specimen;
5 Preparation may create artefact
6 Does not produce colour image;

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156
Q

9a Labelled antibodies and an electron microscope can be used to produce images locating proteins on the surface of organelles, but cannot be used to observe cross bridge cycling in muscle cells. Explain why.

A
  1. e.m. gives high resolution due to short wavelength of electrons;
  2. antibodies attach specifically to target proteins;
  3. gold particles are electron dense;
  4. electrons must pass through a vacuum so material must be dead / fixed for e.m.; 5. cross-bridge cycling requires living cells / metabolism / named aspect-e.g. ATP synthesis;
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157
Q

9b Describe the role of calcium ions and ATP in muscle contraction.

A
  1. Ca removes blocking molecules / uncovers binding site on actin;
    2+
  2. correct references to Ca binding to troponin / moving tropomyosin;
  3. allows myosin heads to attach to actin filaments;
  4. allows sliding of the actin and myosin filaments;
  5. binding of ATP causes myosin (head) to detach (from actin); 6. (hydrolysis of) ATP releases energy;
  6. which changes the configuration / cocking of the myosin head;
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158
Q

10c Starting with some lettuce leaves, describe how you would obtain a sample of undamaged chloroplasts. Use your knowledge of cell fractionation and ultracentrifugation to answer this question.

A
  1. Chop up (accept any reference to crude breaking up); 2. Cold;
  2. Buffer solution;
  3. Isotonic / same water potential;
  4. Filter and centrifuge filtrate;
  5. Centrifuge supernatant;
  6. At higher speed;
  7. Chloroplasts in (second) pellet;
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159
Q

13 a Suggest two variables, other than genotype, which need to be controlled to ensure similar root growth in different plants. In each case give the reason for your answer.

A

ll plants of the same age, so same time for cell divisions / differentiation; all plants given the same watering, so same amount of water for
cell expansion;

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160
Q

12c Describe how a sample consisting only of chloroplasts could be obtained from homogenised plant tissu

A

use of differential centrifugation / or description;
first / low-spin pellet discarded / spin at low speed to remove cell
wall material / cell debris;
supernatant re-spun at higher speed / until pellet with chloroplasts is found; method of identifying chloroplasts e.g. microscopy;

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161
Q

13b Suggest how the proportion of dividing cells in a thin section could be determined.

A

count cells using microscope;
count number of cells in cell division / where chromosomes visible; and then the total number of cells in field of view;

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162
Q

13 c Explain the change in the proportion of dividing cells with increasing distance from the root tip.

A

only cells at tip have ability to divide / cells further back don’t divide; cells further back differentiating / named example of
(accept reference to loss of totipotent cells)
differentiated tissue / too old / reduction in plant hormone;
cell wall too thick / vacuole too large to allow division;

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163
Q

16ii Explain why an electron microscope shows more detail of cell structure than a light microscope.

A

electron microscope has a greater resolving power / objects closer
together can be distinguished;
electron (beams) have a shorter wavelength

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164
Q

16c The length of mitochondria can vary from 1.5 μm to 10 μm but their width never exceeds 1μm. Explain the advantage of the width of mitochondria being no more than 1μm.

A

diffusion pathway / short pathway to the centre / large SA:V ratio

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165
Q

17ci Give the evidence to show that DMD is caused by a recessive allele.

A

8 has DMD but 3 and 4 do not / 12 has DMD but 6 and 7 do not / neither parent has the condition but their child has

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166
Q

17di the number of copies of gene fragments F and G shows that person Explain how.

A

No gene fragment G;

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167
Q

18bi The organelles labelled X all have very similar shapes in this cell. Explain why they appear to have different shapes in this drawing.

A

Sections cut at) different angles/in different planes;

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168
Q

18(ii) Large numbers of organelles X and Z are found in mucus-secreting cells. Explain why.

A

Z modifies/packages/transports/secretes mucus/ Z adds sugars to proteins; X provides ATP/energy (for this);

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169
Q

1a describe how ATP is resynthesised in cells.

A
  1. From ADP and phosphate;
  2. By ATP synthase;
  3. During respiration/photosynthesis;
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170
Q

1b
(b) Give two ways in which the hydrolysis of ATP is used in cells.

A

. To provide energy for other reactions/named process;

  1. To add phosphate to other substances and make them more reactive/change their shape;
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171
Q

2a (a) Phospholipids are one of the storage molecules found in cherry seeds.
Name the type of reaction used to break down phospholipids to release phosphat

A

Hydrolysis (reaction);

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172
Q

2b The scientists concluded that an increase in phosphate in the embryo was linked to growth of the embryo.

Suggest two reasons why an increase in phosphate can be linked to growth of embryo

A

phosphate required to make rna
phosphate required to make dna
phosphate to make atp/adp
phosphate to make membrane
phosphate required for phosphorylation

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173
Q

2d The chilling requirement of seeds of certain plant species is considered to be an adaptation for survival in countries with seasonal changes in environmental conditions.
Suggest how this adaptation may enable these plant species to survive and respond to seasonal changes.

A

(d) 1.
Seeds/embryo remain dormant/inactive in winter/cold

  1. Seeds/plants develop in spring/summer
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174
Q

3a (a) Describe the roles of calcium ions and ATP in the contraction of a myofibril.

A

.1)calcium ions diffuse into mcirofibmilism for ends reticulum
2. (Calcium ions) cause movement of tropomyosin (on actin);
3. (This movement causes) exposure of the binding sites on the actin;
4. Myosin heads attach to binding sites on actin;
5. Hydrolysis of ATP (on myosin heads) causes myosin heads to bend;
6. (Bending) pulling actin molecules;
7. Attachment of a new ATP molecule to each myosin head causes myosin heads
Calcium ions diffuse into myofibrils from (sarcoplasmic) reticulum;
to detach (from actin sites).

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175
Q

3b ATP is an energy source used in many cell processes. Give two ways in which ATP is a suitable energy source for cells to use.

A

1)releases relatively small amount of energy / little energy lost as heat;

  1. Releases energy instantaneously

3)phosphorylkatess other compounds making them more reactive
4)can be rapidly resynthesised
5)is not lost from cells

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176
Q

4a (a) ATP is useful in many biological processes. Explain why.

A

Releases energy in small / manageable amounts;

Broken down) in a one step / single bond broken immediate energy compound / makes energy available rapidly;

  1. Phosphorylates / adds phosphate makes (phosphorylated substances) more reactive / lowers activation energy;

Reformed / made again;

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177
Q

4c Plants produce ATP in their chloroplasts during photosynthesis. They also produce ATP during respiration. Explain why it is important for plants to produce ATP during respiration in addition to during photosynthesis.

A

In the dark no ATP production in photosynthesis;

  1. Some tissues unable to photosynthesise / produce ATP;
  2. ATP cannot be moved from cell to cell / stored;
  3. Plant uses more ATP than produced in photosynthesis;
  4. ATP for active transport / synthesis (of named substance);
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178
Q

5b (b)
Write a simple equation to show how ATP is synthesised from ADP.

A

ADP+Pi→ATP;

179
Q

5c Give two ways in which the properties of ATP make it a suitable source of energy in biological processes.

A

1.
Energy released in small / suitable amounts;

Soluble;

Involves a single / simple reaction;

180
Q

5d Humans synthesise more than their body mass of ATP each day. Explain why it is necessary for them to synthesise such a large amount of ATP.

A

ATP cannot be stored / is an immediate source of energy;
ATP only releases a small amount of energy at a time

181
Q

6a (a)
Describe the part played by the inner membrane of a mitochondrion in producing ATP.

A

electrons transferred down etc
provides energy to take protons
protons pass back through membrane
energy used to combine adp and phosphate

182
Q

6b A scientist investigated ATP production in a preparation of isolated mitochondria. He suspended the mitochondria in an isotonic solution and added a suitable respiratory substrate together with ADP and phosphate. He bubbled oxygen through the preparation.
(i)
(ii)
Why was the solution in which the mitochondria were suspended isotonic?

A

Prevent damage to mitochondria caused by water / osmosis / differences in water potential

183
Q

bii Explain why the scientist did not use glucose as the respiratory substrate.

A

Glucose is used / broken down during glycolysis in cytoplasm / not in mitochondria;

184
Q

7ai n anaerobic respiration, what is the net yield of ATP molecules per molecule of glucose?

A

2 molecule

185
Q

7 ii Give two advantages of ATP as an energy-storage molecule within a cell

A

(ii)
Cannot pass out of cell;
Quickly / easily broken down (hydrolysed) / broken
down in a on-step reaction / immediate source of energy; Stores / releases small amounts of energy;

186
Q

describe how NAD is regenerated in anaerobic respiration in yeast cells.

A

Formed when reduced NAD used to reduce / donate H ions to pyruvate / convert pyruvate to ethanol;

187
Q

8a (a)
Mitochondria in muscle cells have more cristae than mitochondria in skin cells. Explain the advantage of mitochondria in muscle cells having more cristae.

A

more cristae / larger surface area) for electron transport chain /
more enzymes for ATP production / oxidative phosphorylation; muscle cells use more ATP (than skin cells)(not just more respiration);

188
Q

8b Substance X enters the mitochondrion from the cytoplasm. Each molecule has three carbon atoms name substance x

A

pyruvate

189
Q

9ii When glucose is respired what happens to the energy which is not incorporated into ATP?

A

released as heat

190
Q

9bi When one mole of glucose is respired anaerobically, only 2 moles of ATP are produced. Explain why less energy is released in anaerobic respiration.

A

lgucose only partly broken down

191
Q

9bii At the end of a sprint race, a runner continues to breathe rapidly for some time. Explain the advantage of this.

A

(ii) lactate / lactic acid has built up / been produced; oxygen used to break down lactate / convert it back to pyruvate / glucose / glycogen

192
Q

10a Name the substance that muscles use as their immediate energy source

A

atp

193
Q

11 The movement of the woodlice in low relative humidity is an advantage to their survival. Explain how.

A

Low humidity results in more woodlice moving;
So increased movement increased chance of leaving dry / unfavourable environment so reduce water loss / reduce evaporation;

194
Q

Explain why the following steps were necessary in finding the water content of straw:

heating the straw until it reaches constant mass

not heating the straw above 90°C

A

both are polymers / polysaccharides / built up from many sugar units / both contain glycosidic bonds / contain (C)arbon, (H)ydrogen and (O)xygen;

195
Q

covering of lignin protects cellulose from enzyme attack (line 14). Use your knowledge of the way in which enzymes work to explain why cellulose-digesting enzymes do not digest lignin.

A

hemicellulose shorter / smaller than cellulose / fewer carbons; hemicellulose from pentose / five-carbon sugars and cellulose from hexose / glucose / six-carbon sugars;

196
Q

student investigated the stages of mitosis in a garlic root. The root tip was placed on a microscope slide with a stain. A cover slip was placed on top and the root tip was firmly squashed.
(a) Explain why
a root tip was used;
a stain was used;
the root tip was firmly squashed.

A

where mitosis / division / growing occurs

to distinguish chromosomes / chromosomes not visible without stain;

(iii) to let light through / thin layer;

196
Q

12e Describe the structure of a cellulose molecule and explain how cellulose is function in cells.

A
  1. made from β-glucose;
  2. joined by condensation / removing molecule of water / glycosidic bond; 3. 1 : 4 link specified or described;
  3. “flipping over” of alternate molecules;
  4. hydrogen bonds linking chains / long straight chains;
  5. cellulose makes cell walls strong / cellulose fibres are strong; 7. can resist turgor pressure / osmotic pressure / pulling forces; 8. bond difficult to break;
  6. resists digestion / action of microorganisms / enzymes;
197
Q

2a (iii)
Cell C is in interphase. Give two processes which occur during interphase that enable cell division to occur.

A

Increase in volume of cell / volume of cytoplasm / increase in mass / cell bigger; increase in number of organelles;
synthesis of protein / named protein;
DNA replication / increase / chromosomes copied;
ATP synthesis / respiration;

198
Q

Division of the nucleus by meiosis produces haploid cells from a diploid cell. Nuclei produced by mitosis have the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
4 (a)
What is the biological importance of reducing the chromosome number when the cell divides by meiosis?

A

Later fertilisation / cell fusion; (NOT just ‘sexual reproduction’)
Restoring diploid / original number / not doubling chromo

199
Q

4b mitosis and emisosis differences

A

Homologous) chromosomes associate in pairs
(Homologues) independent / do not pair (IGNORE ref. separation
Crossing-over / chiasmata formation
No crossing-over;
Two / (nuclear stages) divisions / → 4 offspring cells
One / (nuclear stage) division / → 2 offspring cells;
Genetically different (product)
Genetically identical (product);

200
Q

5a give one process which occurs in the nucleus of a cell during interphase which is necessary before cell division can take place

A

replication / duplication / doubling of chromosomes / replication of DNA / transcription of DNA;

201
Q

5c
Explain one advantage of cells lining the human gut dividing very frequently.

A

to replace cells;

202
Q

6 (ii) Describe two ways in which both types of tumour ma

A

may damage organ concerned;
may cause blockages / obstructions;
may damage / exert pressure on other organs;

203
Q

bi Explain the link between sunbathing and skin cancer.

A

ecause sun’s radiation contains ultra violet radiation; this causes mutation of genes which control division;

204
Q

bii Suggest why fair-skinned people are at a greater risk of skin cancer than dark-skinned people when sunbathing.

A

because fair skin has little melanin which protects against u.v. radiation

205
Q

iii Suggest why people with a family history of cancer are at a greater risk of cancer than those with no family history of cancer.

A

because cancer has genetic component / may have inherited (onco)gene / gene which gives predisposition to / causes cancer;

206
Q

7
(a) Explain why the new embryos produced are a clone.

A

produced by mitosis; genetically identical;

207
Q

(b) If embryos with more than eight cells are split up, the separated cells fail to develop into new embryos. Suggest why.

A

cells lost ability to control development / no longer totipotent / cells have differentiated / become specialised;

208
Q

8a cell cycle events

A

(D) B E A C;

209
Q

8b phase in whcug dna rep occurs

A

metaphase

210
Q

10a
Describe and explain how the structure of DNA results in accurate replication.

A

2 base pairing / hydrogen bonds holds strands together
3 hydrogen bonds weak / easily broken, allow strands to separate;
4 bases (sequence) (exposed so) act as template / can be copied;
5 A with T, C with G / complementary copy;
6 DNA one parent and one new strand;
(b)
(c)
1) two strands therefore semi-conservative replication (possible);

211
Q

9c (c)
Most plants produce seeds after fertilisation in sexual reproduction. However,
dandelions produce small, windblown seeds without fertilisation taking place. Suggest two advantages to the dandelion of being able to reproduce from these seeds, as well as from pieces of root.

A

dispersal / prevent overcrowding / competition / colonise ; increased number of (proven) offspring; (not quicker)

212
Q

(b) Describe the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis and explain how this results in the production of two genetically identical cells.

A

chromosomes shorten / thicken / supercoiling;
chromosomes (each) two identical chromatids / strands / copies
(due to replication);
chromosomes / chromatids move to equator / middle of the spindle / cell; attach to individual spindle fibres;
spindle fibres contract / centromeres divide / repel;
(sister) chromatids / chromosomes (separate)
move to opposite poles / ends of the spindle;
each pole / end receives all genetic information /
identical copies of each chromosome;
nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes / chromatids / at each pole;

213
Q

A cancerous tumour is formed by uncontrolled mitotic division. This results
cells with an inadequate blood supply. Drugs are being developed which only kill cells in a low oxygen environment. Suggest how these drugs could be useful in the treatment of cance

A

ancer cells killed, normal body cells survive;
cancer cells low oxygen (as blood supply cannot satisfy demand);

214
Q

13a what is clone

A

genetically identical cells / individuals;

214
Q

12b Explain why meiosis is important in sexual reproduction, apart from producing gametes that are genetically different.

A

produces haploid cells / chromosome number halved;
fertilisation maintains the diploid / chromosome number (in next generation);

215
Q

13b (b) Name the type of cell division occurring in a developing embryo.

A

mitosis

216
Q

13c he embryo cells used are from an early stage of development. Explain why

A

no differentiation at this stage / same genes being expressed;

217
Q

13 e Give two differences between the nuclei removed from the embryo cells and the nuclei discarded from the unfertilised egg cells.

A

embryo cell diploid, egg cell haploid;
contain different alleles / forms of the colour gene

218
Q

14a Research scientists can increase the nutritional value of potatoes by genetically engineering potato plants. A gene which results in increased protein production has been removed from cells of an amaranth plant and inserted into cells of a potato plant.
(a) Describe how a gene could be removed from cells of an amaranth plant and inserted into cells of a potato plant.

A

cut out gene using an) endonuclease / restriction enzyme; reference to specificity / recognition site;
sticky ends;
use the same enzyme to cut;
plasmid / virus / potato DNA;
fixed by ligase;
method of introducing vector e.g. micropipette / virus injects DNA / remove plant cell wall

219
Q

13f nly 30% of the cloned cells successfully developed into embryos. Suggest a reason for this low success rate.

A

damage to nucleus / cells during transfer

220
Q

14b Whole potato plants can be produced from genetically identical potato cells grown in a tissue culture. Use your knowledge of genes to suggest how different cells, such as leaf and root cells, can develop from genetically identical cells.

A

different genes are expressed; producing different enzymes / proteins

221
Q

15b (b)
Describe two events during interphase which prepare a cell for mitosis.

A

DNA replication;
synthesis or proteins / build-up of energy stores / growth / increase in cytoplasm;
replication of organelles / named example;

222
Q

16 a (a) Describe what is meant by a malignant tumour.

A

mass of undifferentiated / unspecialised / totipotent cells; uncontrolled cell division;
metastasis / (cells break off and) form new tumours / spread to other parts of body;

223
Q

1a (a)
Gas exchange in fish takes place in gills. Explain how two features of gills gas exchange.

A

(a)
Filaments / lamellae provide large surface area;
Thin / flattened epithelium / one / two cell layers so short diffusion pathway (between water and blood);
Countercurrent / blood flow maintains concentration / diffusion gradient;

224
Q

1bii (
The scale for plotting body mass is a logarithmic scale. Explain why a logarithmic scale was used to plot body mass

A

Large / wide range of values (so can fit on graph);;

225
Q

1biii The zoologist measured oxygen uptake per gram of body mass. Explain why he measured oxygen uptake per gram of body mass.

A

Enables comparison;
As animals differ in size / mass;

226
Q

(ii) Apart from reduced elasticity, explain how changes to the lung tissue efficiency of gas exchang

A

Allow description of process of engulfing
Alveoli / lungs will not inflate / deflate fully / reduced lung capacity;
Breathing out particularly affected / no longer passive;
Alveolar walls thicken;
Longer diffusion pathway;
Scarred / fibrous tissue;
Reduces surface area (for gaseous exchange);

227
Q

(c) (i)
Doctors did not make the link between exposure to asbestos and an increased risk of developing lung cancer for many years. Use information in the passage to explain why.

A

Cancer develops 20 – 30 years after exposure (to asbestos);

228
Q

(ii) Give one factor, other than asbestos, which increases the risk of developing lung cancer.

A

Smoking / air pollution / specified industrial source;

229
Q

3 (a)
A fish uses its gills to absorb oxygen from water. Explain how the gills of a for efficient gas exchange.

A

large surface area provided by lamellae / filaments increases diffusion / makes diffusion efficient;;

  1. Water and blood flow in opposite directions / countercurrent;
  2. (Point 4) maintains concentration gradient (along gill) / equilibrium not reached / as water always next to blood with lower concentration of oxygen;
  3. Circulation replaces blood saturated with oxygen;
  4. Ventilation replaces water (as oxygen removed);
230
Q

Mackerel live in the surface waters of the sea. Toadfish live on the seabed in deep water.
(b) The concentration of oxygen is higher in the surface waters than it is in water close to the seabed. Suggest why.

A

Mixing of air and water (at surface);
Air has higher concentration of oxygen than water;
Diffusion into water;
Plants / seaweeds near surface / in light;
Produce oxygen by photosynthesis;

231
Q

(5c)
Explain how movement of the liver causes air to enter a crocodile’s lungs.

A

liver moves back;
increases volume of lungs;
pressure lower (in lungs than outside);

232
Q

(d) Describe the difference in the composition of gases in inhaled and exhaled
air. Explain how
these differences are caused.

A

1 inhaled air contains more oxygen than exhaled air;
2 inhaled air contains less carbon dioxide than exhaled air;
3 inhaled air contains less water (vapour);
4 relative amount / percentage of nitrogen also changes;
5 respiration results in lower blood oxygen / higher blood carbon dioxide;
6 oxygen enters blood / carbon dioxide leaves blood in alveoli;
7 by diffusion;
8 water vapour diffuses from moist surface;

233
Q

6b sorgum has few stomata per mm2 of lear surface area
explain how this is an adaption to the conditions in which is grows

A

grows in arid / dry conditions;
less surface area;
(rate of) transpiration / water loss would be reduced;

233
Q

8 ci. Use information from the graph to sketch a curve on the axes below to show how the volume of air in the lungs changes during inspiration.
The intercostal muscles are between the ribs. In normal breathing, describe the part played by the intercostal muscles
(i) during inspiration;

A

ontract;
ribs move upwards / out;
increasing volume / decreasing pressure in chest

234
Q

8c ii he intercostal muscles are between the ribs. In normal breathing, describe the part played by the intercostal muscles
(ii) during expiration.

A

(ii) intercostal muscles relax;

235
Q

9b Explain what causes the oxygen concentration in the tracheae to fall when close

A

oxygen is used in) respiration therefore diffuses (from tracheae) to tissues; oxygen unable to enter organism;

236
Q

(c) The insect lives in dry conditions. Suggest an advantage of the pattern of spiracle movements shown in the diagram.

A

spiracles not open all the time; therefore there is less water loss (by diffusion through spiracles);

237
Q

10 In the lungs, the alveoli are the site of gas exchange.
(a) A large number of small alveoli is more efficient in gas exchange than a smaller number of larger alveoli. Explain why.

A

Small alveoli with) large surface area; For diffusion;

238
Q

10 c just before a person starts to exhale, the composition of the air in an alveolus differs from the composition of the air in the trachea.
(i) Give two ways in which the composition would differ.

A

Less oxygen / more carbon dioxide / more water vapour;

239
Q

di
Through which vessel does blood leave the heart to go to the lungs?

A

Pulmonary artery

240
Q

dii ggest why blood returning to the heart from the lungs contains some carbon dioxide.

A

Concentrations reach equilibrium / become equal; Diffusion occurs when there is a concentration gradien

241
Q

13 Describe the part played by the diaphragm in causing air to enter the lungs during breathing

A

diaphragm (muscle) contracts; Flattens / Increases volume of chest; Reduced pressure allows air to enter;

241
Q

10b (b) Describe how an increase in lung volume leads to air entering the lungs.

A

Produces lower pressure (and air moves in down pressure gradient);

242
Q

14 b Cell A is a eukaryotic cell. Give two features that may be found in a prokaryotic cell which are not found in cell A.

A

ell wall;
Capsule;
Flagellum;
Mesosomes;
Plasmid;
Genetic material / DNA / nucleoid; Ribosomes;

243
Q

17a
Describe the features of fish gills that give them a large surface area.

A

(gills have) lamellae on filaments; lots of both;

244
Q

20ai
(i) Explain how the structure of the gill makes oxygen uptake efficient.

A

(a)
(i)
one feature;
then linked Explanation;
(many) filaments / lamellae / secondary lamellae; so large surface area;
large number of capillaries; (NOT “good blood supply”) maintains a diffusion gradient / removes oxygen;
thin epithelium / lamellae wall; short diffusion pathway;

244
Q

19 I (i)
Explain how the cuticle reduces water loss.

A

waxy so) impermeable to water / waterproof / stops water passing through;

245
Q

20 aii ater containing dissolved oxygen flows over the gill in the opposite direction to the blood flow inside. Explain why this arrangement is important for efficient oxygen uptake.

A

maintains diffusion / concentration gradient / equilibrium not reached;
diffusion occurs across whole length (of lamellae / gill);

246
Q

20b
There is a one-way flow of water over the gills of a fish whereas there is a two-way flow of air in the lungs of a mammal. Suggest one advantage to a fish of this one-way flow of water over its gills.

A

ess energy needed / continuous flow of water or O ;

247
Q

21a (a)
Describe how air is taken to lungs

A

contraction of (diaphragm) muscles flattens diaphragm; contraction of intercostal muscles raises ribcage; increase in volume decreases pressure;

248
Q

22a Describe and explain how fish maintain a flow of water over their gills.

A

. mouth opens, operculum / opercular valve shuts;
2. floor of mouth lowered;
3. water enters due to decreased pressure / increased volume; 4. mouth closes, operculum / opercular valve opens;
5. floor raised results in increased pressure / decreased volume; 6. high / increased pressure forces / pushes water over gills;

249
Q

(b)
Describe and explain how the structure of the mammalian breathing system enables efficient uptake of oxygen into the blood.

A
  1. alveoli provide a large surface area;
  2. walls of alveoli thin to provide a short diffusion pathway; 3. walls of capillary thin / close to alveoli provides
    a short diffusion pathway;
  3. walls (of capillaries / alveoli) have flattened cells;
  4. cell membrane permeable to gases;
  5. many blood capillaries provide a large surface area;
  6. intercostal / chest muscles / diaphragm muscles / to ventilate lungs /
    maintain a diffusion / concentration gradient;
  7. wide trachea / branching of bronchi / bronchioles for efficient
    flow of air;
  8. cartilage rings keep airways open;
250
Q

23a When first hatched, the young of some species of fish are less than 2 mm
Explain how these young fish get enough oxygen to their cells without having gills.

A

exchange / diffusion across body surface / skin; short diffusion pathway / distance / large SA:V ratio

251
Q

24a Explain how the ventilation mechanism of a fish and the structure of its gills result in the efficient uptake of oxygen from water.

A

laments / lamellae ;
large SA;
gill plates or secondary lamellae;
large number of capillaries;
to remove oxygen / to maintain a gradient;
thin epithelium;
short diffusion pathway;
pressure changes;
to bring in more water / to maintain gradient;
countercurrent flow (or description);
exchange / diffusion along whole length / concentration gradient maintained / equilibrium not achieved / blood always meets water with higher oxyge

252
Q

24c A rise in the temperature of water decreases the amount of oxygen dissolved in the water. As the water temperature rises, the rate of ventilation in a fish also rises. Explain the advantage of this.

A

to provide same amount of oxygen;
need to have more water flowing over gills;
OR
metabolic rate / respiration increases (with increase in temperature); so more oxygen required;

253
Q

25a Describe two differences between active transport and facilitated diffusion.

A

Active transport against / facilitated down with concentration gradient;

Active transport uses ATP/energy, /facilitated doesn’t

254
Q

25b Explain why molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are able to diffuse across membranes.

A

(b) Lipid/fatty acid part of membrane is non-polar/hydrophobic;
Accept lipid/fatty acid bilayer
Oxygen and carbon dioxide small/ non-polar (molecules);
Oxygen/carbon dioxide can diffuse through/dissolve in/ get between molecules in this layer;
Down a concentration gradient;

255
Q

(c) Explain why ventilation of the lungs increases the efficiency of gas exchange.

A

(c) Brings more oxygen/removes carbon dioxide;
Maintains diffusion/concentration gradients;
Between alveoli and blood/capillaries;

256
Q

26ai Hydrogen peroxide reacts with two amino acids in alpha-1-antitrypsin. Explain how this reduces activity of the protein.

A

Changes shape of antitrypsin;
Reference to hydrogen/ionic/disulfide bonds;
No longer attaches to/interacts/ reacts with trypsin;

257
Q

1d the arrows in Figure 2 show the directions in which each new DNA strand is being produced.
(d) Use Figure 1, Figure 2 and your knowledge of enzyme action to explain why the arrows point in opposite directions.

A

(Figure 1 shows) DNA has antiparallel strands / described;

  1. Enzymes have active sites with specific shape;
  2. Only substrates with complementary shape / only the 3’ end can bind with
    active site of enzyme / active site of DNA polymerase.
258
Q

4bi (i) Humans and grasshoppers have very similar percentages of each base in their DNA but they are very different organisms.Use your knowledge of DNA structure and function to explain how this ispossible

A

have different genes
so bases in diff sequence
so diff amino acid sequence codes for diff polypeptides

259
Q

ii The DNA of the virus is different from that of other organisms. Use the table above and your knowledge of DNA to suggest what this difference is. Explain your answer.

A
  1. Circular / non-linear (DNA);
    Accept converse for eukaryotic DNA
    Ignore: references to nucleus, binary fission, strands and plasmids
  2. Not (associated) with proteins / histones;
    Accept does not form chromosomes / chromatin
  3. No introns / no non-coding DNA
260
Q

5a 5
(a) The events that take place during interphase and mitosis lead to the production of two genetically identical cells. Explain how.

A

DNA replicated;
Involving) specific / accurate / complementary base-pairin
(Ref to) two identical / sister chromatids;
Each chromatid / moves / is separated to (opposite) poles / ends of cell.
2 max

261
Q

b(i) The student cut thin sections of tissue to view with an optical microscope. Explain why it was important that the sections were thin.

A

To allow (more) light through;
A single / few layer(s) of cells to be viewed.

262
Q

6a (a) Explain how the structure of DNA is related to its functions.

A

Sugar-phosphate (backbone) / double stranded / helix so provides strength / stabil
2. Long / large molecule so can store lots of information;
Helix / coiled so compact;
Base sequence allows information to be stored / base sequence codes for amino acids / protein;

  1. Double stranded so replication can occur semi-conservatively / strands can act as templates / complementary base pairing / A-T and G-C so accurate replication / identical copies can be made;
  2. (Weak) hydrogen bonds for replication / unzipping / strand separation / many hydrogen bonds so stable / strong;
263
Q

7a) DNA helicase is important in DNA replication. Explain why

A

Separates / unwinds / unzips strands / helix / breaks H-bonds;
So) nucleotides can attach / are attracted / strands can act as template

264
Q

11ii Describe what happens during this stage that results in the production genetically identical cells.

A

Chromosome / centromere splits / chromatids / ‘chromosomes’ separate / pulled apart;
To (opposite) sides / poles / centrioles (of cell);

265
Q

8 cii Explain how the doctor could have recognised which cells were in interphase when looking at the tissue samp

A

No visible chromosomes / chromatids / visible nucleus;

266
Q

(11 a) In prophase of mitosis, the chromosomes become visible. Describe what happens in
metaphase anapahse

A

spindle formed / chromosome / centromere / chromatids attaches to spindle;
Chromosomes / chromatids line up / move to middle / equator (of cell);

267
Q

11bi Cells lining the human intestine complete the cell cycle in a short time. Explain the advantage of these cells completing the cell cycle in a short time.

A

Form / replace cells quickly / rapidly / divide / multiply / replicate rapidly

268
Q

(13 c) (i)
Hydrogen bonds are important in cellulose molecules. Explain why.

A

Holds chains / cellulose molecules together / forms cross links between chains / cellulose molecules / forms microfibrils, providing strength / rigidity (to cellulose / cell wall);

Hydrogen bonds strong in large numbers;x

268
Q

ii A starch molecule has a spiral shape. Explain why this shape is important to its function in cells

A

(ii) Compact / occupies small space / tightly packed;

269
Q

15 e
(e) Explain how a change in a sequence of DNA bases could result in a non-functional enzyme.

A

Change in hydrogen / ionic / disulfide bonds leads to change in tertiary structure / active site (of enzyme);
Substrate cannot bind / no enzyme-substrate complexes form;

Change in (sequence of) amino acids / primary structure;

270
Q

18ai (i)
(ii)
Explain what is meant by a polymer.

A

olecule) made up of many identical / similar molecules / monomers / subunits;

270
Q

20 e ii Restriction enzymes that can cut the DNA of chromosomes 2 and 3 produce pieces that are too small for analysis. Explain why these restriction enzymes produce small DNA fragments.

A

Recognition sites contain only AT pairs; Which would occur very frequently;

271
Q

ii Give one example of a biologically important polymer other than starch or protein.

A

Cellulose

272
Q

21a
Explain why the replication of DNA is described as semi-conservative.

A

each strand copied / acts as a template;
(daughter) DNA one new strand and one original / parent strand;

273
Q

22a
Describe and explain how the structure of DNA results in accurate replication.

A

1 two strands therefore semi conservative rep
2 base pairing / hydrogen bonds holds strands together
3 hydrogen bonds weak / easily broken, allow strands to separate;
4 bases (sequence) (exposed so) act as template / can be copied;
5 A with T, C with G / complementary copy;
6 DNA one parent and one new strand;

273
Q

22b Describe the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis and explain how this results in the production of two genetically identical cells.

A

(b) 1 chromsosomes shorten
2 chromosomes (each) two identical chromatids / strands / copies
(due to replication);
3 chromosomes / chromatids move to equator / middle of the spindle / cell;
4 attach to individual spindle fibres;
5 spindle fibres contract / centromeres divide / repel;
6 (sister) chromatids / chromosomes (separate)
move to opposite poles / ends of the spindle;
7 each pole / end receives all genetic information /
identical copies of each chromosome;
8 nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes /
chromatids / at each pole;

274
Q

22c A cancerous tumour is formed by uncontrolled mitotic division. This results
cells with an inadequate blood supply. Drugs are being developed which only kill cells in a low oxygen environment. Suggest how these drugs could be useful in the treatment of cancer.

A

(c)
cancer cells killed, normal body cells survive;
cancer cells low oxygen (as blood supply cannot satisfy demand

275
Q

23b(b)
Give two ways in which the structure of a molecule of tRNA differs from the structure of a molecule of mRNA.

A

tRNA ‘clover leaf’ shape; (allow reference to loop / folded structure) tRNA standard length;
tRNA has an amino acid binding site;
tRNA has anticodon available / three exposed bases;
tRNA has hydrogen bonds (between base pairs);

276
Q

24a Explain what is meant by an allel

A

diff from of a gene

277
Q

b Explain how DNA replicates.

A

ydrogen bonds broken;
semi-conservative replication / both strands used (as templates);
nucleotides line up complementary / specific base pairing / A and T / C and G; DNA polymerase

278
Q

c Explain why a mutation involving the deletion of a base may have a greater effect than one involving substitution of one base for another

A

deletion causes frame shift / alters base sequence (from point of mutation); changes many amino acids / sequence of amino acids (from this point); substitution alters one codon

279
Q

25 ci he sequence of bases on one strand of DNA is important for protein is its role?

A

determines (sequence of) amino acids / specific protein produced / mRNA formation;

280
Q

25cii How are the two strands of the DNA molecule held together

A

hydrogen bonds

281
Q

iii Give one advantage of DNA molecules having two strand

A

stability

282
Q

28b Describe the part played by RNA in protein synthesis.

A

Carries coded information about the sequence of amino acids; Copied from DNA/gene;
Code is in sequence of bases / triplet / three bases / a codon codes for one amino acid;
Moves out of nucleus/goes into cytoplasm; To ribosomes;

283
Q

29 b (b)
Describe how, after the parent DNA strands separated, the second strand of DNA in region Y was formed.

A

semi-conservative replication; Complementary pairing;
Hydrogen bonding (of bases/nucleotides); Condensation/described of nucleotides; DNA polymerase involved;

284
Q

dna vs rna

A

Smaller
Double stranded
Single stranded
Contains Thymine (T)
Contains Uracil (U)
Contains deoxyribose
Contains ribose

285
Q

explain how a gene codes for a protein

A

Base sequence (on DNA/in gene);
Determines sequence of amino acids;
By determining base sequence on (messenger) RNA; Code is a triplet code/three base code for an amino acid;

286
Q

30 c what are homologous chromosomes

A

Pairs of chromosomes/two chromosomes;
With genes for same features / with same genes; At same loci / in same sequence;

287
Q

1a what is a phylogenic group

A

(Grouped according to) evolutionary links/history/relationships / common ancestry;

287
Q

1b what is a species

A

ble to reproduce;
to produce fertile offspring

287
Q

2c one source of prehsistoriic dna

A

bone/skin/preserved remains

287
Q

2e Other than hunting, suggest two reasons why populations might show very low levels of genetic diversity.

A
  1. Population might have started with small number of individuals / by one pregnant female
    interbreeding
288
Q

what is meant by genetic diversity

A

number of different alleles of each genes

289
Q

4a Give three ways in which courtship behaviour increases the probability of successful mating

A
  1. Stimulates / synchronises mating / production / release of gametes;
  2. Recognition / attraction of mate / opposite sex;
  3. Indication of (sexual) maturity / fertility / receptivity / readiness to mate;
290
Q

4(b) The scientists wanted to know if the recorded natural song was less effective than the natural song in stimulating courtship behaviour.

suggest how the scientists could determine if the recorded natural song was less effective than the natural song

A

Use a (real) male (with intact wings / no wing removed);
Determine (percentage) response

291
Q

5c this classification system consists of a hierarchy as there are small groups within larger groups.
Give one other feature of a hierarchy that is shown in the diagram.

A

no overlap

292
Q

6ai what isn meant by a hierarchy

A

groups within groups
no overlap between groups

293
Q

bi explain the role of independent segregation in meiosis

A

(To provide) genetic variation;
Allows) different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes

294
Q

6ii A zedonk is the offspring produced from breeding a mountain zebra with a donkey.
* The body cells of a mountain zebra contain 32 chromosomes.
* The body cells of a donkey contain 62 chromosomes.
Use this information to suggest why zedonks are usually infertile.

A

Zedonk has) 47 / odd / uneven number of chromosomes;
Chromosomes cannot pair / are not homologous / chromosome number cannot be halved / meiosis cannot occur / sex cells / haploid cells are not produced;

295
Q

7ii The forest was cleared to make more land available for agriculture.
After the forest was cleared the species diversity of insects in the area Explain why.

A

decrease in variety if plants
fewer habitats
decrease in variety of food

296
Q

9 The Amazonian forest today contains a very high diversity of bird species.
* Over the last 2 000 000 years, long periods of dry climate caused this forest to separate into a number of smaller forests.
* Different plant communities developed in each of these smaller forests.
* Each time the climate became wetter again, the smaller forests grew in size and merged to reform the Amazonian forest.
(a) Use the information provided to explain how a very high diversity of bird species has developed in the Amazonian forest.

A

no interbreeding
mutation
different selection pressures
adapted organisms survive and breed
change in allele frequency

297
Q

9b Speciation is far less frequent in the reformed Amazonian forest. Suggest one reason for this.

A

Similar / same environmental / abiotic / biotic factors / similar / same selection pressures / no isolation / gene flow can occur (within a species);

298
Q

(10c) The biologists analysed the amino acid sequences of the blood protein samples from these hummingbirds.
Explain how these sequences could provide evidence as to whether the crimson topaz and the fiery topaz are different species.

A

Different species would have different amino acid sequences;

Amino acid sequence is the result of DNA / alleles / base sequence;

299
Q

(14a)
An order is a taxonomic group. All seals belong to the same order. Name one other taxonomic group to which all seals belong.

A

kingdom /phylum/class

299
Q

what is meant by genetic diversity 14c

A

difference in dna /base sequence/alleles/ genes

300
Q

15d In another investigation, the same female guinea pig was twice mated with another male which had long, brown hair. Of the 14 offspring, 10 had short, black hair and 4 had long, black hair. The investigators expected equal numbers of offspring with these two phenotypes. They used a χ2 test to determine whether the observed results fitted the expected 1:1 ratio.
Give a suitable null hypothesis for the investigation.

A

There is no (significant) difference between observed and expected results / any difference is due to chance;

301
Q

19 ci Despite differences in form, leopards, tigers and lions are classified as different species of the same genus. Cheetahs, although similar in form to leopards, are classified in a different genus.
(i)
(ii)
Describe one way by which different species may be distinguished.

A

do not interbreed to rpdoducde fertile pfffsping

302
Q

ii Suggest two other sources of evidence which scientists may have used to classify cheetahs and leopards in different genera.

A

(ii) fossil record;
evolutionary history / phylogeny;
biochemical differences e.g. DNA / proteins / cytochromes; homologous features / named feature;

303
Q

(20 b) Differences in cyanide production may affect the total number of clover plants growing in different areas. Describe how you would use quadrats in an investigation to determine whether or not there is a difference in the number of clover plants in two large areas of equal size.

A

large (and equal) number of quadrats in each area;
(reject several)
random sampling method, described;
(accept described ‘systematic’ method)
percentage cover / point hits per quadrat / count plants; mean / average value for each area;

304
Q

l ake Malawi in East Africa contains around 400 different species of cichlids which are small, brightly coloured fish. All these species have evolved from a common ancestor.
21 (a) Describe one way in which scientists could find out whether cichlids from two different populations belong to the same species.

A

breed together if fertile offspring then same species

305
Q

21b During the last 700 000 years there have been long periods when the water level was much lower and Lake Malawi split up into many smaller lakes. Explain how speciation of the cichlids may have occurred following the formation of separate, smaller lakes.

A

isolation of two populations;
variation already present due to mutations;
different environmental conditions / selection pressures leading to selection of different features and hence different alleles;
different frequency of alleles;
separate gene pools / no interbreeding;

306
Q

21c
Many species of cichlids are similar in size and, apart from their colour, in appearance. Suggest how the variety of colour patterns displayed by these cichlids may help to maintain the fish as separate species.

A

selection of mate dependent on colour pattern; prevents interbreeding / keeps gene pools separate;

307
Q

22a
Explain the principles which biologists use to classify organisms into groups.

A

large groups are divided into smaller groups;
(not just ‘hierarchical’ )
members of a group have features in common based on anatomy / fossils / embryology / DNA / specific aspect of cell biology
/ homologous structures;
reflects evolutionary history;

308
Q

cWhat does the phylogenetic tree show about the evolutionary relationship between fungi and insects?

A

(insects and fungi) have common ancestor;
they diverged a long time ago / before others referred to in phylogenetic tree;

309
Q

23bi
(b) Suggest how the courtship sequences provide evidence to support the claim that the two species are
(i) closely related;
ii speerate species

A

similar sequence / actions / sign stimuli;

310
Q

23c During courtship, vibration of the wings creates a sound. The sound is different in the two species of fruitfly. Explain how this prevents mating between members of different species.

A

(acts as) sign stimulus;
responds only to species-specific sound;

311
Q

1(d) The scientists placed traps to collect the dung beetles at sites chosen at random.
Explain the importance of the sites being chosen at random.

A

no bias

312
Q

1e
(e) On the intensive farms, the farmers had removed hedges to increase land for grazing. This resulted in a decrease in the diversity of birds on these farms.
Explain why the removal of hedges caused a decrease in the diversity of bird

A

-Removes species/types of plant/insect;
-Fewer food sources;
-Fewer habitats/niches;

313
Q

2a species diversity

A

Number of species in a community;

314
Q

2(b) Give two pieces of information needed to calculate an index of diversity for a community.

A

Number of (organisms of) each species;
Total number of organisms (of all species)

315
Q

2c A scientist investigated the effect sewage entering a river had on the distribution of organisms living in the river. Where sewage entered the river, he found a high density of organisms but a low index of diversity.
Suggest how sewage entering the river could explain the scientist’s findings.

A

Described effect of sewage
Prevents some/many species colonising/ reproducing/remaining
Sewage is food source for (individuals of) some/a few/species;
(So) increase only in their numbers;

316
Q

(d) A second scientist repeated the investigation of the first scientist at the same place. The second scientist obtained a high index of diversity.

Explain how the second set of results affects the ability of the scientists to make any conclusions about the effect of sewage on the index of diversity

A

Results are not repeatable / are not representative

Can’t make any conclusions;

317
Q

dii
Suggest the additional steps that should be taken by the scientists before they are able to make any conclusions about the effect of sewage entering this river.

A

Do repeats to find a pattern/distribution/mean (of index of diversity);

318
Q

4a
Species richness and an index of diversity can be used to measure biodiversity within a community.
(a) What is the difference between these two measures of biodiversity?

A

Species richness measures only number of (different) species / does not measure number of individuals.

319
Q

4b (b) The traps in the canopy were set at 16–27 m above ground level. Suggest why there was such great variation in the height of the traps.

A

trees vary in height

320
Q

5a
Ecologists investigated the size of an insect population on a small island. They used a mark-release-recapture method. To mark the insects they used a fluorescent powder. This powder glows bright red when exposed to ultraviolet (UV) light.
(a) The ecologists captured insects from a number of sites on the island. Suggest how they decided where to take their samples.

A

draw grid over map of area
select squares/coordinates at random

321
Q

5b Give two assumptions made when using the mark-release-recapture method.

A

no emigration
no losses to predation
marking does not affect survival
birth rate and date rate equal
all belong to one population

322
Q

5e he ecologists expected to obtain the same result from their calculations of the number of insects on this island on each day during the period 1–5 days after release. In fact, their estimated number increased after day 1.
During the same period, the number of insects they caught decreased.
The method used by the ecologists might have caused these changes.
Use the information provided to suggest one way in which the method used by the ecologists might have caused the increase in their estimates of the size of the insect population.

A

Scientists removed large numbers of insects (which were not returned) from same area
affecting ratio of marked to unmarked

323
Q

6ii the ecologists also determined the index of diversity of lizards in an oil palm plantation next to the woodland area. They found fewer species of plant in the oil palm plantation. Lizards feed on plants and insects.
Explain why fewer species of plant would lead to fewer species of lizard in the oil palm plantation.

A
  1. (So) few(er) habitats / niches
  2. (So) lower diversity of insects / fewer insect species / fewer insect types;
  3. (So) fewer food sources / less variety of food
324
Q

7a What two measurements are needed to calculate an index of diversity?

A

Number of (individuals of) each species;

Total number of individuals / number of species;

325
Q

7b I Some fields acted as controls. They were sprayed with a solution that did not contain
the herbicide. Explain the purpose of these control fields.

A

(Shows) results are due to the herbicide / are not due to another factor / (to) compare the effect of using and not using the herbicide / shows the effect of adding the herbicide;

326
Q

8ai
(a) Name the process that resulted in the development of woodland from farmland.

A

succession

327
Q

8b Explain the increase in the diversity of birds as the woodland develope

A

Greater variety / diversity of plants / insects / more plant / insect species;
More food sources / more varieties of food;
Greater variety / more habitats / niches;

328
Q

8c (i)
Give two factors which could be limiting the rate of photosynthesis in the sun plant between points A and B on the figure.

A

temp co2

329
Q

8cii Explain why CO uptake is a measure of net productivity. 2

A

Shows (gross) photosynthesis / productivity minus respiration / more carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis than produced in respiration;

330
Q

9a what is a species

A

Group of similar organisms / organisms with similar features / organisms with same genes / chromosomes;

Reproduce / produce offspring;

That are fertile;

331
Q

9f After the forest was cleared the species diversity of insects in the area Explain why

A

Decrease in variety of plants / fewer plant species;

fewer habitats
decrease in variety of food

332
Q

11a (a) There are ethical and economic arguments for maintaining biodiversity.

Suggest one ethical argument for maintaining biodiversity.

A

(We should maintain biodiversity to)
Prevent extinction / loss of populations / reduction in populations / loss of habitats / save organisms for future generations (idea of);

333
Q

Suggest one economic argument for maintaining biodiversity.

A
  1. medical / pharmaceutical uses;
  2. commercial products / example given;
  3. tourism;
  4. agriculture;
  5. saving local forest communities;
334
Q

11d The ecologists noted that the species of birds surviving on the coldest islands had a larger body size than those surviving on warmer islands.
Explain how a larger body size is an adaptation to a colder climate

A

(Larger birds have) a low(er) SA:VOL;

(So) less heat loss / more heat retained;

335
Q

12a The scientists collected insects at sites chosen at random. Explain the importance of the sites being chosen at random.

A

removes biases

336
Q

12d Farmers were offered grants by the government to plant hedges around their fields. Explain the effect planting hedges could have on the index of diversity for animals.

A

Greater variety of plants
nother habitat / more habitats / places to live / niches / another food source / more food types;

337
Q

13a A student investigated the diversity of plants at several sites on a golf course. At each site she took a large number of random samples

A

produces a more reliable mean

338
Q

ii
Explain the importance of taking samples at random.

A

removes biases

339
Q

13c he golf course was produced.
The golf course had
* some areas of
* some areas of
* some areas of
surrounded by undeveloped grassland from which it had been
very short grass which was cut frequently
longer grass which was cut less frequently
long grass and shrubs which were never cut.
The index of diversity for the insects on the golf course was higher than that for the surrounding undeveloped grassland.
Explain the effect of developing this golf course on the index of diversity of insects.

A

increase in variety of plants
more habitats
greater variety of food sources

340
Q

14a Costa Rica is a Central American country. It has a high level of species diversity.
(a) There are over 12 000 species of plants in Costa Rica. Explain how this has high species diversity of animals.

A

More habitats / niches;

Greater variety / different foods;

341
Q

14b (b)
The number of species present is one way to measure biodiversity. Explain why an index of diversity may be a more useful measure of biodiversity.

A

Also measures number of individuals in a species / different proportions of species;
Some species may be present in low / high numbers

342
Q

14ci Crops grown in Costa Rica are sprayed with pesticides. Pesticides are substances that kill pests. Scientists think that pollution of water by pesticides has reduced the number of species of frog

A

Large surface area to volume (ratio) / permeable / thin (outer layer); Correct reference to diffusion

343
Q

15a (a)
What information is required to calculate an index of diversity for a particular community?

A

Number of a / each (species);

344
Q

b (b) Farmers clear tropical forest and grow crops instead. Explain how this causes the diversity of insects in the area to decrease.

A

Lower diversity of plants / few species of plants / less variety of plants / few plant layers;
Few sources / types of food / feeding sites; / few habitats / niches;
Fewer (species of) herbivore so few (species of) carnivores;

345
Q

(d) A farmer who wanted to increase the diversity of birds on his land read about this investigation.
He concluded that clearing the plants from one bank would not decrease diversity as much as clearing the plants from both banks. Evaluate this conclusion.

A

Total number of birds along ditch B / ditch with one side cleared greater than along ditch A / ditch with both sides cleared;

But only gives data for all birds / does not give data for species / data not about diversity;

single ditch / single occasion / not repeated / no control;

346
Q

18a Deforestation reduces the diversity index of an area cleared in this way. Explain why.

A

deforestation removes many habitats / niches fewer species / fewer types of organisms;

347
Q

(b) Because the forest soil is often nutrient-poor, nitrogen-containing fertilisers may be applied to ensure good crop yields. Use your knowledge of the nitrogen cycle to explain the
potential benefit of applying a fertiliser containing ammonium nitrate rather containing potassium nitrat

A
  1. nitrate ions in fertiliser available / absorbed immediately;
  2. ammonium converted to nitrate by nitrifying bacteria
  3. fertiliser would provide only the initial release of nitrate / potassium nitrate;
348
Q

19 (a) Describe how you would have collected the samples in order to ensure they were representative of the habitats being investigated and could be compared with each other.

A

Samples collected at random;
Method for choosing random sites – random
coordinates / position from tables / calculator / other suitable means

349
Q

19c meant by the term ecological niche?

A

n organism’s role / in the ecosystem / community;

350
Q

20aii (ii) Give one advantage of calculating the index of diversity rather than just recording the number of species present.

A

Takes account of number of individuals / abundance / population size

351
Q

23a (a) Explain how different proportions of cyanogenic plants may have evolved in populations in different parts of Europe

A

colder / below 0°C (January) areas, cyanogenic plants die in this cold / acyanogenic survive;
non-cyanogenic allele / gene passed on more often / its frequency increases; warmer (January) areas cyanogenic plants at advantage,
because of less herbivore selection pressure / feeding;
so cyanogenic survive more often to pass on cyanogenic allele / gene

352
Q

23b ifferences in cyanide production may affect the total number of clover plants growing in different areas. Describe how you would use quadrats in an investigation to determine whether or not there is a difference in the number of clover plants in two large areas of equal size.

A

large (and equal) number of quadrats in each area;
(reject several)
random sampling method, described;
(accept described ‘systematic’ method)
percentage cover / point hits per quadrat / count plants; mean / average value for each area;
statistics test to see if differences significant.

353
Q

24c Apart from providing a habitat for predators of crop pests, give two biological benefits of replanting hedgerow

A

increases biodiversity;
source of food for animals;
habitat / nest for animals;
reduce need for insecticides / attracts insects away from crop; windbreaks / prevent erosion / run-off / leaching;
migratory corridors;

354
Q

1a They measured the maximum diameter of each shrimp’s eye. They also measured the length of its antenna. From these measurements they calculated the mean values for each site. Figure 2 shows their results

Explain why they measured the maximum diameter

A

(So results) can be compared / so measurement is the same each time / because eye is not perfectly round / uniform;

355
Q

bii The data in Figure 2 are mean values. Explain how standard deviations of these cmean values would help you to interpret the data in Figure 2

A

More standard deviations overlap, the less likely it is that differences are real / significant / the more likely they are caused by chance;

standard deviation gives a measure of spread

356
Q

f The biologists who studied these shrimps wanted to know if the shrimps living in the cave were the same species as those living in the open. They used breeding experiments to investigate this.
(i) Describe how the biologists should carry out these breeding experiments.

A

1.
Cross shrimps from two sites / watch courtship;
2. Breed young together / observe mating;
3. Allow 1 mark for any method of improving quality of results e.g. carry out reciprocal crosses / large number of crosses / isolate beforehand;

357
Q

(ii) The results of breeding experiments would help the biologists to decide whether the shrimps were the same species. Explain how.

A

If same species the shrimps would breed, producing fertile young / courtship species specific

358
Q

2a The number of patients infected with the bacterium MRSA has increased in some hospitals. Scientists have suggested ways to reduce the transmission of MRSA in hospitals. Suggest two ways to reduce the transmission of MRSA in hospitals.

A

solation / quarantine / ‘kept separate’;
Screening / testing (of patients / doctors etc);
Sterilisation of wards / equipment / method to improve hygiene;

359
Q

2b The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is the lowest concentration of a substance that prevents the growth of a microorganism.
When antibiotics are prescribed for treating patients, higher doses than the MIC are recommended. Suggest two reasons why.

A

May be broken down / metabolised / excreted quickly;
To kill the microorganisms / bacteria;
Reference to antibiotic resistance;

360
Q

d The effectiveness of these drugs was tested in double-blind trials using human volunteers. In a double-blind trial neither the volunteers nor the scientists know which treatment a particular volunteer is receiving.
(i) Suggest two ways in which a double-blind trial improves reliability.

A

Prevents bias;
Vested interest (of scientists);
Prevents ‘placebo’ / positive / negative / psychological effects / ‘demand characteristics’ (in volunteers);

361
Q

(ii) Suggest two factors the scientists should have considered when selecting adult volunteers for this trial

A

Age;
Ethnicity;
Lifestyle;
Body mass;
Health;

362
Q

3bi Pernicious anaemia is another type of anaemia. One method of identifying pernicious anaemia is to measure the diameter of the red blood cells in a sample of blood that has been diluted with an isotonic salt solution. Explain why an isotonic salt solution is used to dilute the blood sample.

A

Has same water potential;
No (net) water movement / osmosis;
Cells will not swell / burst / change size;

363
Q

3iii
Haemoglobin has a quaternary structure. Explain what is meant by a structure.

A

(iii)
More than one polypeptide chain;

364
Q

4b (b) Describe briefly how you would use a statistical test to find whether there is a significant correlation between mean March temperature and the date when chaffinches laid their first egg.

A

Construct null nypothesis;
Use Spearman rank (and calculate test statistic);
Look up in table (to find critical value of P = 0.05 / 5 %); Use figure (in table) to accept or reject null hypothesis

365
Q

c In chaffinches, the date of laying the first egg is determined by a number of factors. These include day length and temperature. What is the advantage to the bird of egglaying being determined by
(i) daylength
temp

A

(Particular daylength) always occurs at same time of year / valid example; Birds do not start laying eggs when period of warm weather occurs early in year;
Synchronises breeding behaviour;
Sufficient foraging time for food collection for young;

366
Q

(d) Scientists found that there was a correlation between mean annual temperature and the date when chaffinches laid the first egg. Can you conclude that higher temperatures cause earlier laying of the first egg?
Explain your answer.

A

A correlation does not indicate a causal relationship; As may be due to another factor / named factor;

366
Q

(5a) Give two ways in which courtship behaviour increases the probability of successful mating.

A

Recognition of same species;
Stimulates release of gametes;
Recognition of mate / opposite gender;
Indication of sexual maturity / fertility;

367
Q

Give one way in which reproduction in seahorses increases the probability of
(i)fertilisation
(ii)survival of young seahorses

A

Internal fertilisation / fertilisation occurs in pouch / limited area;
Protection from predators

368
Q

5f Scientists studied two species of North American seahorse. They thought that these two species are closely related. Describe how comparisons of biological molecules in these two species could be used to find out if they are closely related.

A

Compare) DNA;
(a)
Sequence of bases / nucleotides;
Compare same / named protein;
Sequence of amino acids / primary structure;

369
Q

7a Describe how light energy absorbed by chlorophyll molecules is used to synthesise ATP

A

Excitation of chlorophyll molecule / electrons / energy of (pairs of) electrons raised to higher energy level;
Electron(s) emitted from chlorophyll molecule;
Electron(s) to electron transport chain;
Loss of energy by electron(s) along electron transport chain;
Energy lost by electron(s) is used to synthesise ATP;
From ADP + P

370
Q

8a (a)
Some antibiotics bind with specific receptors in the plasma membranes of bacteria. The structure of these receptors is determined genetically. Bacteria can become resistant to an antibiotic because a gene mutation results in an altered receptor.
Explain how resistance to an antibiotic could become widespread in a bacterial population following a gene mutation conferring resistance in just one bacterium.

A
  1. frequent use of antibiotic creates selection pressure / antibiotic kills bacteria;
  2. bacteria with mutation / resistance have (selective) advantage over others / described; 3. (survive to) reproduce more than other types pass on advantageous allele / mutated allele in greater numbers;
  3. frequency of (advantageous) allele increases in subsequent generations;
  4. frequency of resistant types increases in subsequent generations;
371
Q

9a Give two possible causes of this variation that result from meiosis during gamete formation.

A

Continuous variation – range of values / not discrete categories / many categories / no gaps;

372
Q

9b
(b) When comparing variation in size between two groups of organisms, it is often considered more useful to compare standard deviations rather than ranges. Explain why.

A

Rangeinfluencedbysingle‘outlier’( acceptanomaly)/
converse for S.D.;
S.D. shows dispersion / spread about mean / range only shows highest and lowest values / extremes

373
Q

10a Explain what is meant by stabilising selection and describe the circumstances under which it takes place.

A

Occurs in an unchanging environment;
Range / S.D is reduced
Increasing proportion of populations becomes well adapted to environment;

374
Q

11(i) At the start of the investigation, the agar was sterilised. Explain why.

A

to ensure that no unwanted bacteria will be present;

375
Q

14b Explain how data from studies of identical twins and non-identical twins could provide further evidence about the genetic control of intelligence.

A

(b) identical twins have same genotype / converse for non-identical; compare identical and non-identical twins / identical twins who have been separated / non-identical twins in same environment; if genetic - similarity between identical twins / converse;
large sample required / use a statistical test

376
Q

15a
(a) Explain why the plants produced form a clone.

A

mitosis
genetically identical

377
Q

b (b) Suggest one reason why the plants in a clone may not be identical in appearance.

A

environmental conditions / named environmental factor / mutation;

378
Q

(c) Most plants produce seeds after fertilisation in sexual reproduction. However,
dandelions produce small, windblown seeds without fertilisation taking place. Suggest two advantages to the dandelion of being able to reproduce from these seeds, as well as from pieces of root.

A

dispersal / prevent overcrowding / competition / colonise
increased number of (proven) offspring; (not quicker)

379
Q

19 xplain how crossing over can contribute to genetic variation.

A

sections of chromatids exchanged; sections have different alleles;
new combinations of (linked) alleles;

380
Q

(c) Mud higher up the shore receives fresh water draining from the land. Ragworms are able to survive in this mud because they can tolerate the absorption of water into their tissues. Explain what causes a ragworm to absorb water when higher up the shore.

A

body has lower water potential;

water diffuses along a water potential gradient / by osmosis;

381
Q

20b(b) Explain how competition might have played a part in the evolution of the long curved beak of the curlew.

A

ariation in beak length in curlews / one species;
longer / more curved beaked curlews outcompete / at advantage / suggested advantage e.g. larger / curled beaks access more food; reproduction;
genes passed on (to offspring

382
Q

21a Describe how you would collect a random sample of each population.

A

generation of random co-ordinates; use of 10 or more quadrats;
collection of all dog whelks in quadrat;

383
Q

1b G. lamblia can attach itself with its sucker. Explain how this is an adaptation to living in the intestines

A

Enables organism to remain in area (of food source) / prevent its removal;

384
Q

di Explain why the antibodies used in this test must be monoclonal antibodies.

A

ll have same shape / only binds to Giardia / one type of / specific antigen;

385
Q

ii Explain why the Giardia antigen binds to the antibody in step 2.

A

Has complementary (shape) / due to (specific) tertiary structure / variable region

386
Q

2bii Apart from reduced elasticity, explain how changes to the lung tissue efficiency of gas exchange.
reduce the

A

Alveoli / lungs will not inflate / deflate fully / reduced lung capacity;
Breathing out particularly affected / no longer passive;

387
Q

3aPhagocytes and lysosomes are involved in destroying microorganisms. Describe how.

A

Phagocytes engulf pathogens / microorganisms;
Enclosed in a vacuole / vesicle / phagosome;
Lysosomes have enzymes;
That digest / hydrolyse molecules / proteins / lipids / microorganism;

388
Q

5a Describe how B-lymphocytes respond when they are stimulated by antigens.

A

divide by mitosis / form clones; produce plasma cells;
(plasma cells) make antibodies; (plasma cells) produce memory cells;

389
Q

6a What is an antigen?

A

olecule / part of molecule / protein / glycoprotein / named molecule; that stimulates an immune response / eq;

390
Q

7a What is vaccination?

A

Injection of antigens
Antigen from) attenuated microorganism / non-virulent microorganisms / dead
microorganisms / isolated from microorganism;
Stimulates the formation of memory cells;

391
Q

10a What is an antibody?

A

protein / immunoglobulin; specific to antigen;
idea of ‘fit’ / complementary

392
Q

ii (ii) Describe how antibodies are produced in the body following a viral infection.

A
  1. virus contains antigen;
  2. virus engulfed by phagocyte / macrophage; 3. presents antigen to B-cell;
  3. memory cells / B-cell becomes activated; 5. (divides to) form clones;
  4. by mitosis;
  5. plasma cells produce antibodies;
  6. antibodies specific to antigen;
  7. correct reference to T-cells / cytokines;
393
Q

iii Suggest why it is advisable for people to be vaccinated against influenza every year.

A

Different strain / type of virus each year / virus mutates;
With different antigens;
Influenza antibodies / memory cells (rapidly) destroyed / need replacing

394
Q

11a Give two reasons why it would be important to use sterile techniques during this investigatio

A

To prevent contamination of apparatus with other microorganisms / bacteria; To prevent personal contact with bacteria;
To prevent release of bacteria into air;

395
Q

c An influenza virus consists of a protein coat surrounding nucleic acid. The influenza vaccine consists only of the protein coat of the virus. Explain how the influenza vaccine produces immunity in the body.

A

(Protein coat) carries antigens which stimulates B-cells / production of antibodies; Production of memory cells;

396
Q

13 ii (ii) What is a monoclonal antibody?

A

reference to hybrid cell from tumour / cancer and B-lymphocyte / hybridoma;
antibodies all the same / from one type of plasma cell; specific to / complementary to / fits only one antigen;

397
Q

bi
Explain why this test detects prostate cancer, but not any other disease.

A

antibodies specific / only binds to PSA;
PSA only associated with prostate cancer / not with other diseases;

398
Q

15ei Use your knowledge of enzymes to explain why restriction enzymes only cut DNA at specific restriction sites.

A

Different lengths of DNA have different base sequences / cut at specific sequence;
Results in different shape / different shape of active site;
Therefore (specific sequence) will only fit active site of enzyme;

399
Q

ii Restriction enzymes that can cut the DNA of chromosomes 2 and 3 produce pieces that are too small for analysis. Explain why these restriction enzymes produce small DNA fragments.

A

Recognition sites contain only AT pairs; Which would occur very frequently;

400
Q

16a Give two factors, other than cost, that should be considered when selecting an antibiotic to treat a bacterial disease

A

side effects / allergic reactions / low toxicity to cells;
interaction with other drugs / effective in conditions of use / reasonably stable; should only act on the problem bacteria / narrow spectrum;
how much resistance the bacteria have built up;

401
Q

17a An antigen in a vaccine leads to the production of antibodies. Describe the part played by B lymphocytes in this process.

A

1 macrophages present antigens to B lymphocytes;
2 antigen binds to / is complementary to receptors on lymphocyte;
3 binds to a specific lymphocyte;
4 lymphocytes become competent / sensitised;
5 (B) lymphocytes reproduce by mitosis / (B) lymphocytes cloned;
6 plasma cells secrete antibodies;

402
Q

17b Hepatitis B vaccine contains a viral antigen produced by genetically modified bacteria. Describe how the isolated gene that codes for a protein in the virus’s coat could be transferred to the bacterial cells.

A

1 restriction enzymes
2 to cut plasmid / to form sticky ends in plasmid;
3 (use) ligase(to join) gene to plasmid;
4 culture bacteria with (in medium containing) plasmids
5 to allow uptake of plasmids / transformation;
6 use of cold shock / chemical treatment (to enhance uptake) / heat

403
Q

18a Salmonella typhimurium causes food poisoning in humans but not in other
Explain why these bacteria attach to human cells but not to the cells of other mammals.

A

bacteria have ligands / antigens / proteins / glycoproteins / polysaccharides (on membrane / wall);

complementary to receptors / fits / binds / attaches to specific recepto

404
Q

Salmonella bacteria release toxins that cause the body temperature to rise. Although a small increase in body temperature can be beneficial, a large increase can cause serious harm.
Explain how a large increase in a person’s body temperature can cause harm.

A

enzymes denatured / tertiary / secondary structure altered / altered active sites / breaks hydrogen bonds;
prevents named chemical reactions / metabolic pathways;

405
Q

Some species of bacteria, which live in soil and decompose organic material, release exotoxins. Suggest how the release of exotoxins benefits the bacteria.

A

(c)
inhibits / kills other bacteria / fungi / decomposers / reduces competition;

406
Q

(d) Washing hands with anti-bacterial soap reduces the risk of transmission of the bacteria that cause food poisoning. Tea tree oil is a plant extract used in soaps. It is claimed to have anti-bacterial properties. Outline a method for investigating this claim.

A

(d)
1 prepare a bacterial lawn / culture / sample;
(accept mix bacteria with agar / medium)
2 with oil and one with control / water / range of concentrations; 3 appropriate method of standardising how sample applied,
e.g. discs / wells;
4 appropriate measure of effectiveness / size / diameter of clear zone; 5 the larger the zone the greater the effectiveness;
6 use of aseptic technique;

407
Q

20c (c)
New drugs have recently become available for treating influenza. One type is a neuraminidase inhibitor. Explain how this type of drug would act as a treatment for influenza.

A

alter shape of active site of neuraminidase / block active site; virus unable to leave host cells;

408
Q

21a Changes to the protein coat of the influenza virus cause antigenic variability. Explain how antigenic variability has caused some people to become infected more than once with influenza viruses.

A

memory B / T cells do not recognise (new antigens); antibodies previously produced are not effective
as shape not complementary to new antigen;

409
Q

Describe the role of macrophages in stimulating B lymphocytes.

A

antigen in membrane presented to lymphocytes / produce cytokinins;

410
Q

23bi child was given the MMR vaccine and was given a second dose of the vaccine as a booster later.
(i) It took more than a week for antibodies to appear in the child’s blood after the first vaccination. Explain why.

A

(Takes time for) antigen to be recognised;
(Takes time for) T cells to be activated;

B-cell activation/clonal selection/expansion; Plasma cells to make (specific) antibodies;

411
Q

23bii The concentration of antibodies increased immediately after the second vaccination. Explain why.

A

Memory cells (present);
Respond immediately / can produce antibodies immediately;

412
Q

24a (a)
Describe how HIV is replicated after it has entered a human cell.

A

Reverse transcriptase;

Enzyme uses (HIV) RNA to make DNA (copy);
DNA joined to (host) cell’s DNA/chromosome;
DNA used to make HIV RNA (copies)
And HIV capsid proteins/enzymes;
Made at (host) ribosomes;
Assembly of new virus particles;
Budding off from membrane (of host cell);

413
Q

The destruction of T-cells by HIV leads to the death of an infected person. Explain how.

A

Not enough/no T-cells to activate B-cells/lead to antibody production/ activate immune system;

Person unable to fight /more prone to (opportunistic) infections/cancer;

414
Q

27b escribe how new viruses are produced after HIV has infected a T cell.

A

DNA copy made (of viral RNA);
Inserted into host DNA / chromosomes;
(Uses viral DNA to) make viral proteins/particles; Makes viral RNA;
(Host) cell makes new viruses;
“Budding off” / wrapped in cell membrane;

415
Q

28b Describe how humans produce antibodies against a pathogen such as Salmonella.
(c) (i)
HIV infects some human cells, such as T-cells, but not others. Suggest why.
.

A

Salmonella pathogen has specific antigen on surface; Salmonella pathogen engulfed by macrophage;
T-cells activate B-cells;
B-cell with complementary/specific receptor antibody activated/ clonal selection;
B-cells divide/form clone/clonal expansion;
Plasma cells make antibodies;
Specific to antigen/bind to salmonella bacterial antigen;

416
Q

(c) (i)
HIV infects some human cells, such as T-cells, but not others. Suggest why.

A

HIV binds to specific receptor;
Only present on certain cells / T-cells;

417
Q

Antibiotics are not used to treat viral infections, such as HIV. Explain why.

A

Antibiotics stop metabolism, viruses don’t have metabolism; Viruses hide in cells, antibiotics can’t reach;

418
Q

30 hese scientists injected laboratory mice with cotinine. Describe how this injection stimulates mice to produce antibodies against cotinine.

A

Cotinine is an antigen;
Antigen/cotinine binds to (specific) T-cell/activates T-cell; T-cell activates B-cells;
Specific B cell becomes activated;
(Specific) B cell divides/ clonal expansion;
Forms (clone of) plasma cells;
(Plasma) cell produces antibodies;

419
Q

(b) Explain why the number of HIV particles in the blood
(i) rises during the first few months after infection

A

Antibodies are proteins with tertiary structure/specific shape/binding sites; Antibodies specific shape for cotinine;

420
Q

how to figure out if a cell is going through mitosis in a diagram

A

Individual chromosomes are visible because they have condesned

each chromosomes is made up of two chromatids because dna has replicated

the chromosomes are not arranges in homologous pairs which they would be if it was mitosis

421
Q

When preparing the cells for observation the scientist placed them in a solution that
had a slightly higher (less negative) water potential than the cytoplasm. This did not
cause the cells to burst but moved the chromosomes further apart in order to reduce
the overlapping of the chromosomes when observed with an optical microscope.
Suggest how this procedure moved the chromosomes apart.

A

water moves into the cell by osmosis
cell gets bigger

422
Q

The dark stain used on the chromosomes binds more to some areas of the
chromosomes than others, giving the chromosomes a striped appearance.
Suggest one way the structure of the chromosome could differ along its length to
result in the stain binding more in some areas.

A

difference in base sequence

423
Q

Describe the method the student would have used to obtain the results in Figure 3.
Start after all of the cubes of potato have been cut. Also consider variables he should
have controlled

A

method to ensure all cut surfaces of the 8 cu es are exposed to sucrose solution

controlling temp
drying cubes before measuring
measure mass of cubes at stated time intervals

424
Q

Suggest and explain two ways in which the scientists could have improved the
method used for data collection in this bee collection investigation.

A

collect at more times of the year so more points on graph

counted number of individuals in each species so that they could calc index of diversity

collected from more sites

425
Q

Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex increases the rate of reaction.
Explain how

A

reduces activation energy
due to bending bonds

426
Q

The genetic code is described as degenerate.
What is meant by this? Use an example from Table 1 to illustrate your answer.

A

more than one codon codes for a single amino acids

427
Q

A change from Glu to Lys at amino acid 300 had no effect on the rate of reaction
catalysed by the enzyme. The same change at amino acid 279 significantly reduced
the rate of reaction catalysed by the enzyme.
Use all the information and your knowledge of protein structure to suggest reasons for
the differences between the effects of these two changes

A

both negatively charged to positively charged change in amino acid

change in amino acid 300 does not change the shape of active site

428
Q

The scientists tested their null hypothesis using the chi-squared statistical test.
After 1 cycle their calculated chi-squared value was 350
The critical value at P=0.05 is 3.841
What does this result suggest about the difference between the observed and
expected results and what can the scientists therefore conclude

A

there us a less than 0.5% probability that the difference between observed and expected occurred by chance

calculated value is greater than criticall value so the null hypothesis ca be rejected

can be concluded that the promotion of plants that produce 2n gametes does change from one breeding cycle to the next

429
Q

Explain how the treatment with antivenom works and why it is essential to use passive
immunity, rather than active immunity

A

antibodies bind to the toxin and causes its destruction

active immunity would be too slow

430
Q

A mixture of venoms from several snakes of the same species is used.
Suggest why.

A

may be different form of antigen
different antibodies

431
Q

During vaccination, each animal is initially injected with a small volume of venom.
Two weeks later, it is injected with a larger volume of venom.
Use your knowledge of the humoral immune response to explain this vaccination
programme

A

b cells specific to the venom reproduce by mitosis

b cells produce plasma cells and memory cells

second dose produce antibodies in secondary immune response in higher conc and quickly

432
Q

Describe the gross structure of the human gas exchange system and how we breathe
in and out

A
433
Q

Mucus produced by epithelial cells in the human gas exchange system contains
triglycerides and phospholipids.
Compare and contrast the structure and properties of triglycerides and phospholipids

A
434
Q

Mucus also contains glycoproteins. One of these glycoproteins is a polypeptide with
the sugar, lactose, attached.
Describe how lactose is formed and where in the cell it would be attached to a
polypeptide to form a glycoprotein

A