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CPT (NFPT) > 9: Beginner Client > Flashcards

9: Beginner Client Flashcards

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1
Q

_____ training conditions both the neurological system to react faster and the muscles to contract faster from a static position.

A

ballistic training

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2
Q

_______ training utilizes the tension in the tendon to cause a more forceful muscle contraction and an increase in tendon strength.

A

plyometric training

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3
Q

what type of contraction is when a muscle shortens, pulls on the tendon, which pulls on the bone, to move in the direction of the shortening?

A

concentric

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4
Q

what type of contraction is when the muscle lengthens under load thereby pulling on the tendon but only to slow movement in the opposite direction?

A

eccentric

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5
Q

isometric versus isotonic. which one means the same tension or the same weight on your muscles stays constant, and which one means same length as in your muscles do not get shorter or longer but keep the same tension?

A

isotonic means same tension or that the same weight on your muscles is constant.
isometric means that your muscles stay the same length and there is no movement.

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6
Q

what is the difference between dynamic constant external resistance and dynamic variable external resistance?

A

dynamic variable external resistance involves a constant adjustment of external resistance through a range of motion.
dynamic constant external resistance just means the external resistance does not change. dumbbells or cables would be an example of this.

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7
Q

what are the four main training principles?

A

The F.I.T.T. principal, the specificity of training principle, the progressive adaptation principle (overload principle), ceiling effect (or law of diminishing returns)

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8
Q

FITT is an acronym for remembering the measurable parts of an exercise training program. what are the parts?

A

frequency, intensity, time, type

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9
Q

The specificity of training principle is also referred to with the acronym SAID. what does SAID stand for?

A

specific adaptation to impose demand

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10
Q

SAID can apply to what specific components?

A

The mode or type of exercise, the speed of movement (intensity), the range of motion and strength in a given ROM, the energy system utilized (intensity and duration), the environmental surroundings and time of day, muscle recruitment patterns and muscle fiber development

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11
Q

what is the ceiling effect or law of diminishing returns?

A

The ceiling represents the theoretical maximum that an individual is capable of reaching

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12
Q

what are the four distinct phases of a workout?

A

Warm-Ups, dynamic flexibility, endurance or strength or some combination, cool down and static stretching

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13
Q

what term describes push-ups and lunges as an example of systematic body weight exercises that are performed without any type of apparatus?

A

calisthenics

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14
Q

what term describes the size increase of muscle fibers?

A

hypertrophy

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15
Q

what term describes a bodily system that must be pushed beyond what it can currently handle in order to continue achieving results?

A

overload principal

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16
Q

what term describes the amount of tension that can be exerted in a single occurrence? example: one rep. max

A

muscular strength

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17
Q

what term describes the natural decrease in muscle fiber size due to underuse?

A

atrophy

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18
Q

static or dynamic, this type of specific training should include a focus for more improved flexibility

A

stretching

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19
Q

specific to a goal which improves the ability to perform in an individual’s respective activities of daily living

A

functional training

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20
Q

term that describes amount of resistance that can be repeatedly overcome

A

muscular endurance

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21
Q

what type of training utilizes tension in the tendon to cause a more forceful muscle contraction, increase tendon strength and improved motion skill transition?

A

plyometric training

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22
Q

this is a type of conditioning that increases the body’s ability to uptake oxygen

A

aerobic

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23
Q

The girth of a muscle is its _______, while the fine ridges and bumps formed by the muscle being close to the skin, without subcutaneous fat in between is its ________.

A

size, definition

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24
Q

All functional training exercises require balance exercises. true or false

A

false

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25
Q

The absolute range of movement in a joint or series of joints that is attainable in a momentary effort with the help of a partner or a piece of equipment describes what?

A

flexibility, specifically, static-passive

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26
Q

this type of flexibility is the ability to maintain extended positions using only the agonist and synergists

A

static- active

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27
Q

this type of flexibility is the ability to move a limb through its full range of motion

A

dynamic flexibility

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28
Q

aerobic exercises require training at an individual’s target heart rate for at least ____ minutes, _____ or more times a week

A

20; 3

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29
Q

what is mitochondrial reeducation?

A

It must happen before a beginner can be expected to recover appropriately. It is when the mitochondria in the beginner are still not performing efficiently, resulting in incomplete replenishment of energy stores

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30
Q

what will help aid the mitochondrial re-education process?

A

getting carbohydrates and protein quickly to the muscle cells after a workout when muscles need it as well as performance of as much post-workout low level activity is possible.

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31
Q

fat tissue cannot store and release energy at the same time. true or false?

A

true

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32
Q

what intensity should you start your client out at for fat loss in general fitness goals?

A

60 to 70% set intensity

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33
Q

why must the duration of the exercise lessen if the intensity is increased?

A

This is to reduce hormone-related post-workout catabolism because otherwise, adrenal glands are stimulated and release stress hormones which result in catabolism of body tissues.

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34
Q

what is the target heart rate in cases where an aerobic effect is not desired?

A

100 beats per minute

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35
Q

for an equal measure of aerobic and anaerobic effects, what is the recovery heart rate recommended?

A

115 beats per minute

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36
Q

if an aerobic effect is desired, what is the recovery or heart rate usually recommended?

A

125 beats per minute

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37
Q

what is the greatest contributor to injury for the beginner client?

A

improper form

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38
Q

How long should you wait to train after you eat a meal?

A

90 minutes to 2 hours

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39
Q

is a small amount of easily absorbable complete protein and natural carbohydrate 15 minutes before a workout okay?

A

Yes, it can help keep the body more anabolic during the session

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40
Q

if prolonged and or intense exercise is performed during digestion, where does the body choose to constrict blood vessels?

A

they constrict regarding the digestive processes

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41
Q

when should essential proteins be taken regarding your training session?

A

The last meal before your training session since the body cannot store essential proteins

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42
Q

what are the five components of general fitness?

A

cardiorespiratory conditioning, muscle endurance, muscle strength, flexibility, body composition

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43
Q

what are the three stages of progression in the aerobic or endurance phase of the exercise training program?

A

initial conditioning stage, improvement conditioning stage, maintenance conditioning stage

44
Q

what happens in the initial conditioning stage of aerobic or endurance training programs?

A

during the first 4 to 6 weeks low-level activities of 10 to 15 minutes at 60 to 70% of maximum heart rate are recommended

45
Q

what happens during the improvement conditioning stage of aerobic and endurance training programs?

A

there’s a slight increase in an exercise intensity. Afterwards, the duration of the activity is increased every 2 to 3 weeks

46
Q

what is the maintenance conditioning stage?

A

usually after 6 months of aerobic training, the average individual has achieved their goal in general fitness and may just want to maintain it. it can be accomplished at 60 to 70% of maximum heart rate in as few as three 30 minute workouts a week

47
Q

what is the recommended repetition range for improving muscular endurance?

A

20 to 25 rep range

48
Q

what are the two types of muscular strength?

A

static strength and dynamic strength

49
Q

what is the best rep range to initiate optimal strength gains?

A

4 to 6 reps

50
Q

How long should static stretch be sustained for?

A

30 seconds

51
Q

when should stretching exercises be performed?

A

at the beginning and end of every exercise session

52
Q

when should static stretching be done?

A

typically at the end of a workout

53
Q

what type of stretching should be done before a workout?

A

start with active stretches followed by dynamic stretches that move into the actual workout

54
Q

being lean and being thin are the same thing. true or false?

A

false being lean is to be within a healthy weight range with adequate muscle to perform activity

55
Q

give an example of a general fitness exercise program

A

5 to 10 minutes of low-level aerobic warm up
active and dynamic stretching
25 minutes of resistance or weight training in the 20 to 25 rep. range for three sets
5 to 10 minutes of abdominal and core exercises
10 to 20 minutes of aerobic activity in the 60 to 70% of maximum heart rate followed by some mild stretching

56
Q

what is nfpt ‘s full body resistance program example?

A

a resistance program done two times per week consisting of 8 to 10 separate exercises performed in a circuit fashion with sets of 12 to 15 reps. start with compounds first and end with simple exercises

57
Q

why would someone train a single joint exercise first as opposed to starting with compound exercises?

A

to pre-exhaust the working muscle that may be lagging or rehabilitating

58
Q

what is the root of most injuries that trainers often overlook?

A

lack of flexibility and range of motion limitations

59
Q

stability exercises should be implemented into every exercise program. true or false

A

true

60
Q

what contributes to poor stability and inhibits poor limb movement?

A

a weak core

61
Q

many back and hip injuries are related to weak______

A

core muscles

62
Q

what type of training is the best choice if the goal is lean muscle maintenance and loss of body fat?

A

circuit training

63
Q

what is superior to traditional floor exercises for engaging the core?

A

a physio ball

64
Q

The greatest contributor to injury among beginner clients is _____, but the root of most injuries is _____

A

improper form, poor flexibility

65
Q

with certain sports, sometimes it is necessary to eliminate aerobic or resistance training from the overall exercise program so they can focus on what they need. true or false

A

false. there may be less of an emphasis, but neither should be entirely eliminated from the exercise program

66
Q

what is dynamic stabilization?

A

It relates to the strengthening core muscle stabilizers of the spine while keeping in a neutral spine position

67
Q

what is proprioception?

A

The sense of the relative positions of neighboring parts of the body

68
Q

what type of movements does a proper core routine consist of?

A

dynamic stabilization and isometric and proprioceptive movements

69
Q

what are four great tools that can be used to train the core?

A

medicine balls, balance boards, foam rollers and physio balls

70
Q

what does it mean when a muscle is hypertonic?

A

It is abnormally rigid with an increase of tension that impairs proper movement

71
Q

stretching decreases the risk of injury true or false

A

false there is no evidence suggesting this

72
Q

increased range of motion will always enhance performance, true or false

A

false there is some movements where a decreased range of motion of the body will enhance performance like with running and the runner’s torso

73
Q

you should only stretch muscles that are_____

A

warm

74
Q

anterior pelvic tilt can usually be noticed visually by what?

A

The glutes “sticking out”

75
Q

what is hyperlordosis?

A

hyperextension of the lumbar spine

76
Q

what is hypolordosis?

A

flexion of the lumbar spine

77
Q

How can posterior pelvic tilt sometimes be noticed visually?

A

if the belt buckle is up towards belly button

78
Q

this is the midway balance point of the spine that requires the least amount of muscular contractions or energy to maintain the desired postural alignment

A

neutral spine

79
Q

this is the neurological process where the body responds to a sudden change in the length of a muscle

A

stretch reflex

80
Q

this is a sensory nerve ending that shuts down muscle contraction just short of serious acute muscle injury related to extreme overload

A

golgi tendon organ

81
Q

also known as muscle spindles, these send a signal when the muscle is in danger of tearing from overstretch causing the muscle to maintain its resting length

A

stretch receptors

82
Q

a neurological process where there’s a detection in the increase of tension in a muscle and when a certain amount of tension is detected, the muscle is inhibited, preventing it from contracting. as a result, the muscle will relax

A

autogenic inhibition

83
Q

this occurs when the contraction of an agonist muscle neurologically inhibits the contraction of the antagonist muscle causing it to relax and prevent it from contracting. this can cause muscle imbalances

A

reciprocal inhibition

84
Q

3-5 min on a stationary bike and static stretching is a good warm up. true or false?

A

false muscle groups need to be specifically warmed up through active and dynamic movements, not by static stretching

85
Q

when is it recommended to use static stretching?

A

after every resistance training and aerobic workout

86
Q

How many minutes should be spent static stretching for clients who are very tight or have a limited range of motion?

A

20 minutes

87
Q

static stretching increases muscle strength. true or false?

A

false. it decreases isometric and dynamic muscle strength

88
Q

true or false. prolonged stretching can make a muscle tendon overly compliant

A

true is important to have optimal stiffness when developing force in a muscle

89
Q

stretching makes it more difficult for the nervous system to tell the muscle when to fire. true or false

A

true

90
Q

what is static stretching used for? list three

A

relaxation, increasing or maintaining a particular range of motion, post-workout for resistance training and aerobic activity

91
Q

you should never use static stretching before an activity. true or false

A

false this may be required if they are so tight that they impede a movement. always be aware of client needs

92
Q

this type of stretch is achieved by having an external force applied such as a partner’s push, a wall, floor, machine and so on

A

passive stretch

93
Q

this type of stretching uses agonist muscle contraction in order to stretch antagonistic muscles. this type of stretching uses reciprocal inhibition.

A

active stretching

94
Q

this type of stretching uses controlled movement through the active range of motion for each joint which improves ROM

A

dynamic stretching

95
Q

this type of stretching involves active motion within a joint while creating a bouncing motion at the end range of the stretching muscle

A

ballistic stretching

96
Q

this type of stretching requires an assistant pushing the limb to its end range and holds for 20 to 60 seconds

A

facilitated stretching

97
Q

what is proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching also known as PNF

A

combining muscle contraction and relaxation in order to relax an overactive muscle or enhance the flexibility of a shortened muscle

98
Q

give an example of post facilitation stretch using the hamstring muscles

A

The hamstrings are only placed at a mid position, not in a fully stretched position.
The client then contracts isometrically against the partner for 10 to 12 seconds using their maximum strength.
The client lets go of the stretch and the trainer immediately moves the hamstrings to the new barrier and holds for 15 seconds.

99
Q

give an example of post isometric relaxation stretch using the hamstring muscles

A

The hamstring is stretched until slight resistance is met.
The client exerts resistance 10 to 20% of muscle contraction in the opposite direction.
client relaxes and then trainer initiates his stretch until the barrier is met and holds for 15 seconds.
repeat at new barrier

100
Q

give an example of post-isometric relaxation with agonist contraction

A

It begins the same as isometric relaxation where the trainer lengthens the muscle until slight resistance it’s met.
then the client exerts slight resistance in the opposite direction. this is held for 10 to 12 seconds.
The agonist muscle, the hip flexors, are now contracted as the trainer takes the hamstrings to its new barrier in the stretch

101
Q

what is contract relax stretching using hamstrings as an example

A

again, post isometric relaxation stretch is used however, however, the target muscle, hamstrings, are contracted through their full ROM against resistance. this means the trainer is moving the leg down in full ROM as the client is contracting their hamstrings.
The client then relaxes as the trainer stretches the hamstring back up to the new barrier is met and holds for 15 seconds

102
Q

muscle cramps originate in the muscle. true or false

A

false. they are primarily neurological activity in which the motor neuron fires at a high frequency causing this involuntary contraction

103
Q

heavy exercise, alcohol consumption, medications, muscle fatigue, and dehydration may cause muscle cramps. Name some other reasons for muscle cramps

A

hypothyroidism, depleted magnesium or calcium stores, kidney failure and pregnancy

104
Q

what are fasciculations?

A

single, involuntary firings of motor neurons that will cause brief twitches in the muscle fibers

105
Q

benign fasciculations tend to occur repetitively at the same site. true or false

A

true

CPT (NFPT) (25 decks)

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