30 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a benefit of laboratory instrumentation to the hematology laboratory?

A. Produces faster results from specimens
B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures
C. Less variation in technique from technologist to technologist
D. Increased accuracy because data are collected on more cells counted or analyzed

A

B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures

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2
Q
  1. ___Electrical impedance principle
    A. The volume of each cell is proportional to the degree of light scatter.
    B. Each cell momentarily increases resistance.
A

B. Each cell momentarily increases resistance.

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3
Q

3.___ Optical detection principle
A.
The volume of each cell is proportion to the degree of light scatter.
B. Each cell momentarily increases resistance.

A

A.
The volume of each cell is proportion to the degree of light scatter.

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4
Q
  1. The abbreviation LASER stands for
    A. light-associated simulated emission of radiation
    B. largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation
    C. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
    D. liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
A

C. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

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5
Q
  1. A photon is
    A. a diffuse form of energy
    B. a piece of equipment in a laser assembly
    C. the basic unit of all radiation
    D. equivalent to an atom
A

C. the basic unit of all radiation

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6
Q
  1. The major application of flow-cell cytometry is
    A. determining cell size and granularity
    B. sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal antibodies
    C. Treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types
    D. Counting leukocytes and platelets
A

B. sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal antibodies

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7
Q
  1. The term parameter means
    A. a subset of a population
    B. the mean value of a sample
    C. two SDs on either side of the mean value
    D. any numerical value that describes an entire population
A

D. any numerical value that describes an entire population

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8
Q
  1. Data output from three-part differential counters includes
    A. an erythrocyte histogram
    B. a leukocyte histogram
    C. a platelet histogram
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

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9
Q
  1. Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured?
    A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width
    B. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count
    C. Leukocyte count and hematocrite
    D. Platelet count and platelet volume
A

A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

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10
Q
  1. The delta check method of quality control
    A. uses the patient’s own data to monitor population values
    B. uses batches of 20 samples to track MCV, MCH, and MCHC values
    C. compares the patient’s leukocyte and platelet counts with his or her previous results
    D. monitors the patient’s values within two SDs of the mean
A

A. uses the patient’s own data to monitor population values

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11
Q
  1. Applying the optical principle of laser scatter technology to cell counting and analysis, discrimination between erythrocytes and platelets depends on the
    A. cellular volume
    B. cellular refractive index
    C. time of flight through the sensing zone
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

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12
Q
  1. In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _ of the normal distribution curve.
    A. right
    B. left
    C. in the middle
A

A. right

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13
Q
  1. A bimodal histogram distribution is suggestive of
    A. cold agglutinin disease
    B. posttransfusion of normal red cells to a person with abnormally sized red cells
    C. the presence of RBC fragments
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

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14
Q
  1. The formula for the RDW is
A

(SD of RBC volume/ mean
MCV) × 100

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15
Q
  1. The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be
    A. iron deficiency anemia
    B. acquired aplastic anemia
    C. megaloblastic anemia
    D. hemoglobinopath
A

C. megaloblastic anemia

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16
Q

*17. If the RBC distribution on a histogram demonstrates a homogeneous pattern and a small SD, the peripheral blood smear would probably exhibit
A. extreme anisocytosis
B. very little anisocytosis
C. a single population of spherocytes
D. a single population of macrocytes

A

B. very little anisocytosis

17
Q
  1. The
    _ can be determined from a WBC histogram.
    A. percent of lymphocytes
    B. absolute number of lymphocytes
    C. frequency distribution of granulocytes
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

18
Q

19 and 20. The sorting of leukocyte subpopulations in the WBC histogram determined by electrical impedance reflects the (19)_, which is primarily related to their (20)__

  1. A. overall size
    B. relative size
    C. nuclear size
    D. chromatin pattern
  2. A. cytoplasmic size
    B. nuclear size
    C. concentration of granules
    D. cytoplasmic color
A

19
B. relative size
20
B. nuclear size

19
Q
  1. The mononuclear cells in a WBC histogram can include
    A. blast cells
    B. promyelocytes
    C. monocytes
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

20
Q

*22. A combined scatter histogram measures
A. overall size versus nuclear size
B. cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio
C. cell size and granularity
D. cell shape and cytoplasmic color

A

C. cell size and granularity

21
Q
  1. The MPV is
    A. analogous to the MCHC
    B. a direct measure of the platelet count
    c. a measurement of the average volume of platelets
    D. a comparison of the patient’s value to the normal value
A

c. a measurement of the average volume of platelets

22
Q
  1. The MPV is often decreased

A. in sickle cell anemia

B. in megaloblastic anemia

C. in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

D. after splenectomy

A

B. in megaloblastic anemia

23
Q
  1. A normal PDW is

A. less than 5%

B. less than 10%

C. less than 15%

D. less than 20%

A

D. less than 20%

24
Q
  1. Which of the following can be an application of flow-cell

cytometry?

A. Screening erythrocytes for malaria

B. Counting of reticulocytes

C. Quantitation of T and B cells

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

25
Q
  1. Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following

except

A. fluidics

B. optics

c. computerized electronics

D. gating

26
Q

*28. The restriction of data analysis to one cell population is

accomplished by

A. amplification

B. gating

C. compensatory monitoring

D. data limitation

27
Q
  1. Which cell surface membrane marker is used for enumeration of
    HPC enumeration?
    A. CD4
    B. CD8
    C. CD34
    D. CD45
28
Q
  1. Reticulocytes can be detected by using
    stain.
    A. new methylene blue
    B. thiazole orange
    C. propidium iodide
    D. both A and B
A

D. both A and B

29
Q
  1. The newer clinical instruments for measuring blood clotting are based on
    A. clot elasticity
    B. fibrin adhesion
    C. conduction of impedance of an electrical current by fibrin
    D. changes in optical density
A

D. changes in optical density

30
Q
  1. The fibrometer relies on the principle of
    A. clot elasticity
    B. fibrin adhesion
    C. conduction or impedance of an electrical current by fibrin
    D. changes in optical density
A

C. conduction or impedance of an electrical current by fibrin

31
Q
  1. In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the _ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages.
    A. amount of patient’s plasma
    B. amount of test reagent
    C. time
    D. temperature
32
Q

*34. In measuring platelet aggregation, platelet-rich plasma can be treated with
_ to aggregate platelets.
A. saline
B. collagen
C. epinephrine
D. both B and C

A

D. both B and C

33
Q
  1. With a particle-counting instrument, a high background count can be due to
    A. a partial obstruction of the aperture
    B. an electrical line interference
    C. contaminated diluent
    D. bubbles in the diluent
A

C. contaminated diluent

34
Q

*36. A source of error when using the fibrometer in coagulation studies can be
A. improper reaction temperature
B. overincubation of the substrate reagent
C. overincubation of the test plasmas
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above