29 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The anatomical structures associated with the circulation of CSF are
    A. ventricles and subarachnoid spaces
    B. subarachnoid space and pia mater
    C. ependyma and pia mater
    D. arachnoid mater and pia mater
A

A. ventricles and subarachnoid spaces

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2
Q

*2. CSF production is associated with the
A. arachnoid mater and pia mater
B. choroid plexus and ependymal lining
C. arachnoid mater and subarachnoid space
D. subarachnoid space and pia mater

A

B. choroid plexus and ependymal lining

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3
Q

*3. CSF is collected from an intervertebral space between the
_ and
vertebrae.
A. T4, T5
B. L2, L3
C. L3, L4
D. L4, L5

A

D. L4, L5

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4
Q
  1. Tube 1 is commonly used for
    A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination
    B. microbial examination
    C. chemical and serological examination
    D. a discard tube
A

C. chemical and serological examination

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5
Q
  1. Tube 2 is commonly used for
    A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination
    B. microbial examination
    C. chemical and serological examination
    D. a discard tube
A

B. microbial examination

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6
Q
  1. Tube 3 or the final tube is commonly used for
    A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination
    B. microbial examination
    C. chemical and serological examination
    D. a discard tube
A

A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination

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7
Q
  1. A cloudy and turbid specimen is most commonly caused by
    A. increased fibrinogen
    B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
    D. increased numbers of leukocytes
A

D. increased numbers of leukocytes

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8
Q

*8. A grossly bloody specimen is most commonly caused by
A. increased fibrinogen
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
D. pleocytosis

A

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage

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9
Q

*8. A grossly bloody specimen is most commonly caused by
A. increased fibrinogen
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
D. pleocytosis

A

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage

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10
Q
  1. A xanthochromic (yellow color) specimen is most commonly caused by
    A. increased fibrinogen
    B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hr bleed)
    D. pleocytosis
A

C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hr bleed)

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11
Q
  1. Gel formation in a specimen is most commonly caused by
    A. increased fibrinogen
    B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
    D. pleocytosis
A

A. increased fibrinogen

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12
Q

*11. Intraventricular rupture of brain abscess is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
C. macrophages
D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

A

D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

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13
Q

*12. Viral infection is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
C. macrophages
D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF
E. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

A

A. lymphocytosis

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14
Q
  1. A leukocyte count of 0 to 5 x 10^6/L is associated with
    A. lymphocytosis
    B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
    C. macrophages
    D. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF
A

D. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

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15
Q

*14. Bacterial infection is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs) in CSF
C. macrophages
D. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

A

B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs) in CSF

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16
Q

*15. CNS leukemia or lymphoma is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
C. macrophages
D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

A

C. macrophages

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17
Q
  1. Normal CSF contains
    A. lymphocytes and ependymal cells
    B. ependymal and choroidal cells
    C. mesothelial and ependymal cells
    D. erythrocytes and leukocytes
A

A. lymphocytes and ependymal cells

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18
Q
  1. The cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _ of collection.
    A. 30 minutes
    B. 1 hour
    c. 2 hours
    D. 12 hours
    E. 22 hours
A

B. 1 hour

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19
Q
  1. Clotting in CSF may be caused by

A. increased protein concentration
B. increased electrolyte concentration
C. increased glucose concentration
D. the presence of bacteria

A

A. increased protein concentration

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20
Q
  1. An increased total leukocyte count in a CSF specimen can be caused by

A. bacterial meningitis
B. viral meningoencephalitis
C. intravascular rupture of a brain abscess
D. both A and C

A

D. both A and C

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21
Q
  1. An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a CSF specimen can be caused by

A. multiple sclerosis
B. viral meningoencephalitis
C. fungal meningitis
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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22
Q
  1. Based on the information in case 29.1, the observation of cloudy
    CSF samples suggests

A. normal condition of a CSF specimen
B. viral infection of the meninges
C. parasitic infection of the brain
D. bacterial infection present

A

D. bacterial infection present

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23
Q
  1. Based on the information in case 29.1, the differential diagnosis for the patient could be

A. multiple sclerosis
B. acute brain hemorrhage
C. pulmonary embolism
D. bacterial meningitis

A

D. bacterial meningitis

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of an effusion?

A. Abnormal accumulation of fluid
B. Can be a transudate
C. Can be an exudate
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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25
Q
  1. A transudate can be described as

A. specific gravity greater than 1.016, low to moderate number of leukocytes, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L
B. specific gravity less than 1.016, pH 7.4 to 7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L
C. pH 7.35 to 7.45 and protein concentration greater than 3.0 g/dL
D. lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L and protein concentration greater than 3.0 g/dL

A

B. specific gravity less than 1.016, pH 7.4 to 7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L

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26
Q
  1. Pleura

A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen
B. covers the lungs
C. is a fibrous sac around the heart
D. is lining of the spinal cord

A

B. covers the lungs

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27
Q
  1. Peritoneum

A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen
B. covers the lungs
C. is a fibrous sac around the heart
D. is lining of the spinal cord

A

A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen

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28
Q
  1. Pericardium

A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen
B. covers the lungs
C. is a fibrous sac around the heart
D. is lining of the spinal cord

A

C. is a fibrous sac around the heart

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29
Q
  1. Conditions not associated with pleural effusion include

A. tuberculosis
B. infectious diseases
C. mesothelioma
D. viral pneumonia

A

D. viral pneumonia

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30
Q
  1. Yellow and turbid is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A. empyema
B. infectious process
C. anaerobic bacterial infection
D. chylothorax

A

B. infectious process

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31
Q
  1. Milky is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A. empyema
B. infectious process
C. anaerobic bacterial infection
D. chylothorax

A

D. chylothorax

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32
Q
  1. Bloody is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A. empyema
B. infectious process
C. anaerobic bacterial infection
D. malignancy in the absence of trauma

A

D. malignancy in the absence of trauma

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33
Q
  1. Clearly visible pus is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A. empyema
B. infectious process
C. anaerobic bacterial infection
D. malignancy in the absence of trauma

A

A. empyema

34
Q
  1. Foul odor is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A. empyema
B. infectious process
C. anaerobic bacterial infection
D. chylothorax

A

C. anaerobic bacterial infection

35
Q
  1. Pleural fluid can have a white supernatant fluid after centrifugation owing to

A. increased concentration of leukocytes
B. presence of lipids
C. presence of chylomicrons
D. both A and B

A

C. presence of chylomicrons

36
Q
  1. An extremely elevated leukocyte concentration in pleural fluid is typically associated with

A. hemothorax
B. malignancy
C. empyema
D. classic rheumatoid effusion

A

C. empyema

37
Q
  1. Which of the following cells can be seen in pleural fluid?

A. LE cells
B. Mononuclear phagocytes
C. Mesothelial cells
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

38
Q
  1. All of the following describe the characteristics of malignant cells except

A. multiple round aggregates of cells
B. high N:C ratio
C. large, irregular nucleoli
D. smooth chromatin

A

D. smooth chromatin

39
Q
  1. Many neutrophils, histiocytes, and mesothelial cells are associated with (a)

A. viral infection
B. acute bacterial inflammation
C. metastatic adenocarcinoma
D. malignant mesothelioma

A

B. acute bacterial inflammation

40
Q
  1. Abundant, multinuclear cells and clusters of cells are associated with a(n)

A. viral infection
B. acute bacterial inflammation
C. metastatic adenocarcinoma
D. chronic granulomatous inflammation

A

C. metastatic adenocarcinoma

41
Q
  1. Many malignant cells (in clusters) are associated with a(n)

A. viral infection
B. acute bacterial inflammation
C. metastatic adenocarcinoma
D. malignant mesothelioma

A

D. malignant mesothelioma

42
Q
  1. Many lymphocytes, mesothelial cells, histiocytes, and plasma cells are associated with a(n)

A. viral infection
B. acute bacterial inflammation
C. malignant mesothelioma
D. chronic granulomatous inflammation

A

A. viral infection

43
Q

42 and 43. In a pleural effusion, the percentage of ______ is extremely high in pneumonia and the percentage of ______ is extremely high in viral peritonitis.

  1. A. polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils
    B. eosinophils
    C. basophils
    D. monocytes
  2. A. polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils
    B. eosinophils
    C. basophils
    D. lymphocytes
44
Q
  1. The causes of peritoneal effusion include all of the following except

A. bacterial peritonitis
B. hepatic cirrhosis
C. congestive heart failure
D. tuberculosis

A

D. tuberculosis

45
Q
  1. An abnormal-appearing peritoneal effusion can be caused by all of the following except

A. bacterial peritonitis
B. pancreatitis
C. neoplasm
D. tuberculous peritonitis

A

D. tuberculous peritonitis

46
Q
  1. The peritoneal effusion color of pale yellow is associated with

A. normal
B. pulmonary infarct
C. congestive heart failure
D. sepsis

47
Q
  1. The peritoneal effusion color of straw colored is associated with

A. normal
B. pulmonary infarct
C. congestive heart failure
D. sepsis

A

C. congestive heart failure

48
Q
  1. The peritoneal effusion color of bloody is associated with

A. normal
B. pulmonary infarct
C. congestive heart failure
D. sepsis

A

B. pulmonary infarct

49
Q
  1. An extremely increased leukocyte concentration in peritoneal fluid can be caused by

A. bacterial peritonitis
B. pancreatitis
C. cirrhosis
D. none of the above

A

A. bacterial peritonitis

50
Q
  1. Eosinophils are associated with

A. chronic peritoneal dialysis
B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome
C. tuberculous peritonitis

A

A. chronic peritoneal dialysis

51
Q
  1. Lymphocytes are associated with

A. chronic peritoneal dialysis
B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome
C. tuberculous peritonitis

A

B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome

52
Q
  1. Mesothelial cells are associated with

A. chronic peritoneal dialysis
B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome
C. tuberculous peritonitis
D. coxsackie group viruses

A

C. tuberculous peritonitis

53
Q
  1. Infectious agents are associated with

A. rheumatic disease
B. mesothelioma
C. Dressler’s postinfarction syndrome
D. coxsackie group viruses

A

D. coxsackie group viruses

54
Q
  1. Collagen vascular disease is associated with

A. rheumatic disease
B. mesothelioma
C. Dressler’s postinfarction syndrome
D. coxsackie group viruses

A

A. rheumatic disease

55
Q
  1. Neoplastic disease is associated with
    A. rheumatic disease
    B. mesothelioma
    C. Dressler’s postinfarction syndrome
    D. coxsackie group viruses
A

B. mesothelioma

56
Q
  1. A cause of an increased concentration of cells in pericardial fluid is

A. microbial infection
B. malignancy
C. congestive heart failure
D. both A and B

A

D. both A and B

57
Q
  1. Testicles are associated with

A. fructose and prostaglandins
B. unknown
C. sperm
D. p30 glycoprotein

58
Q
  1. Seminal vesicles are associated with

A. fructose and prostaglandins
B. unknown
C. sperm
D. p30 glycoprotein

A

A. fructose and prostaglandins

59
Q
  1. Prostate gland is associated with

A. fructose and prostaglandins
B. unknown
C. sperm
D. p30 glycoprotein

A

D. p30 glycoprotein

60
Q
  1. Cowper glands are associated with

A. fructose and prostaglandins
B. unknown
C. sperm
D. p30 glycoprotein

A

B. unknown

61
Q
  1. Sperm motility can become decreased if the specimen is

A. stored at room temperature
B. stored in a plastic container for more than 1 hour
C. examined after 2 hours of storage
D. all of the above

62
Q
  1. The normal value of sperm cells is ______ × 10^9/L.

A. 15 to 30
B. 30 to 45
C. 30 to 60
D. 60 to 150

A

D. 60 to 150

63
Q
  1. The reference value for sperm motility (fresh specimen) is

A. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)
B. test for infectious disease
C. prostatitis or sperm-agglutinating antibodies
D. greater than 60%

A

D. greater than 60

64
Q
  1. The reference value for sperm morphology is

A. at least 50%
B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)
C. test for infectious disease
D. greater than 60%

A

B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)

65
Q
  1. The reference value for sperm agglutination is

A. at least 50%
B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)
C. test for infectious disease
D. greater than 60%

A

A. at least 50%

66
Q
  1. A consideration value for specimens used for artificial insemination

A. at least 50%
B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)
C. test for infectious disease
D. prostatitis or sperm-agglutinating antibodies

A

C. test for infectious disease

67
Q
  1. Based on the information presented in case 29.2, the patient would be considered

A. infertile
B. subfertile
C. fertile
D. superfertile

A

C. fertile

68
Q
  1. Based on the information presented in case 29.2, when a seminal sample was stained with eosin Y as the stain and nigrosin as a counterstain, viable sperm cells would be

A. unstained
B. pink
C. orange
D. blue

69
Q
  1. Arthrocentesis is

A. a bone biopsy
B. a liquid biopsy
C. not as accurate as blood testing
D. a good test to monitor the effects of chemotherapy

A

B. a liquid biopsy

70
Q
  1. Disorders that can be diagnosed definitively by synovial fluid analysis are

A. gout, CPPD deposition disease, and rheumatoid arthritis
B. CPPD deposit disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and SLE
C. rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and septic arthritis
D. gout, CPPD deposition disease, and septic arthritis

A

D. gout, CPPD deposition disease, and septic arthritis

71
Q
  1. Which of the following would not be an aspiration site for synovial fluid?

A. Knee
B. Elbow
C. Posterior iliac crest
D. Ankle

A

C. Posterior iliac crest

72
Q
  1. If a synovial fluid aspirate is very turbid and septic arthritis is suspected, a ______ should definitely be performed.

A. total cell count and differential count
B. crystal examination
C. Gram’s stain and culture
D. all of the above

A

C. Gram’s stain and culture

73
Q
  1. Crystals that are in multiple three-dimensional forms are
    A. CPPD crystals
    B. BCP crystals
    C. MSU crystals
    D. cholesterol
A

C. Gram’s stain and culture

74
Q
  1. MSU is associated with

A. chronic renal disease
B. chronic rheumatoid effusions
C. acute and chronic arthritis
D. acute gouty arthritis

A

B. chronic rheumatoid effusions

75
Q
  1. Calcium oxalate is associated with

A. chronic renal disease
B. chronic rheumatoid effusions
C. acute and chronic arthritis
D. acute gouty arthritis

A

A. chronic renal disease

76
Q
  1. Cholesterol is associated with

A. chronic renal disease
B. chronic rheumatoid effusions
C. acute and chronic arthritis
D. acute gouty arthritis

A

B. chronic rheumatoid effusions

77
Q
  1. Lipid liquid “maltese cross” is associated with

A. chronic renal disease
B. chronic rheumatoid effusions
C. acute and chronic arthritis
D. acute gouty arthritis

A

C. acute and chronic arthritis

78
Q
  1. Amniotic fluid consists of

A. water
B. proteins
C. carbohydrates
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

79
Q
  1. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is

A. a protein produced during pregnancy
B. a biological glue, attaching the fetal sac to the uterine lining
C. associated with fetal lung maturity
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

80
Q
  1. Lamellae bodies are

A. associated with the risk of developing respiratory stress syndrome in a premature infant
B. composed of concentrated layers of phospholipid secreted by type II alveolar cells
C. act as storage packets for surfactants in amniotic fluid D. all of the above

A

all of the above