23 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. MPNs are characterized by all of the following except
    A. clonal disorders
    B. they may evolve into acute leukemia
    C. initial increase of immature cells
    D. increased production of mature cells
A

C. initial increase of immature cells

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2
Q
  1. In CML, the total leukocyte (WBC) count is
    A. extremely increased
    B. slightly increased
    C. extremely variable
    D. usually normal
A

A. extremely increased

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3
Q
  1. Primary myelofibrosis differs from other types of MPN in which of the following ways?
    A. Ph1 chromosome is present.
    B. Marrow fibrosis is greatly increased.
    C. LAP score is increased.
    D. Platelet count is increased.
A

B. Marrow fibrosis is greatly increased

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a remarkable characteristic of PRV compared with other types of MPNs?
    A. Extremely increased erythrocyte mass
    B. Extremely increased leukocyte count
    C. Extremely increased platelet count
    D. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes
A

A. Extremely increased erythrocyte mass

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a predominant feature of essential thrombocythemia compared with other types of MPNs?
    A. Variable number of platelets
    B. Moderately increased number of platelets
    C. Extremely increased number of platelets
    D. Increased marrow fibrosis
A

C. Extremely increased number of platelets

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6
Q
  1. In MPN, the test results of disorders of hemostasis and coagulation that are most likely to be abnormal are

A. decreased platelet count, increased APTT, and increased factor V level
B. increased APTT, decreased factor V level, and increased concentration of antithrombin III in many
C. decreased APTT, decreased factor V level, and increased concentration of D-dimers
D. decreased concentration of D-dimers, decreased concentration of antithrombin III, and increased concentration of plasminalpha 2-plasmin inhibitor complex

A

B. increased APTT, decreased factor V level, and increased concentration of antithrombin III in many

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7
Q
  1. Interferon alpha has been shown to

A. stimulate trilineage cell proliferation
B. suppress proliferation of hematopoietic progenitor cells
C. subdue erythropoiesis only
D. suppress megakaryocytopoiesis only

A

B. suppress proliferation of hematopoietic progenitor cells

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8
Q
  1. A leukemia of long duration that affects the neutrophilic granulocytes is referred to as

A. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. acute myelogenous leukemia
C. acute monocytic leukemia
D. CML

A

D. CML

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9
Q
  1. The alkaline phosphatase cytochemical staining reaction is used to differentiate between
    A. chronic lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia
    B. acute lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia
    C. CML and severe bacterial infections
    D. leukemoid reactions and severe bacterial infections
A

C. CML and severe bacterial infections

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10
Q
  1. Patients with the initial phase of CML are prone to
    A. weight gain, edema, and fatigue
    B. edema, anemia, and splenic infarction
    C. low-grade fevers, night sweats, and splenic infarction
    D. prominent lymphadenopathy and night sweats
A

C. low-grade fevers, night sweats, and splenic infarction

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11
Q
  1. The total leukocyte count in CML usually is ________ × 109/L.
    A. normal
    B. <25
    C. <50
    D. >50
A

D. >50

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12
Q
  1. The Philadelphia chromosome is typically associated with
    A. acute myelogenous leukemia
    B. leukemoid reactions
    C. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
    D. CML
A

D. CML

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13
Q
  1. Patients with PRV suffer from
    A. leukemic infiltration
    B. bone marrow fibrosis
    C. hypervolemia
    D. anemia
A

C. hypervolemia

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14
Q
  1. In PRV, cytogenetic results do not predict/provide
    A. duration of the disease
    B. consequences of myelosuppressive therapy
    C. clues to hematological phenotype
    D. evolution of the disease
A

D. evolution of the disease

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15
Q
  1. Hyperviscosity can produce
    A. anemia
    B. dizziness
    C. hemorrhages
    D. psychotic depression
A

B. dizziness

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16
Q
  1. The major criteria for diagnosis of PRV include all of the following except
    A. increased red blood cell mass
    B. presence of JAK2V617F
    C. hypercellular bone marrow
    D. splenomegaly
A

D. splenomegaly

17
Q
  1. Increased blood viscosity in patients with PRV can cause a dangerous condition of
    A. hot flushes
    B. shortness of breath
    C. high RDW
    D. vascular occlusion
A

D. vascular occlusion

18
Q
  1. The level of erythropoietin in the urine is ________ in patients with PRV compared with other kinds of polycythemia.
    A. increased
    B. the same
    C. variable
    D. decreased
A

D. decreased

19
Q
  1. Patients with PRV demonstrate a(n) ________ of hemosiderin in the bone marrow.
    A. absence
    B. normal amount
    C. slightly increased amount
    D. extremely increased amount
A

A. absence

20
Q
  1. Treated patients with PRV have a ________ life expectancy after diagnosis.

A. 1- to 6-month
B. 6- to 12-month
C. 1- to 5-year
D. more than 10-year

A

D. more than 10-year

21
Q
  1. The primary treatment for PRV is
    A. therapeutic phlebotomy
    B. myelosuppressive agents
    C. radioactive phosphorus
    D. low-dose busulfan
A

A. therapeutic phlebotomy

22
Q
  1. Primary myelofibrosis is also called
    A. essential thrombocythemia
    B. CML
    C. PRV
    D. agnogenic myeloid metaplasia
A

D. agnogenic myeloid metaplasia

23
Q
  1. The incidence of primary myelofibrosis is known to increase after exposure to
    A. sunshine
    B. benzene
    C. antibiotics
    D. interferon
A

B. benzene

24
Q
  1. The predominant clinical manifestation of primary myelofibrosis is
    A. anemia
    B. splenomegaly
    C. medullary fibrosis
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

25
Q
  1. The most constant feature of primary myelofibrosis is
    A. dyserythropoiesis
    B. dysleukopoiesis
    C. dysmegakaryocytopoiesis
    D. trilineage maturational disruption
A

C. dysmegakaryocytopoiesis

26
Q
  1. A leukoerythroblastic picture includes all of the following except
    A. teardrop-shaped erythrocytes
    B. nucleated erythrocytes
    C. immature lymphocytes
    D. immature myeloid cells
A

C. immature lymphocytes

27
Q
  1. The median survival time for patients with primary myelofibrosis is approximately ________ year(s).
    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. 5
    D. 10
28
Q
  1. If a peripheral blood smear exhibits numerous teardrop-shaped red blood cells and abnormal platelets, what is a likely diagnosis?

A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Myeloid metaplasia
D. Pernicious anemia

A

C. Myeloid metaplasia

29
Q
  1. The least common form of MPN is
    A. PRV
    B. CML
    C. primary myelofibrosis
    D. essential thrombocythemia
A

D. essential thrombocythemia

30
Q
  1. A major criterion for the diagnosis of essential thrombocythemia is
    A. absence of Ph1 chromosome
    B. increased red blood cell mass
    C. mild neutrophilia in peripheral blood
    D. persistent increase of platelets in peripheral blood
A

D. persistent increase of platelets in peripheral blood

31
Q
  1. The most common disorder in patients with essential thrombocythemia is
    A. neurological manifestations
    B. thrombotic or bleeding problems
    C. abnormal karyotype
    D. anemia
A

A. neurological manifestations

32
Q
  1. The bone marrow architecture in essential thrombocythemia is similar to the architecture seen in
    A. erythroid hyperplasia
    B. leukocyte hyperplasia
    C. CML
    D. lymphocytic leukemia