Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Final FA review > 3/31 micro > Flashcards

3/31 micro Flashcards

1
Q

All acid fast = gram+/-?

A

gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which gram - bug grows in alkaline media?

A

vibrio cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neisseria

  • what gram stain?
  • what shape?
A

gram - diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which neisseria ferments maltose?

A

meningitidis ferments maltose

-M ferments M.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria:

-mnemonic:

A

Test with MacConKEE’S agar.

-Citrobacter, Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, and Serratia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

β-galactosidase

  • what reaction does it catalyze?
  • which bug has it?
A
  • breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose.

- e.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EMB agar

  • what color are lactose fermenters?
  • what color is E.coli?
A
  • lactose fermenters grow as purple/black colonies.

- E. coli grows purple colonies with a green sheen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The gram-negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of:

A
  • penicillin G and vancomycin.

* Although they may be susceptible to penicillin derivatives like ampicillin or amoxicillin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

N. gonorrhea:

  • capsule?
  • maltose fermenter?
  • glucose fermenter?
  • vaccine available?
A

goNOrrhea has NO capsule, NO maltose ferm, NO vaccine.

-it DOES ferment glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

N. gonorrhoeae is often intracellular:

-inside which cell?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is there no vaccine against gonorrhea?

A

Due to rapid antigenic variation of pilus proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neonates given what ointment in their eyes to prevent gonorrhea conjunctivitis?

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gonorrhea

-Tx:

A

Tx: ceftriaxone + (azithromycin or doxycycline) for possible chlamydia coinfection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

  • caused by what bug?
  • what is it?
A
  • gonorrhea
  • rare complication of PID.
  • Can form “violin string adhesion” that attach to capsule of liver.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

N. Meningitidis

  • vaccine? for all serotypes?
  • maltose fermenter?
  • glucose fermenter?
  • capsule?
A
  • yes vaccine but not for type B.
  • yes, ferments maltose & glucose.
  • yes, polysacc capsule.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

N. Meningitidis

-hows it spread?

A

respiratory droplets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

N. Meningitidis

-prophylaxis for close contacts:

A

Rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone prophylaxis in close contacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

N. Meningitidis

-Tx:

A

ceftriaxone or penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

N. meningitidis

-path to meninges?

A

pharynx -> blood -> choroid plexus -> meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

N. meningitidis

-main endotoxin?

A
  • lipooligosaccharide (LOS) = major endotoxin of n. meningitidus.
  • LOS titers associated w/disease severity & outcomes. Blood conc. of this is correlated to pt’s morbidity & mortality.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

  • gram stain?
  • shape?
A

Small gram-negative (coccobacillary) rod.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

-nontypable strains cause which diseases?

A

-Mucosal infections otitis media, conjunctivitis, bronchitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

  • which agar?
  • whats agar need in it?
A

-chocolate agar requires factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin) for growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

  • Sxs:
  • mnemonic:
A

HaEMOPhilus
-Epiglottitis (“cherry red” in children), Meningitis, Otitis media, and Pneumonia.

*like s. pneumo except instead of sinusitis, here you get epiglottitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

-can cause otitis _____.

A

media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

-Tx for mucosal infections:

A

Treat mucosal infections with amoxicillin

+/- clavulanate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

  • Tx for meningitis:
  • Prophylaxis for meningitis close contact:
A
  • Treat meningitis with ceftriaxone.

- Rifampin prophylaxis in close contacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

  • conjugated to what?
  • given to kids at what age?
A
  • Vaccine contains type B capsular polysacc.(polyribosylribitol phosphate) conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein.
  • Given between 2 and 18 months of age.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which bug can grow if plated w/s. aureus?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Legionella pneumophila

  • gram stain?
  • shape?
  • oxidase +/-
A
  • Gram-negative rod

- oxidase +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Best way to stain for Legionella?

A

silver stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Legionella

-how do you Dx?

A

Detected clinically by presence of antigen in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Legionella

-is there person-to-person transmission?

A

No

-only from aerosol from environment - water sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Legionella

-Tx:

A

macrolide or quinolone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Legionnaire’s disease

-what will CXR show?

A

-patchy infiltrate w/consolid. of one lobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • gram stain?
  • shape?
  • lactose fermenter?
  • oxidase +/-?
A
  • gram (-) rod.
  • non-lactose fermenter
  • oxidase (+)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

-odor?

A

grape-like odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

-what are its toxins?

A

endotoxin (fever, shock) and exotoxin A (inactivates EF-2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • mechanism of exotoxin?
  • same as what other bug’s toxin?
A
  • exotoxin A inactivates EF-2.

- diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • Sxs:
  • mnemonic:
A

PSEUDOmonas is associated with wound and burns.

  • Pneumonia (especially in CF)
  • Sepsis
  • External otitis (swimmer’s ear)
  • UTI
  • Drug use and Diabetic Osteomyelitis
  • hot tub folliculitis
  • Malignant otitis externa in diabetics.
  • Ecthyma gangrenosum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pneumonia in CF pts?

-which bug?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hot tub folliculitis

-which bug?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

-causes otitis _____

A

externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Malignant otitis externa in diabetics

  • which bug?
  • what will it look like?
A
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- graulation tissue usually seen w/in ear canal in malignant otitis externa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Diabetic Osteomyelitis

-which bug?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which bugs are from water source?

A

Legionella & pseudomonas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

  • what is it?
  • what bug causes it?
A

-rapidly progressive, necrotic cutaneous lesions caused by Pseudomonas bacteremia. Typically seen in immunocompromised patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

-Tx:

A

-aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (e.g., piperacillin, ticarcillin, cefepime, imipenem, meropenem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • encapsulated?
  • motile?
  • catalse +/-
A
  • encapsulated & motile.

- catalase (+).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

E.coli: pneumonia & meningitis

-main virulence factor?

A

K capsule—pneumonia, neonatal meningitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

E.coli: septic shock

-main virulence factor?

A

LPS endotoxin—septic shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ETEC

  • what type of diarrhea?
  • invasive?
A
  • watery

- not invasive (or it would be called EIEC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

EPEC

  • how does it work?
  • whats it cause?
A

-No toxin produced. Adheres to apical surface,
flattens villi, prevents absorption.
-Diarrhea usually in children (Pediatrics).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

EHEC

-aka?

A

STEC

-Shiga toxin–producing E. coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

EHEC

-how to distinguish it vs all other E.coli strains?

A
  • Does not ferment sorbitol (distinguishes it from other E. coli).
  • doesn’t have glucoronidase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

E. coli

-catalase +/-?

A

catalse (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Klebsiella

  • what gives it such a mucoid appearance?
  • Red “currant jelly” sputum.
A

-abundant polysaccharide capsules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Klebsiella

-what are the 4 A’s?

A 
4 A’s:
Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lungs and liver
Alcoholics
di-A-betics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Salmonella

  • how do you get it?
  • which strain is unique?
A

Is unique among the enterics b/c it lives in the GI tract of animals and can infect humans anytime food or water is contaminated w/animal feces. (exception = salmonella typhi, which is only carried by humans).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Salmonella

-In the U.S., most commonly found in which foods?

A

chickens and uncooked eggs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Shigella

-how does it cause diarrhea?

A

*Patients develop diarrhea because the inflamed colon, damaged by the Shiga toxin, is unable to reabsorb fluids and electrolytes. Plus the necrotic cells and blood/pus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Why can salmonella disseminate hematogenously but shigella cant?

A

Bc salmonella is encapsulated (Vi capsule) and shigella is not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Shigella

-reservoir:

A

Only reservoirs are humans and primates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Salmonella v. shigella

-which one produces H2S?

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Salmonella v. shigella

-ABx help shorten fecal excretion duration in which one?

A

Shigella

-ABxs may prolong fecal excretion of salmonella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Salmonella invades intestinal mucosa and causes what sort of response?

A

monocytic

-macros

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Shigella invades intestinal mucosa and causes what sort of response?

A

Neutros

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Rose sports on abdomen + diarrhea.

-which bug?

A

Salmonella typhi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Salmonella typhi

-where can this bug colonize?

A

gallbladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Hektoen agar: what color is:

  • shigella
  • salmonella
A
  • shigella = green.
  • salmonella = black.

*all motile enterics = H2S positive = black on hektoen agar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

All motile enterics are ___ positive and are _____ on hektoen agar.

A

all motile enterics = H2S positive = black on hektoen agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

-Tx:

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

-Common antecedent to:

A

-Guillain-Barré syndrome and reactive arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which enteric bug transmitted thru puppy feces?

A

Yersinia entercolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Similarities btwn yersinia & listeria:

A
  • transmitted thru milk

- can resist cold temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Yersinia

-whats stain look like?

A
  • gram (-)
  • Bipolar staining (stains heaviest at the ends).
  • makes it look like safety pin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Yersinia

-encapsulated?

A

yes

78
Q

Yersinia entercolitica

-Sxs:

A

Invasive, bloody diarrhea.

79
Q

Signs of appendicitis but its a child thats playerd w/puppy poop:

A

Yersinia entercolitica

80
Q

Yersinia pestis

  • reservoir?
  • vector?
A
  • Praire dogs

- fleas = vector

81
Q

H. pylori

  • catalase:
  • oxidase:
  • urease:
A
  • catalase +
  • oxidase +
  • urease +
82
Q

H. pylori

-how to Dx:

A

Urea breath test or fecal antigen test for diagnosis

83
Q

H. pylori

-Tx: triple therapy:

A

triple therapy: PPI + clarithromycin + either amoxicillin or metronidazole.

84
Q

Weil disease:

A

Icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis—severe form with jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction; fever, hemorrhage, and anemia.

85
Q

conjuctival suffusion

-which bug?

A

leptospira

86
Q

Ixodes tick

-natural reservoir?

A

Mouse

87
Q

Lyme disease

-Tx:

A

doxycycline, ceftriaxone.

88
Q

Bilteral facial nerve palsy

-think what disease?

A

Lyme disease

89
Q

Whats unique about rash of secondary syphillis?

A

targets soles and palms

90
Q

Syphillis

-you get condyloma ___

A

lata

91
Q

Congenital syphilis

-signs:

A

Saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII deafness, Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars.

92
Q

Congenital syphilis

-prevention:

A

To prevent, treat mother early in pregnancy, as placental transmission typically occurs after first trimester.

93
Q

HIV evasion of humoral immunity due to mutation in which gene?

A

env

-codes for structural glycoproteins.

94
Q

“cottage cheese” discharge from vagina

  • which bug:
  • Tx:
A
  • candida

- fluconazole

95
Q

Inc. vaginal pH (aklaline environement)

-present in which vaginal diseases?

A
  • gardernella vaginalis
  • trichomonas vaginalis

*candida yeast infection = normal pH.

96
Q

Most common cause of candida vaginitis:

-what are other causes?

A

Antibiotic use

  • will dec. # of gram (+) bacteria in the vagina.
  • OCP use, systemic corticosteroid use, DM, immunosupression.
97
Q

Which bugs can cause diarrhea w/a small inoculum?

A

Shigella, campylobacter, entamoeba histolytica, giardia.

98
Q

Which drugs end w/-oxacin?

A

fluoroquinolones

99
Q

Which cephalosporins are useful against pseudomonas?

A

cefepime, ceftazidime

100
Q

erythema infectiosum

  • aka?
  • which bug?
A
  • fifth disease

- parvovirus B19

101
Q

hepA

  • which virus family?
  • genome made of?
  • envelope?
A
  • picorniaviridae
  • ssRNA
  • no
102
Q

hepB

  • virus fam?
  • genome?
  • envelope?
A
  • hepadnaviridae
  • dsDNA
  • yes
103
Q

hepC

  • virus fam?
  • genome?
  • envelope?
A
  • Flaviviridae
  • ssRNA
  • yes
104
Q

hepD

  • virus fam?
  • genome?
  • envelope?
A
  • deltaviridae
  • ssRNA
  • yes
105
Q

hepE

  • virus fam?
  • genome?
  • envelope?
A
  • hepeviridae
  • ssRNA
  • no
106
Q

Which hep virus is made of DNA?

A

hepB

107
Q

germ tubes

-think what?

A

candida albicans

108
Q

intraabdominal infections

-most commonly isolated bugs?

A

bacteroides, E.coli

109
Q

Only pathogenic fungus w/polysacc capsule?

A

cryptococcus neoformans.

110
Q

Does alcohol destroy spores?

A

No.

111
Q

Strep pyogenes

-main virulence factor?

A

Protein M.

-its the target of humoral response to the bug.

112
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

  • what is it?
  • commonly seen in which disease?
A
  • Flu-like syndrome after antibiotics are started—due to killed bacteria releasing pyrogens.
  • syphillis Tx w/penicillin.
113
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

-especially seen w/use of which drug?

A

penicillins.

114
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis

-How to Dx?

A

1) KOH whiff test. Adding the KOH makes the smell especially strong.
2) microscopic exam of discharge - you see Clue cells.

115
Q

Treatment for all ricketssial infections:

A

doxycycline

116
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

  • whats it cause?
  • vector?
A
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

- dermacenter tick

117
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

  • causes which disease?
  • describe the rash:
A

-rash begins on extremities and spreads centrally

which is opposite of typhus.

118
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

-seen most in which state?

A

North Carolina

119
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

-where does rash spread to thats pretty unique?

A

palm/soles.

*secondary syphillis & Coxsackievirus A infection also hit palms/soles.

120
Q

Rickettsiae

  • intracellular? extracellular?
  • what do they need to surive?
A

-obligate intracellular organisms that need CoA and NAD+ because they cannot synthesize ATP.

121
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

-classic triad:

A

-headache, fever, rash (vasculitis).

122
Q

Palm/soles rash

  • which diseases?
  • mnemonic:
A

“You drive CARS using your palms and soles”.

  • Coxsackievirus A infection (hand, foot, and mouth disease)
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • 2° Syphilis
123
Q

Rickettsiae

  • Which Tx used to be given?
  • What was potential side effect?
A

-chloramphenicol used to be given - can cause aplastic anemia.

124
Q

Typhus

  • endemic: which bug? which vector?
  • epidemic: which bug? which vector?
A
  • Endemic: fleas — R. typhi.
  • Epidemic: human body louse—R. prowazekii.

*louse poops on our skin and gets scratched in. Whereas the tick in R. Rickettsia bites us.

125
Q

Typhus

-rash starts where & spread where?

A

Rash starts centrally and spreads out, sparing

palms and soles.

126
Q

Ehrlichiosis

  • vector?
  • what will you see on histology?
A
  • tick

- monocytes w/morulae.

127
Q

Ehrlichiosis & Anaplasmosis

  • presentation:
  • Tx:
A
  • present like RMSF but w/o the rash.

- Doxycycline

128
Q

Anaplasmosis

  • vector?
  • what will you see on histology?
A
  • tick

- granulocytes w/morulae.

129
Q

Ehrlichiosis vs Anaplasmosis

-which one invades macros & which one invades granulocytes?

A
  • anaplasmosis = granulos

- ehrlichiosis = macros

130
Q

Which vector born illness has no arthropod vector?

A

Coxiella burnetii => Q fever.

131
Q

Q fever

  • which bug?
  • how you contract it?
  • presentation:
A

-Coxiella burnetii
-Tick feces and cattle placenta release spores that are
inhaled as aerosols.
-Presents as pneumonia.

132
Q

hepatitis + pneumonia in context of being around
animals
-which bug(s)?

A

coxiella burnetii (and possibly brucella).

133
Q

Chlamydiae

  • what are the 2 forms?
  • which one is infectious?
A

1) Elementary body (small, dense) is “Enfectious” and Enters cell via Endocytosis; transforms into reticulate body.
2) Reticulate body Replicates in cell by fission; reorganizes into elementary bodies.

134
Q

Chlamydiae

-Tx:

A
  • azithromycin (favored because one-time treatment) or doxycycline.
  • give ceftriaxone as well in case of gonorrhea.
135
Q

Why can’t you use beta-lactams to treat chalmydiae?

A

Cell wall lacks peptidoglycan! muramic acid =
constituent of PG. This is why you can’t use beta
lactams!
*Use macrolides or doxycycline instead. They target ribos.

136
Q

Chalmydia trachomatis

  • which serotypes => trachoma?
  • where is it seen most commonly?
A
  • Types A, B, and C.

- Africa

137
Q

Chalmydia trachomatis

-which serotypes => Urethritis/PID

A

-Types D–K.

138
Q

Chalmydia trachomatis

-which serotypes => neonatal pneumonia (staccato cough), neonatal conjunctivitis.

A
  • Types D–K.
  • kind of a trick question: bc types D-K usually below waist, but since babys eyes touched moms vagina, baby gets these serotypes above the waist.
139
Q

Chalmydia trachomatis

-which serotypes => Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

-Types L1, L2, and L3.

140
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

  • painful?
  • presentation?
A
  • no, they’re painless.

- small, painless ulcers on genitals Ž swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (“buboes”).

141
Q

Mycoplasma

-since they have no cell wall, what does their plasma membrane contain to inc. stability?

A

Bacterial membrane contains sterols for stability.

142
Q

Only bacteria w/cholesterol in cell membrane:

A

Mycoplasma

143
Q

Fungi: cell wall

-is it exterior or interior to plasma membrane?

A

exterior

144
Q

Fungi: capsule

-is it exterior or interior to cell wall?

A

exterior.

-its the most exterior thing.

145
Q

What is unique about coccidioidomycosis shape in tissue?

A

The only exception is coccidioidomycosis, which

is a spherule (not yeast) in tissue.

146
Q

Systemic mycoses

  • Tx for local infx:
  • Tx for systemic infx:
A
  • local = fluconazole/itraconazole

- systemic = amphotericin B

147
Q

Difference btwn contracting a systemic mycoses vs TB?

A

No person-to-person contraction of systemic mycoses.

148
Q

Which systemic mycoses associated w/earthquakes?

A

Coccidioidomycosis

149
Q

“Desert bumps” & “Desert rheumatism”

-which fungus?

A

Coccidioidomycosis

150
Q

Para coccidioidomycosis

  • whats it look like?
  • size compared to RBC?
A

Captains wheel

-much larger than RBC

151
Q

Para coccidioidomycosis

-seen in which geographic location?

A

latin america

152
Q

Tinea versicolor

  • caused by what?
  • Tx:
A
  • Malassezia furfur

- topical miconazole, selenium sulfide (Selsun)

153
Q

Tinea versicolor

-whats it look like?

A

“Spaghetti and meatball” appearance.

154
Q

Tinea versicolor

  • is there inflammation?
  • itchy?
A

No - only superficial skin layer affected.

-not itchy bc no inflammation.

155
Q

Other tineae besides versicolor

  • is there inflammation?
  • itchy?
A
  • yes, there is inflammation. Goes slightly deeper than superficial skin.
  • yes, it is itchy bc there is inflammation.
156
Q

Other tineae besides versicolor

  • caused by what?
  • Tx:
A
  • dermatophytes: Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton.
  • Tx: griseofulvin, terbinafne.
157
Q

Endocarditis in IV drug abusers

-fungal

A

candida albicans

158
Q

Does candida usually cause lung disease?

A

No!

159
Q

Candida

  • superficial infection prevented by:
  • systemic infection prevented by:
A
  • superficial ifx prevented by T cells.

- systemic ifx prevented by neutrophils.

160
Q

Candida albicans

-what form will it be at body temp? (37deg)

A

germ tubes

161
Q

Invasive aspergillosis

-happens in which pt pops?

A

immunocompromised & CGD pts.

*aspergillus = catalase (+).

162
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA):

  • which pt pop is it associated with?
  • what can it cause?
A
  • Associated with asthma and cystic fibrosis.

- may cause bronchiectasis and eosinophilia.

163
Q

Aflatoxins

  • how do they cause HCC?
  • found in what foods?
A
  • Induce p53 mutations.

- most often found in peanuts, rice, and cereal/grains.

164
Q

Aspergillus

-whats it look like?

A 
Acute angles (45deg)
-septate hyphae
165
Q

Whats most specific test for cryptococcus?

A

Latex agglutination test detects polysaccharide capsular antigen and is more specific India ink or mucicarmine.

166
Q

Latex agglutination test is specific for what?

A

cryptococcus

167
Q

cryptococcus

-how are the lesions in the brain described?

A

“Soap bubble” lesions in brain.

168
Q

cryptococcus

-budding?

A

-narrow based buds.

169
Q

cryptococcus

-does it form hyphae?

A

does NOT form any hyphae or pseudohyphae, so if
you see something that looks like this but w/hyphae
its Candida albicans.

170
Q

Mucor

  • appearance?
  • how to Dx?
A
  • non-septate, typically at 90 degree angles.

- Dx w/biopsy.

171
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

-what type of pneumonia does it cause?

A

Diffuse, interstitial, bilateral CXR appearance.

172
Q

First marker detected in serum after Hep B infection:

A

HBsAg

173
Q

Most specific marker for acute hep B?

A

IgM anti-HBc

-present during window phase.

174
Q

HBeAg

  • what does it indicate?
  • what if its present longer than 3 months?
A

indicates viral replication & infectivity.

  • associated w/presence of HBV DNA.
  • if it persists longer than 3 months - you prob have chronic hep B.
175
Q

nontypable H. flu

-what does that mean?

A

it has no capsule!

176
Q

Skin infection

-think what bugs?

A

S. aureus, strep pyogenes.

177
Q

Whos capsule is made of PRP?

A

h. influenzae type B.

- polyribosyl-ribitol-phosphate

178
Q

Legionella

-what will gram stain show?

A

Its faintly staining & facultative intracellular, gram staining will show lots of neutros but few if any microbes.
*its Dx using urinary Ag test.

179
Q

colistin

-aka?

A

polymyxin

180
Q

cryptococcus can mimic the appearance of which fungus?

-how to differentiate?

A

candida

-but look for germ tubes to differentiate. Candida has germ tubes.

181
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

-how to Dx?

A

Diagnosed by lung biopsy or lavage.

182
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

-Tx:

A

TMP-SMX, pentamidine,

183
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

-prophylaxis

A

dapsone, atovaquone.

184
Q

When should you start Pneumocystis jirovecii prophylaxis in HIV pts?

A

When CD4 count drops < 200 cells/mm3.

185
Q

Diffuse interstitial pneumonia w/ground-glass appearance

*cells look like rolled up condom

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

186
Q

sporothrix

-what shape is it?

A

cigar-shaped budding yeast

-dimorphic

187
Q

sporothrix

-Tx:

A

itraconazole or potassium iodide.

188
Q

Protozoa

  • which form is protective casing, like a spore?
  • which form is infective?
A
  • cyst

- cyst

189
Q

Protozoa

-motile feeding form?

A

trophozoite

190
Q

Do you get immunity against non-invasive bugs?

A

NO

191
Q

Most common central nervous system infection in AIDS patients:

A

Toxoplasma encephalitis

192
Q

Do protozoa elicit an eosinophilic response?

A

No!

Final FA review (52 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions