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Final FA review > 2/20 > Flashcards

2/20 Flashcards

1
Q

IL-5

  • who releases it?
  • what does it do?
A
  • Th2 cells
  • Promotes differentiation of B cells.
  • Enhances class switching to IgA.
  • Stimulates growth/differentiation of eosinophils.
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2
Q

IL-3

A

Supports growth/differentiation of bone marrow stem cells.

-functions like GM-CSF

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3
Q

Genital tubercle

A
  • glans penis, corpus cavernosum/spongiosum (via DHT)

- glans clitorus, vestibular bulbs (via E)

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4
Q

Urogenital folds

A
  • ventral shaft of penis (urethra)

- labia minora

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5
Q

Lacioscrotal swelling

A
  • scrotum

- labia majora

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6
Q

Hypocalcemia/parasthesias after a blood transfusion? How?

A

Citrate is an anti-coagulant thats mixed into blood transfusions prior to storage.

  • Citrate can chelate calcium and cause hypocalcemia.
  • usually after a massive transfusion.
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7
Q

Hyperkalemia after a blood transfusion? How?

A

RBCs may lyse in old blood units.

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8
Q

Partial central DI vs Complete central DI

A
  • > 50% inc. in urine osm = complete
  • <50% inc. in urine osm = partial

-measured 1 hr after DDAVP infusion.

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9
Q

Superficial inguinal nodes

  • location
  • what do they drain
A
  • anterior thigh, right under inguinal ligament.
  • drain nearly all cutaneous structures inferior to umbilicus including the external genitalia and the anus up to the pectinate line. Includes scrotum.
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10
Q

Deep inguinal nodes

  • location
  • what do they drain
A
  • under fascia lata, on medial side of femoral vein.

- superficial inguinal nodes, deep lymphatic trunks along the femoral vessels, glans penis & clitoris.

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11
Q

Pergolide

A
  • D2 agonist

- used in parkinsons.

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12
Q

Sulfonylureas

-mechanism

A

-close potassium channel in beta-cell => depolarizes cell

=> Ca influx => insulin release.

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13
Q

Glyburide, glipizine, glimepiride.

A

-sulfonylurea, 2nd gen.

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14
Q

Axial images (even CT scans)

A
  • viewed from patients feet.

- so left side of image is pt’s right side.

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15
Q

Most common finding in PCA infarct?

-which CNs does PCA help supply?

A
  • contralateral hemianopia often w/macular sparing.

- CN 3 & 4

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16
Q

Ischemic stroke affects which vessel the most often?

A

MCA

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17
Q

Glucagonoma

A
  • necrolytic migratory erythema.
  • hyperglycemia/DM
  • GI Sxs
  • normochromic normocytic anemia
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18
Q

Zinc deficiency

A
  • delayed wound healing
  • hypogonadism
  • alopecia
  • dysgeusia, anosmia
  • acrodermatitis enteropathica
  • may predispose to alcoholic cirrhosis.
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19
Q

inulin

A

Not resorbed & not secreted

~GFR

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20
Q

PAH

A

Filtered & actively secreted
~RPF
*not resorbed

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21
Q

creatinine

A

-Not resorbed & slightly secreted
-Kind of like inulin
~GFR
*overestimates GFR a tad b/c its slightly secreted.

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22
Q

Resorption of filtered water in the tubule

A
  • 60% PCT
  • 20% descending henle
  • up to 20% collecting duct (via ADH) depending on hydration status.
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23
Q

Fructose intolerance

-do you get cataracts?

A

No

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24
Q

Urine distick

-detects which sugars?

A

Only glucose

-no fructose or galactose.

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25
Q

Interviewing technique: reflection

A

Physician repeats what the patient tells him.

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26
Q

Neurogenic bladder vs urinary retention

A
  • Neurogenic bladder - you cant control your pee, so you give them a muscarinic antagonist so they dont pee themselves.
  • Urinary retention following surgery - they cant pee, so you give them a muscarinic agonist so they can pee.
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27
Q

Oxybutynin

A

anti-muscarinic

-for urge incontinence.

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28
Q

Regression of notochord & thyroglossal duct

-what is this an example of?

A

atrophy

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29
Q

TCA

-block what receptors

A
  • anti-alpha1

- anti-cholinergic

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30
Q

Anti-psychotics

-block what receptors

A
  • anti-alpha1
  • anti-muscarinic
  • anti-histamine
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31
Q

tamsulosin

A
  • alpha-1 blocker but specific for prostate.

- doesn’t affect vasculature.

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32
Q

TCAs = watch out when giving a pt w/BPH

A

-could further inc. their urinary retention.

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33
Q

SVC block vs brachiocephalic block

A

-SVC block would affect both sides whereas brachiocephalic affects 1.

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34
Q

Normal pCO2 levels?

Normal serum bicarb?

A
  • 33-35 mmHg

- 22-28 mEq/L

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35
Q

Aspirin poisoning

-order of events

A

1) acute respiratory alkalosis b/c aspirin stimulates respiratory center to hyperventilate.
2) few hours later, metabolic acidosis.
* low bicarb due to metabolic acidosis, not renal comp for resp alkalosis. (renal comp takes at least a few days to kick in).

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36
Q

Where is juxtaglomerular apparatus?

Where is macula densa?

A
  • afferent arteriole

- DCT

37
Q

HIDA scan

A

-no radionuclide taken into gallbladder = blockage of cystic duct.

38
Q

S-100

-marker for what?

A
  • neural crest origin.

- melanoma, schwannoma, langerhan cell histiocytosis, neural tumors.

39
Q

Which cranial nerve can schwannomas NOT arise from?

A

CN2 (covered by oligodendros).

40
Q

karyorrhexis

A

nuclear fragmentation

41
Q

Apop: DNA laddering

-how big are fragments?

A

180-bp fragments

42
Q

How does radiation therapy kill cells?

A

Induces apoptosis via free radicals & ds breaks.

43
Q

BAX, BAF, bcl-2

-anti or pro apoptosis?

A

BAX & BAF = pro-apop
Bcl-2 = anti-apop (by inhibiting APAF)
*over-expression of bcl-2 = cancer

44
Q

Fas-FasL interaction. Where do we see this?

-what happens when there are mutation in FAS?

A
  • thymic medullary negative selection.

- Mutations in Fas increases numbers of circulating self-reacting lymphocytes due to failure of clonal deletion.

45
Q

Whats the first sign of shock?

A

tachy

46
Q

Distributive shock includes:

*distributive = high output

A
  • septic
  • neurogenic
  • anaphylactic
47
Q

PCWP (LA pressure) only inc. in which type of shock?

A

-cardiogenic shock. b/c of fluid backup.

48
Q

Fibrinous inflammation

A

-acute infl: fibrinogen leaks out of permeable vessels and polymerizes to fibrin on surface of organ.

49
Q

CD 14 on macros

A

TLR

50
Q

Psammoma bodies

-dystrophic or metastatic calcification?

A

-dystrophic.

51
Q

Metastatic calcification:

  • in which tissues most often?
  • why?
A
  • Gastric, renal, lungs
  • these tissues lose acid quickly. Alkaline environment favors deposition of calcium.
  • ALP released by osteoblasts makes alkaline environment and then lays down bone.
52
Q

Margination/Rolling

A
  • endo: selectins/GlyCAM-1, CD34

- WBC: Sialyl-LewisX, L-selectin

53
Q

Adhesion

A
  • endo: CAMs (cell adhesion molecules)

- WBC: CD11/18 integrins (LFA-1, Mac-1), VLA-4 integrin

54
Q

Diapedesis

A
  • endo: PECAM-1 (CD-31)

- WBC: PECAM-1 (CD-31)

55
Q

oxidative bust

A

first step w/NADPH oxidase.

-superoxide turns NBT blue

56
Q

fibroblast growth factor

-whats it do?

A

angiogenesis

57
Q

EGF

-how do these stimulate growth?

A

-tyrosine kinase activation

58
Q

Decreased ESR found in:

A

Sickle cell, polycythemia, CHF.

59
Q

Iron poisoning

A

-can lead to metabolic acidosis.

60
Q

Primary amyloidosis

A

AL: Ig light chain

-plasma cell disorder/multiple myeloma

61
Q

Secondary amyloidosis

A

AA: amyloid A

62
Q

Dialysis amyloidosis

  • build up of what?
  • may present as what?
A

beta-2-microglobulin

-may present as carpal tunnel

63
Q

G6PD A:B ratio

  • hyperplasia
  • neoplasia
A
  • normal: 1:1
  • hyperplasia: 1:1
  • neoplasia: either A or B will be huge compared to the other. monoclonal prolif.
64
Q

Barr Body

A

-Female: each cell in body inactivates an X chromosome (either one from mom or dad) randomly. So by chance alone it’ll be 1:1 ratio.

65
Q

vimentin

-stains for which cancer

A

sarcomas

-vimentin = connective tissue IF.

66
Q

dermatomyositis associated w/which cancer?

A

lung cancer

67
Q

keratin

-marker for what

A

epithelial cells

68
Q 
Liver fluke (Clonorchis sinensis)
-which cancer?
A

Cholangiocarcinoma

69
Q

Schistosoma haematobium

-which cancer?

A

Bladder cancer (squamous cell)

70
Q

Aflatoxins cause mutations in what?

A

p53 genes

71
Q

which cancer has highest mortality rate among both men and women?

A

lung cancer

72
Q

Neonatal HIV

  • Sxs?
  • prevention?
A
  • oral thrush, severe lymphopenia, interstitial pneumonia.

- give mother zidovudine during pregnancy starting at 14 wks then to baby for six weeks post-partum.

73
Q

Common cardinal veins

-whats derived from these?

A

-right common cardinal v. + right anterior cardinal v. = SVC.

74
Q

What does truncus arteriosus give rise to?

A

asc. aorta & pulm. trunk

75
Q

What are 3 groups that fetus’ veins fall into?

A

Vitelline, umbilical, Cardinal

76
Q

Fate of vitelline veins?

A

form veins of portal system

77
Q

Fate of umbilical veins?

A

degenerate

78
Q

Fate of cardinal veins?

A

form veins of systemic circ.

79
Q

What is the biggest factor in determinging coronary blood flow? Esp. during exercise.

A

Duration of diastole.

80
Q

Capitation

A
  • physicians paid a fixed amount per pt. not per service.
  • so there is incentive to contain costs due to fixed budget allocated to them.
  • strongly associated w/preventative care.
81
Q

What are 2 primary contributors to serum ALP?

A

liver (including biliary system) and bone.

82
Q

How do you test for cystinuria?

-how do u treat it?

A

Sodium nitroprusside test is positive. Detects urine cystine. Detects cystine’s sulfhydryl groups.
-treat: hydration & alkalinization of urine.

83
Q

Sites on Ig for attachment

A

-complement attaches above where macros/neutros/b cells bind via Fc receptors.

84
Q

Where is aortic regurg heard?

A
  • left sternal border.

- 2/3rd rib space.

85
Q

Papillary muscle defect results in what cardiac murmur?

A

-mitral valve regurg.

86
Q

Osteomyelitis: most common location

  • kids
  • adults
A
  • kids = metaphysis

- adults = epiphysis or vertebral body

87
Q

sequestrum

A

dead piece of bone

88
Q

Use of GGT (gamma glutamyl transpeptidase)?

A

distinguishing btwn bone or biliary system as the source of the elevated ALP.

  • NOT found in bone disease.
  • found primarily in hepatocytes and biliary epithelia.
89
Q

Lacrimation, salivation, flushing (vasodilation), diaphoresis, miosis.
-too much what NT?

A

muscarinic cholinergic overstimulation.

-too much ACh.

Final FA review (52 decks)

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