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Immunology Quiz Questions > 2022 exam 3 questions > Flashcards

2022 exam 3 questions Flashcards

1
Q

the secondary adaptive immune response to pathogens is faster than the first adaptive immune response due to the presence of what?

A

memory cells

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2
Q

the English physician Edward Jenner developed a method of prevention known as vaccination. he discovered that inoculation of individuals with ______________ prevent the disease known as smallpox.

A

cowpox

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3
Q

activated B cells within germinal centers can

A

differentiate into effector plasma cells or memory B cells

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4
Q

the Pfizer/BioNTech and Moderna vaccines against SARS-CoV-2, the causative agent of COVID-19 are __________ vaccines.

A

mRNA

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5
Q

which is the first class of immunoglobulin secreted by plasma cells during the primary response?

A

IgM

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6
Q

memory B cells are quickly activated upon a second encounter with a pathogen, producing immunoglobulins that have undergone what process?

A

somatic hypermutation and isotype switching

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7
Q

the secondary immune response is primed by ________________ cells.

A

memory

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8
Q

during a secondary immune response, naive B cells _______________________ if they recognize the same pathogen as a memory B cell.

A

are inhibited

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9
Q

the incorporation of ______________ into vaccines helps to elicit an inflammatory response.

A

adjuvants

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10
Q

the first memory T cells produced during clonal expansion are T memory stem cells, which can differentiate into what types of cell(s)?

A

central memory T cells or effector memory T cells

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11
Q

which of the following represents the correct sequence of events during a mucosal immune response?

A

pathogen infection –> pathogen delivery to lamina propria –> pathogen destruction in lamina propria –> healthy mucosal tissue

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12
Q

all of the following are activated in a mucosal immune response except

A

NFkB

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13
Q

antibodies are important for protection during

A

both systemic and mucosal immunity

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14
Q

which of the following is a cell of innate immune system and would respond to proteins during a helminth infection by secreting IL-5 to promote activation of granulocytes?

A

ILC2

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15
Q

which of the following occurs in mucosal immunity but not in systemic immunity?

A

pathogens are delivered to the lamina propria through M cells

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16
Q

which of the following is the correct definition of systemic immunity?

A

it is the innate and adaptive immune responses that protect most of our body

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17
Q

what role does the normal microbiota play in protecting mucosal surfaces?

A

it competes with pathogens for space and nutrients

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18
Q

intestinal macrophages, gut dendritic cells, and innate lymphoid cells function in the innate immune response to combat mucosal infection without inducing

A

the typical inflammatory response

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19
Q

the most common immunoglobulin produced by plasma cells in the lamina propria is

A

IgA

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20
Q

the main function of the MALT is to

A

centralize activation of an adaptive immune response at mucosal surfaces

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21
Q

when two variants of influenza virus enter the same host cell, new viruses containing aspects of both variants can be produced in a process is known as

A

antigenic shift

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22
Q

many species of bacteria have multiple ________________ that exhibit different surface molecules and thus are not recognized by the same immunoglobulins.

A

serotypes

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23
Q

an extracellular pathogen that can inhibit function of the actin cytoskeleton is

A

Yersinia pestis

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24
Q

the bacterial species Listeria monocytogenes escapes the phagosome after it is phagocytosed by creating holes in the phagosome membrane using

A

the toxin listeriolysin O

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25
Q

a superantigen produced by bacteria can result in

A

the immune response becoming dysfunctional

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26
Q

destruction of virus-infected host cells occurs primarily through the direct action of

A

cytotoxic T cells

27
Q

a survival method used by an intracellular pathogen is to avoid ______________________ fusion inside the phagocyte.

A

phagolysosome

28
Q

some bacteria perform degradation of IgA on mucosal surfaces using an IgA

A

protease

29
Q

the RNA genome of influenza virus is replicated by a RNA polymerase that does not have proofreading abilities, thus errors can be introduced, changing the surface molecule structures in a process known as

A

antigenic drift

30
Q

viruses can incorporate their viral genomes into a host cell and undergo a dormant state known as

A

latency

31
Q

severe combined immunodeficiencies often are due to the lack of which cell subsets?

A

lymphocytes

32
Q

what would be the expected phenotype of a mouse that does not express Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (BTK)?

A

lack of B-cells only

33
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a missing or impaired

A

thymus

34
Q

patients with hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE) have low levels of plasma C2 and C4 complement proteins, resulting in potentially life-threatening conditions. which protein is most commonly mutated in such patients?

A

C1INH

35
Q

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a

A

retrovirus

36
Q

classical NK cell deficiency can be caused by improper hematopoiesis due to haploinsufficiency of which transcription factor?

A

GATA2

37
Q

individuals with Omenn syndrome lack which proteins from somatic recombination?

A

RAG1 or RAG2

38
Q

_____________ immunodeficiency can be due to environmental factors, such as exposure to toxins .

A

secondary

39
Q

B-cell immunodeficiencies are the most prevalent inherited immunodeficiencies because

A

inherited immunodeficiencies in innate or T cells result in significant morbidity compared to B-cell immunodeficiencies

40
Q

in Chediak-Higashi syndrome, patients have defects in proteins that control lysosomal trafficking because

A

lysosomes aren’t able to fuse with phagosomes, resulting in inefficient destruction of bacteria

41
Q

reactions that occur when immunoglobulins stimulate an unwanted response following immune complex formation are called type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.

A

III

42
Q

which type of reaction occurs when a small amount of allergen is injected into the skin via an insect bite or sting or as part of testing to diagnose specific allergies?

A

Wheal and flare

43
Q

mast cell degranulation can also activate smooth muscle fiber contraction, which

A

prompts coughing, sneezing, vomiting, or diarrhea to expel a pathogen from the mucosal tissue

44
Q

delayed-type reactions caused by the activation of T cells by a foreign, but harmless, antigen are called type ___ hypersensitivity reactions.

A

IV

45
Q

inflammatory mediators, such as TNF-alpha, increase

A

migration of other immune cells to the site of infection and also inhibit pathogen division and survival

46
Q

reactions caused by the production of immunoglobulins that recognize host cell-surface molecules and target cells containing these molecules via the complement pathway or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytoxicity are called type ___ hypersensitivity reactions.

A

II

47
Q

molecules that can specifically trigger a type I hypersensitivity response are known as

A

allergens

48
Q

ABO blood types are determined by the presence or absence of the three glycolipid antigens

A

H, A and B

49
Q

the stimulation of an immune response by an innocuous substance is called

A

hypersensitivity

50
Q

_______________ are capable of secreting inflammatory mediators such as histamine and prostaglandins and toxic molecules, including major basic protein, peroxidase, cationic protein, and a cellular neurotoxin.

A

eosinophils

51
Q

DPT vaccine

A

older vaccine
diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus
toxoid vaccine: inactive antigen is injected, neutralization of toxins via immunoglobulin production
inactivation by formalin or heat treatment
given by injection (intramuscular, thigh)
IgG

52
Q

Tdap vaccine

A

newer diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus vaccine
toxoid and inactivated
inactivation by formalin or heat treatment
booster (recommended every 10 years)
given by injection (intramuscular, thigh)
IgG

53
Q

Pfizer COVID vaccine

A

rapid development and production
mRNA vaccine
inactivated vaccines: require booster, first dose does not elicit an immune response that provides a high level of protection
given by injection (arm)
IgG

54
Q

Salk polio vaccine

A

inactivated vaccine: composed of killed or inactivated pathogens, formalin or heat treatment
given by injection
IgG

55
Q

Sabin polio vaccine

A

live attenuated vaccine: utilize pathogens that has lost its ability to cause disease but does not kill the pathogen, survives in host without causing disease
closely mimics infection
administered orally (swallowed)
promotes IgA response over IgG

56
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

bacteria live in the cytosol of host cells following phagocytosis
escape phagosome, avoiding destruction by the host cell
uses a pore-forming toxin (listeriolysin O) to punch holes in the phagosome membrane
allows bacteria to escape into the cytosol, where it is protected from phagocytes and neutralizing antibodies
lateral movement, adjacent cell spreading

57
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

prevents fusion of the phagosome by targeting proteins involved in membrane trafficking and fusion
coats surface and prevents docking
uses protein phosphatases to dephosphorylate and inactivate the host proteins involved in these processes
block acidification of the interior of the phagosome by preventing assembly of the proton pumps made by the host cell

58
Q

Neisseria spp. (gonorrhea)

A

use multiple gene copies of Opa outer membrane protein, each copy has its own expression switch
allows bacteria to vary expression of Opa on the surface and avoid the host immune response
express variants of their pilin gene, allowing different pili to be expressed on the bacterial surface
vary sugars at ends of the lipooligosaccharide molecules found in their outer membranes
block lymphocyte activation or lymphocyte effector mechanisms
degrade IgA at mucosal surfaces using an enzyme

59
Q

varicella zoster

A

causes chickenpox and shingles
herpes virus
immune system must recognize a viral infection and destroy the infected host cell
can limit antigen presentation within the host cell, minimizing CD8 T-cell activation
viral latency: ability to remain dormant, needs to be reactivated

60
Q

staphylococcus aureus

A

degrade IgA at mucosal surfaces using an enzyme
recurring bacterial infections
bind to both MHC class II molecules and T-cell receptors
stimulates a very strong nonspecific T-cell response
cause inflammation
superantigen
blocks IgA action and the complement pathway
prevents phagocytosis
blocks C5 (formation of the MAC)

61
Q

hypersensitivity type 1

A

allergic response
immediate, seconds
granulocytes (mast cells, eosinophils, basophils)
IgE
leads to release of inflammatory mediators from the granulocytes
Fc epsilon receptors
causes symptoms of allergy such as rhinitis or anaphylaxis
mast cell: expel pathogen
basophils: pathogen expulsion, parasites
eosinophils: secretion of inflammatory mediators (histamine, prostaglandins) and toxic molecules
allergen specificity

62
Q

hypersensitivity type II

A

complications with circulatory system
cell mediated, minutes
classical complement pathway or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
IgG (can also be IgM)
recognizes cell-surface molecules and destroys
ex. blood transfusion reactions
reactions include: opsonization in phagocytosis, activation of complement on recognized cells, activation of antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Fc gamma
C3b recognition
result in destruction of the cell through phagocytosis, lysis through action of the MAC, or destruction by NK cells

63
Q

hypersensitivity type III

A

complexes, minutes to hours
phagocyte
IgG (or IgM)
recognize soluble antigens and form immune complexes
results in the unnecessary activation of complement and activation of phagocytic cells
ex. serum sickness and Arthus reaction
abnormal activation of inflammatory responses and cells that attempt to clear the immune complexes
disruption of normal phagocytosis

64
Q

hypersensitivity type IV

A

delayed, > 2 days
no antibody
delayed type cytotoxic T-cell (TD cell)
caused by delayed activation of T cells by a foreign, harmless antigen
ex. contact dermatitis and granulomas
chronic infection
APCs
sensitization and effector phase
induced by intracellular bacteria, viruses, fungi

Immunology Quiz Questions (15 decks)

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