WCVD Papich lectures Flashcards

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1
Q

Fluoroquinolones should not be mixed with what compounds because they can chelate the drug and inhibit absorption?

A

metals - particularly iron, magnesium, aluminum; and calcium

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2
Q

Decreasing the stomach acidity inhibits oral absorption of what drugs as they are better absorbed in an acidic environment?

A

antifungal azoles (ketoconazole, itraconazole), pimobendan, oclacitinib

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3
Q

Decreasing the stomach acidity enhances absorption of what drugs because they are less stable in an acidic medium?

A

penicillins, omeprazole

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4
Q

Sucralfate contains what ingedient that can interfere with absorption of fluoroquinolones?

A

aluminum

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5
Q

What ingredients in antacid drugs can bind to tetracyclines and prevent absorption from the GI tract?

A

magnesium and calcium

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6
Q

Where are multi-drug resistance efflux pump (P-glycoprotein pump) located?

A

intestine, biliary tract, liver, kidney tubules, placenta, blood-brain barrier

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7
Q

What drugs inhibit the P-glycoprotein pump?

A

fluoxetine, paroxetine, itraconazole, ketoconazole, methadone, verapamil, quinidine, bromocriptine, tamoxifen, St. John’s Wort, erythromycin, pentazocine, carvedilol, cyclosporine, chlorpromazine, Grapefruit juice

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8
Q

Ketoconazole can cause drug interactions through its activity on what pathways?

A

inhibits P-glycoprotein AND cytochrome p450

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9
Q

Drugs that are substrates for P-glycoprotein

A

Doxorubicin, Vincristine, Vinblastine, Aldosterone, Cortisol, Dexamethasone, Methylprednisolone, Erythromycin, Cyclosporine, Ketoconazole, Itraconazole, Terfenadine, Phenothiazines, Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Levofloxacin, Loperamide, Morphine, Digoxin, Dilitiazem, Verapamil, Tacrolimus, Ivermectin, Amitriptyline, Ondansetron

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10
Q

What drugs increas the activity of P-glycoprotein? What effect does this have on other drugs?

A

rifampin, corticosteroids, phenobarbital – results in increased clearance of other drugs

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11
Q

What substances are cytochrome enzyme inducers?

A

phenobarbital, phenytoin, phenylbutazone, pentobarbital, diazepam, alcohol, chlorinated hydrocarbons, griseofulvin, estrogen, progestogens, diphenhydramine, rifampin, hyperthyroidism

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12
Q

What is a phase I reaction in the liver?

A

metabolize drugs to a more water-soluble compound - often oxidative reactions, but other reactions (reduction) can occur

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13
Q

What are phase II reactions in the liver?

A

conjugation reactions – e.g. conjugation with glucuronic acid; other conjugation reactions with amino acids, acetyl groups, and sulfate also are possible

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14
Q

Name inhibitors of cytochrome p450 enzymes

A

cimetidine, ketoconazole, organophosphates, quinidine, cyclophosphamide, ondansetron, cyclosporine, diazepam, loperamide, morphine, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, interferon, tetracycline, verapamil, propofol, vincristine, fluoxetine, ivermectin

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15
Q

Which drugs are most likely to cause a problem due to their role as a cytochrome p450 inhibitor?

A

ketoconazole, cyclosporine, chloramphenicol

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16
Q

Which drugs are most likely to cause a problem due to their role as a cytochrome p450 inducer?

A

rifampin, phenobarbital

17
Q

T/F: Antibiotics administered to dogs and cats cause resistance in bacteria.

A

False - antibiotic exposure can SELECT for resistant bacteria

18
Q

What are the most common bacteria producing resistant infections in small animals?

A

E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Methicillin-resistant Staph spp., Enterococcus spp.

19
Q

T/F: Administration of antibiotics can increase the shedding of drug-resistant fecal bacteria.

A

TRUE

20
Q

T/F: Use of fluoroquinolones and cephalosporins has been linked to emergence of resistance in staphylococci in dogs.

A

False - use of specific drugs have not been associated with methicillin resistance but administration of ANY antimicrobial within 30 days of prior to infection was identified as a risk factor

21
Q

Rifampin: Bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

22
Q

Rifampin: MOA?

A

inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase

23
Q

What is most common adverse effect of rifampin?

A

hepatoxicity

24
Q

Adverse effects from doxycycline?

A

renal injury, intestinal disturbances, hepatic injury

25
Q

T/F: All tetracyclines cause dental enamel discoloration.

A

False - doxycycline does NOT chelate with calcium

26
Q

T/F: Aminoglycosides are equally effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

A

False - more effective against gram NEGATIVE bacteria

27
Q

Vancomycin: Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

28
Q

Vancomycin: MOA?

A

inhibits cell wall formation

29
Q

Vancomycin: Adverse effects?

A

skin flushing, pruritus, tachycardia (related to histamine release); nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

30
Q

Linezolid: route of administration?

A

oral and IV - oral absorption is ~100%

31
Q

What enzyme does linezolid inhibit?

A

mild, reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidases A and B

32
Q

Carbapenems: Bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

33
Q

Disadvantages of imipenem?

A

inconvenience of administration, short shelf-life after reconstitution, high cost

34
Q

T/F: Penicillins have little activity on gram negative bacteria.

A

True - even when combined with beta-lactamase inhibitors

35
Q

Unique adverse effect of prednisolone in cats?

A

congestive heart failure

36
Q

Why is acetaminophen more toxic to cats than dogs?

A

cats are deficient in glucuronidation enzyme (required for elimination of acetaminophen)

37
Q

Unique adverse effect of voriconazole in cats?

A

neurologic/ocular problems

38
Q

Why are slow-release tablets not well absorbed in cats?

A

shorter intestines - GI transit time variable

39
Q

What drugs have a slower clearance in cats due to their glucuronidation deficiency?

A

aspirin, benzoic acid, acetaminophen, chloramphenicol, morphine, desmethyl tramadol (active metabolite of tramadol)