Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet Derm Review > WCVD Lloyd lectures > Flashcards

WCVD Lloyd lectures Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

What are the three species that comprise the Staphylococcus intermedius group?

A

S. intermedius, S. pseudintermedius, S. delphini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What technique(s) for bacterial identification depends on chromatography and mass spectrometry?

A

matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization time-of-flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF-MS), electrospray-ionization mass spectrometry, Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy, Raman spectroscopy and electrokinetic separation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: Sequencing of 16S ribosomal RNA is a useful technique for bacterial identification because the genes are highly conserved.

A

True - and a large database of specific sequences is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What technique for bacterial identification has been used for defnining the skin microbiome?

A

16s ribosomal RNA sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What coagulase negative staphylococci have been reported to cause infection in dogs, cats, and small mammals?

A

S. schleiferi schleifer, S. felis, S. lugdunensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are risk factors for infection with coagulase negative staphylococci?

A

recent steroid administration, male animals more often affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Characteristics of Macrococcus: Gram + or -? Coagulase + or -? Major species?

A

Gram positive cocci, coagulase variable (+ or -); M. caseolyticus, M. canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Macrococcus spp. can carry which resistance genes, conferring resistance to all beta-lactam antibiotics, includings those with a beta-lactamase inhibitor?

A

mecB and mecD –> may be multi-drug resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F: Bacteria of the genus Cutibacterium are commensals of canine skin and there is no report of pathogenicitiy in skin.

A

True - inhabit hair follicles; single case report of a UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacteria from the genus Trueperella are most commonly associated with what type of infections?

A

abscesses and bite wounds (cats > dogs), purulent disease in livestock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Characteristics of Neisseria: Gram + or -? Common location on body? Major species?

A

gram negative coccoid bacteria; oral inhabitants of dogs & cats; Neisseria dumasiana, Neisseria canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Characteristics of Burkholderia spp: Gram + or -? Major species?

A

Gram negative rods; Burkholderia cepacia, Burkholderia pseudomallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This is a ubiquitous, gram negative rod, found in water, moist soil and contaminated environments, and can adhere to plastic. It can cause life-threatening opportunistic infections in immunocompromised humans as well as dogs treated with cyclosporine.

A

Burkholderia spp. (Burkholderia cepacia & pseudomallei)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: Burkholderia cepacia is often multi-drug resistant.

A

True - culture and sensitivity tests should be carried out to determine treatment options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causative agent of melioidosis in humans and animals (glanders)

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Burkholderia pseudomallei is found in water and soil and contaminated environments in what regions of the world?

A

Southeast Asia, Northern Australia, South Pacific; emerging in Africa and the Americas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Burkholderia pseudomallei has been isolated from what animals in the Europe and USA

A

green iguanas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is Burkholderia pseudomallei typically acquired?

A

opportunistic infecton in immunocompromised individuals through wounds, inhalation, or ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What organism causes the disease Buruli ulcer?

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three most common mycobacterial species in human diseases?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium leprae, Mycobacterium ulcerans

21
Q

What disease does Mycobacterium ulcerans cause?

A

Buruli ulcer – results in necrotising ulcers with undermining edges

22
Q

What species of Mycobacterium have been associated with leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium lepromatosis and leprae

23
Q

T/F: Leprosy is a zoonotic disease.

A

True - reported to be transmitted from armadillos to humans

24
Q

What two types of bacteria that lack cell walls may be involved in cutaneous infections?

A

Mycoplasma spp. And L-forms

25
Q

T/F: Mycoplasma spp. are normal members of the oral and upper respiratory tract flora in dogs and cats.

A

True - have also been found in canine axillary skin in microbiome studies

26
Q

To what antibiotics are Mycoplasma spp. Intrinsically resistant? Why?

A

beta-lactams and other agents that target the cell wall –> they do not have a cell wall.

27
Q

What are good empirical choices for treatment of Mycoplasma spp.?

A

macrolides, lincosamides, tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones

28
Q

T/F: Mycoplasma spp. are difficult to isolate in culture.

A

True - may be readily obscured by other bacteria; need special sampling transport media and special isolation techniques

29
Q

T/F: L-forms lack cell walls.

A

False - they are partially cell wall deficient, and originate from bacteria with cell walls, they may be able to revert to parental type.

30
Q

Why are L-forms difficult to diagnose?

A

difficult to demonstrate with light microscopy (require electron microscopy of fresh tissue); cannot be cultured and identified by routine techniques

31
Q

L-forms usually cause infections in what location of the body?

A

polyarthropathies; cutaneous lesions are typically feline draining abscesses over joints

32
Q

Cytology of infections due to L-form bacteria usually demonstrates what?

A

non-toxic neutrophils (may contain granules) and macropahges

33
Q

L-form bacteria usually respond to treatment with what antibiotics?

A

tetracyclines, macrolides, chloramphenicol

34
Q

T/F: Staph aureus MSCRAMMs (microbial surface components recognizing adhesive matrix molecules) are adhesions (lectins) that bind to the extracellular matrix.

A

TRUE

35
Q

Lectins such as Staph aureus MSCRAMMs (microbial surface components recognizing adhesive matrix molecules) bind via what receptors on host cells?

A

carbohydrate-recognition domains to glycan receptors on host cells – either terminal sugar residues or internal sequences found in oligosaccharide chains

36
Q

T/F: Sugars are found in secretions such as saliva and tears that can antagonize the lectin binding sites and prevent colonization of staph aureus.

A

TRUE

37
Q

What is quorum sensing? What manages quorum sensing?

A

ability of bacterial species to alter their mode of behavior from a non-aggressive to an aggressive phenotype; involves secretion by the bacteria of peptide signalling molecules which are detected by the other bacteria; managed by the accessory gene regulator (agr) system

38
Q

Is biofilm formation a characteristic of a non-aggressive phenotype or an aggressive phenotype of bacteria?

A

non-aggressive: bacterial cells are protected fom host attack and other substances (including antimicrobials) by embedding themselves in a polysaccharide matrix formed by capsular material

39
Q

Biofilm formation is promoted by what factors?

A

stress factors – including exposure to subinhibitory concentrations of antimicrobials

40
Q

What is secreted by an aggressive phenotype of bacteria?

A

exotoxins, haemolysins, leucocidins – provoke more acute disease

41
Q

____ are the most abundant mobile genetic elements of bacteria, which are variable in size and can replicate independently from chromosomal DNA but can integrate into chromosomal DNA.

A

Plasmids

42
Q

_____ are mobile genetic elements of bacteria that MUST integrate into plasmids or chromosomal DNA to replicate, carrying their genetic material into these structures.

A

Transposons

43
Q

______ are the smallest mobile genetic elements that usually only carry a single resistance gene.

A

Gene cassettes

44
Q

These are large mobile genetic elements that have site-specific integration into chromosomal DNA and are typically accompanied by other resistance genes?

A

Integrative and conjugative elements – e.g. Staphylococcal Cassette Chromosome mec (SCCmec)

45
Q

Resistance problems have particularly occurred within a small group of pathogens that are commonly associated with nosocomial infections: ESKAPE pathogens. What are they?

A

Enterococcus faecium, Staph aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterbacter spp., Escherichia coli

46
Q

_____ is resistance to 3 or more antimicrobial classes.

A

multidrug-resistance (MDR)

47
Q

_____ is resistance to all but one or two classes of antimicrobials.

A

extensive drug-resistance (XDR)

48
Q

_____ is resistance to all classes of antimicrobials.

A

pandrug-resistance (PDR)

49
Q

T/F: Classical MRSA infection in dogs and cats is caused by clones that are associated with community-acquired infections.

A

False - human hospital infections

Vet Derm Review (44 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions