Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet Derm Review > Viral Diseases - Syke's > Flashcards

Viral Diseases - Syke's Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

What antiviral drugs are used to treat feline herpesviral infections?

A

famciclovir, idoxuridine, cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: Antiviral drugs can act synergistically with immunomodulators.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do antiviral drugs have greater toxicity than antibiotics? Examples of toxicity?

A

can also affect the function of host cell machinery; bone marrow suppression, immunosuppression, carcinogenic, teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a nucleoside analogue?

A

resembles host nucleosides, which are nitrogenous bases with an attached sugar molecule used as a building block for the formation of DNA or RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: Latent viral infections cannot be treated with nucleoside analogues.

A

True - replication of virus is necessary for the drugs to work; however, reactivation of these infections can be reduced in frequency or prevented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of famciclovir?

A

prodrug that is activated by the herpesviral enzyme thymidine kinase, which phosphorylates them to a monophosphate form. Host cell enzymes then phosphorylate the drugs further to triphosphate forms, which concentrate in virus-infected cells and interfere with viral DNA replication via inhibition of the viral DNA polymerase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: Feline herpesvirus-1 infections are more susceptible to acyclovir than human herpes simplex.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir/valacyclovir?

A

guanosine analogue; interferes with viral DNA polymerase and DNA synthesis. Activity requires viral thymidine kinase (TK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lysine?

A

lysine is an amino acid that interferes with herpesviral replication by a poorly understood mechanism (antagonism of arginine may be involved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are interferons?

A

cytokines with antiviral properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are type I interferons? What cells produce them?

A

IFN-alpha, IFN-beta, IFN-omega; leukocytes and fibroblasts product in response to viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of type I interferons in disease mitigation?

A

activate natural killer cells, increase expression of MHC class I molecules, and have antitumor activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______ is the only type II interferon and is produced by T lymphocytes and NK cells in response to antigenic stimulation.

A

IFN-gamma – plays a critical role in clearance of intracellular pathogens by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why can recominant human IFN-alpha lose efficacy after parenteral administration?

A

due to development of neutralizing antibodies (loses activity after 3 or 7 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F: Recombinant human IFN-alpha is not effective when given orally because it is degraded by gastric acid.

A

False - although it is degraded by gastric acid, studies have shown beneficial outcomes for FHV-1, FeLV and FIV infections (presumably because immunomodulation follows mucosal absorption of the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of IFN-omega?

A

type I interferon – secreted by virus-infected leukocytes, increases macrophage and NK cell activity, has antiviral activity against FeLV, FHV-1, feline calicivirus, paroviruses, and feline coronavirus; also has antitumor activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Side effects of treatment with recombinant feline IFN-omega?

A

lethargy, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia (esp at higher doses); some bloodwork abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do glucocorticoids aid in treatment of viral diseases?

A

dampen an overzealous immune response that contributes to the pathology of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FIV is what type of virus? What animals does it infect?

A

enveloped, RNA virus - Lentivirus genus of Retroviridae; infects domestic and wild cats + hyenas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Structure of retroviruses such as FIV?

A

three-layered structure - inner genome-nucleocapsid complex with helical symmetry, icosahedral capsid, and an envelope with glycoprotein spikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Major genes of the FIV genome?

A

gag (encodes virion core proteins – capsid, nucleocapsid, and matrix); pol (encodes reverse transcriptase, protease and integrase enzymes); env (encodes surface and transmembrane virion envelope glycoproteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FIV invades cells via what receptors?

A

CD134 (primary) - expressed on feline CD4+ T cells, B cells, and activated macrophages; CXCR4 (secondary) - chemokine receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: Latency is one mechanism by which retroviruses can evade the host immune system.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: Retroviruses can survive outside of the host for long periods of time.

A

False - survive only minutes outside the host and are susceptible to disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the major mode of transmission of FIV?

A

bites - FIV is shed in high concentrations in saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main cellular target for FIV?

A

CD4+ T cell; can also infect CD8+ T cells, B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells, microglia, and astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F: Cats with FIV often have a latent infection for years or for life.

A

False - it is NOT a latent infection, it is a SUBCLINICAL infection because the virus production CONTINUES at low levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the three phases of FIV infection?

A

acute (primary), subclinical, and terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What neoplasias are most commonly reported with FIV?

A

Lymphoma - especially B cell lymphoma*; FIV-infected cats are 5X more likely to develop lymphoma than non-infected cats (and more likely to develop it earlier)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What screening test is used for testing for FIV infection?

A

ELISA assay that detects antibody against FIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common abnormality on a chemistry profile for a cat infected with FIV?

A

hyperproteinemia – results from increased gamma-globulin concentration and is a direct result of FIV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: A positive FIV ELISA equals FIV infection in a cat over 6 months of age.

A

True - because the virus establishes a lifelong, persistent infection; false positive results occur rarely due to operator error or nonspecific reactivity against tissue culture components after vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why might a kitten under 6 months of age have a false positive FIV screening test?

A

maternal antiboides (infection or vaccination of the queen)

34
Q

Why might a cat have a false negative FIV ELISA?

A

can occur early in the course of illness because cats may take up to 60 days to develop an antibody response

35
Q

What drug should be avoided when treating dermatophytosis in an FIV-positive cat? Why?

A

griseofulvin – associated with bone marrow suppression in FIV-positive cats

36
Q

What type of virus is FeLV?

A

enveloped, RNA virus - genus Gamaretrovirus, family retroviridae

37
Q

What species can be infected with FeLV?

A

domestic cats; wild felids - including Iberian Lynx

38
Q

T/F: FeLV infection progresses more rapidly than FIV infection and is more pathogenic, so more infected cats die of FeLV-related disease.

A

TRUE

39
Q

Mode of transmission of FeLV?

A

close contact with salivary secretions (licking, mutual grooming, shared food/water dishes); lesser extent - biting, transplacental, milk, blood transfusion

40
Q

T/F: FeLV can survive for long periods of time outside of the host.

A

False - all retroviruses survive poorly outside of the host and are readily inactivated by disinfectants, soap, and dessication

41
Q

Is the median age of cats infected with FeLV younger or older than cats with FIV?

A

Younger - median age of cats infected with FeLV is 3 years

42
Q

T/F: After exposure to the FeLV virus, all cats will become infected.

A

False - some cats can develop an abortive infection whereby the virus is eliminated

43
Q

What are the most common neoplasias associated with FeLV?

A

Lymphoma - especiallly T cell lymphoma** - can by thymic, multicentric, spinal, renal, or ocular lymphoma

44
Q

Multiple fibrosarcomas in young cats are a result of infection with what virus?

A

FeLV infection that recombines with ceullar oncogenes to form feline sarcoma virus**

45
Q

Cutaneous horns are associated with what virus?

A

FeLV infection - due to benign keratinocyte hyperplasia

46
Q

What screening test is used for testing for FeLV infection?

A

free FeLV Antigen** in serum (detects soluble p27 capsid protein)

47
Q

T/F: Kittens can be tested at any time for FeLV because maternal antibodies do not interfere with the FeLV testing.

A

True - because the ELISA test for ANTIGEN

48
Q

T/F: FeLV vaccination produces sterilizing immunity.

A

False - cats can still develop infection but vaccination prevents PROGRESSIVE infection

49
Q

T/F: There is no effective treatment for FeLV infections.

A

True - manage secondary complications; equivocal benefit described in some studies for interferon-omega and interferon-alpha or the antiviral drug zidovudine

50
Q

A positive IFA for FeLV indicates the virus has spread where?

A

bone marrow – almost always results in progressive infection; IFA tests for FeLV antigen in blood cells

51
Q

When might a PCR test for FeLV be useful?

A

screen for blood donors (in conjunction with antigen testing); test for regressive infection when FeLV is strongly suspected but antigen tests are negative

52
Q

What is the main capside protein in the FeLV virion?

A

p27

53
Q

What are the main structures in the envelope of the FeLV virion?

A

gp70 glycoprotein, transmembrane protein p15E

54
Q

How does the viral envelope protein p15E of the FeLV virus contribute to immunosuppression?

A

inhibits T and B cell function, inhibits cytotoxic lymphocyte responses, alters monocyte morphology and distribution, impaired cytokine production and responsiveness

55
Q

Does FeLV impair T or B cells more?

A

T cells (lesser extent also impairs B cell function)

56
Q

What does PCR for FeLV detect?

A

FeLV RNA (RT-PCR), or proviral DNA

57
Q

What type of virus is FHV-1?

A

large, enveloped DNA virus

58
Q

Latent infections with FHV-1 primarily occur in what tissue(s)?

A

trigeminal ganglia

59
Q

T/F: FHV-1 survives for long periods of time outside of the host.

A

False - survives a maximum of 18 hours at room temperature, readily inactivated by drying and most disinfectants

60
Q

Primary mode of transmission of FHV-1?

A

close contact, lesser extent fomite spread or aerosol transmission

61
Q

Reactivation of shedding of FHV-1 can occur _____ days after stress, and can last for ____.

A

4-12 days after stress; shedding for 1-13 days (mean 7 days)

62
Q

The presence of corneal ulceration raises suspicion for which viral infection?

A

FHV-1

63
Q

T/F: Apparently healthy cats can shed FHV-1.

A

True - thus, PCR results for FHV-1 must be interpreted with caution

64
Q

T/F: ELISA testing for FHV-1 can aid in diagnosis of infection.

A

False - due to high prevalence of subclinical exposure to the virus

65
Q

Histopathological findings with facial dermatitis due to FHV-1

A

epidermal ulceration and necrosis that can extend to superficial dermis, infiltration with neutrophils, eosinophils, histiocytes, plasma cells, lymphocytes; intranuclear viral inculsions can be identified

66
Q

T/F: No respiratory viral vaccine prevents infection, carrier state, or reactivation of viral shedding with FHV-1.

A

True - can reduce disease severity, duration of shedding, viral infectivity, and load of latent virus in the trigeminal ganglia

67
Q

What type of virus are papillomaviruses?

A

non-enveloped, icosahedral viruses with a circular double-stranded DNA genome

68
Q

T/F: Papillomaviruses can survive in the environment for prolonged periods of time.

A

True - resistant in the environment and can survive detergents and high temperatures

69
Q

Papillomaviruses are classified based on what part of the genome?

A

L1 capsid protein gene sequence

70
Q

Papillomaviruses have been associated with what diseases in cats?

A

feline viral plaques, Bowenoid in situ carcinomas, invasive cutaneous SCC, feline sarcoids

71
Q

Papillomaviruses have been associated with what diseases in dogs?

A

oral papillomatosis, cutaneous exophytic papillomas (warts), cutaneous endophytic papillomas (inverted warts), pigmented cutaneous plaques, cutaneous in situ SCC, invasive cutaneous SCC, oral SCC

72
Q

Initial infection and viral amplification with Papillomaviruses occur in what cells?

A

within keratinocytes in the stratum basale

73
Q

What viral proteins stimulate cell cycle proliferation and lead to enhanced proliferation of cells in the stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum when infected with papillomavirus?

A

early viral proteins (E proteins)

74
Q

Where are the late viral products (virus capsid proteins L1 and L2) first expressed with papillomavirus infections?

A

stratum spinosum

75
Q

What clinical manifestation of papillomavirus is due to a latent infection?

A

feline sarcoids

76
Q

Some papillomaviruses produce proteins that degrade what important tumor suppressors?

A

p53 and retinoblastoma protein

77
Q

T/F: Mature virions are shed with cells that exfoliate from the stratum corneum with papillomavirus infections.

A

TRUE

78
Q

Methods for detection of papillomavirus

A

PCR assay, IHC, in situ hybridization, electron microscopy

79
Q

For what clinical manifestation of papillomavirus infection would IHC not be useful?

A

feline sarcoids (latent infection)

80
Q

What is koilocytosis?

A

papillomavirus-induced cytopathic effects = extensive cytoplasmic vacuolation and nuclear pyknosis

81
Q

Histopathological findings with feline sarcoids

A

dermal fibroblastic proliferations with overlying epithelial hyperplasia that includes long, thin rete ridges that extend into the tumor (may be confused with sarcomas!)

Vet Derm Review (44 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions