VFR Flashcards

1
Q

Controlled Airspace

A

A-E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Uncontrolled Airspace

A

G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bravo Visibility Requirements

A

3SM and Clear of Clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Charlie Visibility requirements

A

3SM and 1000’ above / 500’ below / 2000’ horizontally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Delta Visibility Requirements

A

3 SM and 1000’ above / 500’ below / 2000’ horizontally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Echo Visibility Requirements

A

surface to 3 SM and 1000’ above / 500’ below / 2000’ horizontally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which airspaces have control towers?

A

Bravo, Charlie, and Delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is TRSA? Is it mandatory?

A

Terminal Radar Service Area

It is optional but highly recommended. Must comply after joining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Special Visual Flight Rules Requirements?

A

1/2 SM and Clear of Clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a MEF?

xxx” AGL or MSL?
(xxx’) AGL or MSL?

A

Maximum Elevation Figure?

MSL
AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the special use areas and how are they depicted?? Can you enter each?

A

NSA No

Warning Areas Yes
WA53
Alert Areas Yes
A-211
Restricted Areas Yes with prior permission
R-2103
MOA’s Yes
Rose Hill MOA
Prohibited Areas No
P-12
Controlled Firing Areas Must have a DVFR flight plan
Solid magenta line and magenta dots
(ADIZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Describe Class A Airspace
Chart Depiction:
Lateral dimensions
Vertical Dimensions:
Operating Requirements:
Cloud Clearance Requirements:
A

a. none
b. the airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM off the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska
c. from 18,000’ MSL up to and including FL 600
d. IFR only, unless otherwise authorized by ATC
e. none (IFR only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Pressure locked from \_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_'
Oxygen requirements
10,000'
11,500'
12,000'
14,000'
A
7,000, 14,000
1 hr
1 hr
30 mins
0 min supplemented oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When must you obtain a clearance for Class B?

A

prior to entering class b airspace

You will hear “Tail #, cleared to enter”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Describe Class B Airspace
Chart Depiction:
Lateral dimensions
Vertical Dimensions:
Operating Requirements:
Cloud Clearance Requirements:
A

a. blue concentric circles
b. individually tailored
c. individually tailored
d. ATC clearance required to enter and operate inside Class B, Mode-S transponder-based ADS-B transmitter
e. 3 SM visibility and clear of cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
Describe Class C Airspace
Chart Depiction:
Lateral dimensions
Vertical Dimensions:
Operating Requirements:
Cloud Clearance Requirements:
A

a. magenta concentric circles
b. core surface area - 5 NM, shelf - 10 NM
c. core surface area - surface to 4,000’ above airport elevation, shelf - no lower than 1,200’ up to 4,000’ above airport elevation
d. Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entry and maintained while inside Class C
airspace, Mode-S transponder-based ADS-B transmitter required inside and above class C airspace
e. 3 SM visibility; 500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontal distance from clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Describe Class D Airspace
Chart Depiction:
Lateral dimensions
Vertical Dimensions:
Operating Requirements:
Cloud Clearance Requirements:
A

a. blue segmented lines
b. individually tailored
c. generally from the surface to 2,500’ above the airport elevation (charted in MSL)
d. Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entry and maintained while inside Class D airspace.
e. 3 SM visibility; 500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontal distance from clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
Describe Class E Airspace
Chart Depiction:
Lateral dimensions
Vertical Dimensions:
Operating Requirements:
Cloud Clearance Requirements:
     Below 10,000':
     Above 10,000':

SFC depiction
SFC to 700 ft depiction
SFC to 1200 ft depiction

A

a. magenta and blue vignettes, magenta dashed lines, “tire tracks”
b. as depicted
c. from wherever it begins to a designated altitude, or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace
d. normally none
e. Below 10,000’ MSL - 3 SM visibility; 500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontal distance from clouds
At/Above 10,000’ MSL - 5 SM visibility; 1,000’ below, 1,000’ above, and 1 SM horizontal distance from clouds, Mode-S transponder-based ADS-B transmitter

segmented magenta circle
shaded magenta
no boundary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Describe Class G Airspace
Chart Depiction:
Lateral dimensions
Vertical Dimensions:
Operating Requirements:
Cloud Clearance Requirements:
     Below 1200' AGL regardless of MSL alt:
     Above 1200' AGL/Below 10,000' MSL':
     Above 1200' AGL/Above 10,000' MSL':
A

a. Generally none. Class G is considered to be outside of and underneath controlled airspace.
b. outside of controlled airspace
c. outside of controlled airspace
d. none
e. Below 1,200’ AGL regardless of MSL altitude – ½ SM day, 1 SM night, clear of clouds
Above 1,200’ AGL/Below 10,000’ MSL – 1 SM day; 3 SM night; 500’ below, 1,000’ above, 2,000’ horizontal distance from clouds
Above 1,200’ AGL/Above10,000’ MSL - 5 SM visibility; 1,000’ below, 1,000’ above, and 1 SM
horizontal distance from clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Can you enter Special Use Areas?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is TFR?

A

Temporary Flight Restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where does VFR altitude rule begin?

What is the rule?

A

above 3000’ AGL

0-179 : odd plus 500
180-359: even plus 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the SVFR req?

A

1/2 mil no ceiling

24
Q

How are special use airspaces depicted?

A
  1. feathered blue line outlining inclusive area

2. feathered magenta line outlining inclusive area

25
Q

TC +- DC = ___ ____ = MH

A

TH +- VAR

26
Q

the angle measured clockwise from true north to the proposed flight path

A

true course

27
Q

the actual flight path over the ground measured clockwise from True North

A

TR (track)

28
Q

the angle measured from magnetic north clockwise to the nose of the aircraft

A

MH (magnetic heading)

29
Q

the amount of correction applied to prevent drifting off course

A

DC (drift correction)

30
Q

calibrated airspeed corrected for error due to air density (altitude and temperature)

A

TAS (true airspeed)

31
Q

GS (ground speed)

A

the speed of the A/C over the ground

32
Q

the angular difference between true north and magnetic north

A

VAR (variation)

33
Q

a line connecting points of zero degree variation

A

agonic line

34
Q

a line connecting points of equal magnetic variation

A

isogonic line

35
Q

indicated airspeed corrected for instrument installation error

A

CAS (calibrated airspeed)

36
Q

The angle measured clockwise from True North to the nose of the aircraft

A

TH (true heading)

37
Q

An aircraft is flying on a heading of 010°. A wind from 210° will cause a drift to the ____ (left/right) and groundspeed to be ____________ (slower / faster) than TAS.

A

right, faster

38
Q

TR and TC are always exactly the same. __________ (True/False)

A

False

39
Q

Which of the following is affected by wind? ___________ (TAS, IAS, GS, CAS)

A

GS

40
Q

Drift angle is the difference between ______ and ________.

A

TH and TR

41
Q

Ground speed is used to calculate the time required to fly a given distance. ________ (True/False)

A

True

42
Q

__+/-__=__+/-__=__

A

TC+/-DC=TH+/-VAR=MH

43
Q

IAW AR 95-1, how must a military flight plan be filed?

A

Local commanders will establish policies specifying the flight plan or operator’s log to be used. (AR 95-1 chapter 5, section 5-2d)

44
Q

What publication provides instructions for completing DD Form 1801 flight plan entries?

A

General Planning (GP) chapter 4

45
Q

What entry would be placed in Item 7 “Aircraft Identification” on the DD Form 1801?

A

The approved tactical call sign or R followed by the last five digits of the aircraft tail number, per GP page 4-7

46
Q

What entry would be placed in Item 7 “Aircraft Identification” on the DD Form 1801?

A
47
Q

For a flight departing from Eglin Air Force Base, which flight plan would you file?

A

DD Form 1801

48
Q

Are notations required on flight plans when VIP’s are on board the aircraft?

A

Yes

49
Q

How is fuel listed on a DD 1801?

A

“Total amount” on board in 4 figures expressed in hours and minutes. GP pg. 4-24 item 19

50
Q

What would be an approved method for closing flight plans at military installations?

A

Per AR 95-1 page 41, para 5-5e, when the flight terminates the PC will ensure the flight plan
is closed as shown in DOD/U.S. Government FLIP. Per the GP (which is FLIP) page 6-10, section 6-9b(1), the pilot should verbally confirm closing with tower or base ops. Although the GP doesn’t specifically say so, communicating with ground control would also be acceptable.

51
Q

Your destination, Big Town airport, is inside class D airspace. When you check the forecast weather, Big Town is forecasting conditions of 1,200 feet ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your estimated time of arrival. Can you legally file a VFR flight to this Airport? Explain your answer.

A

Yes you can, per AR 95-1 Section 5-2c (4)

52
Q

What are the Rotary wing Day SVFR minimums for Fort Rucker operated airports/heliports?

A

300’ ceiling and ½ SM visibility Reference Area Planning AP-1, page 3-76

53
Q

How may an Army pilot close a civilian flight plan at a non-military installation?

A

The pilot closes the flight plan with Flight Service through any means of communication available. GP page 6-10 paragraph 6-9 b (3)

54
Q

Is a flight plan or operator’s log always required?

A

Yes, per AR 95-1 chapter 5-2d

55
Q

With a headwind the ___ will be lower and the ____ will be higher

A

Ground speed (GS), True airspeed (TAS)

56
Q

Agonic line

A

0 degrees

57
Q

isogonic line

A

dashed magenta line