Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Common Core > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum flight crew consists of _____.

A

one pilot in the right pilot seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The maximum number of occupants comprises up to _____ persons (including the flight crew)

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The maximum approved gross mass for flight is ____.

The minimum approved gross mass for flight is _____.

A

7903 lbs

3858 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The maximum allowed floor loading is _____.

A

123 lb/ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The maximum allowable load per tie-down is _____.

A

154 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vne for OEI operations under all conditions is ____.

A

110 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vne for steady autorotation under all conditions is _____.

A

90 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The maximum operating altitude is ____ PA.

A

18,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The maximum operating altitude for hover in ground effect/takeoff and landing is _____ or ______, whichever comes first.

A

18000 ft DA, 18000 ft PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flights with closed NACA inlets (PUSH FOR AIR knob - pulled) (e.g. under extreme smoke, smog conditions) are restricted to _____ to prevent avionics overheating.

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The minimum air temperature (without cold weather kit/s) is ____.

A

-30 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The maximum air temperature is _____.

A

50 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For engine start-up at outside air temperature below ____ using the aircraft battery, the aircraft battery shall be preheated to at least _____.

A

-20 degrees C, -20 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rotor RPM Limitations

CONDITION                                 POWER ON                             POWER OFF
Min Transient -
Min Cont
GM <= 2000 kg
GM >= 2000 kg
Max Cont
Partial Power
Torque <= 2x30% -
Max Transient
A

CONDITION POWER ON POWER OFF
Min Transient 85% -
Min Cont:
GM <= 2000 kg 96% 80%
GM >= 2000 kg 96% 85%
Max Cont 104% 104%
Partial Power:
Torque <= 2x30% 106% -
Max Transient 106% 110%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Engine Oil Pressure
Minimum
Caution Range
Continuous Operation
Maximum Continuous

NOTE: Exceeding ____ oil pressure is allowed for transient operation during the start cycle and warm up at ____ only.

A

Minimum 1.3 BAR
Caution Range. 1.3 BAR - 1.5 BAR
Continuous Operation 1.5 BAR - 5.0 BAR
Maximum Continuous 5.0 BAR

5.0 BAR, ground idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the minimum power application and maximum operation Engine Oil Temperature limits?

A

Minimum
Oil viscosity 3cST and 3.9 cST — -10 degrees C

Maximum
115 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Engine ventilation energize time limits onboard power

A

20 sec on
60 sec off
20 sec on

23 min off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Engine ventilation energize time limits external power

A

15 sec on
60 sec off
15 sec on

23 min off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum continuous load per generator

A

200 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Total maximum continuous load

A

360 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Main Transmission Oil Pressure

Minimum:
Caution Range:
Continuous Operation:
Maximum:

NOTE: XMSN OIL PRESS warning illumination is ____ in the range from ____ BAR during the pressure build up phase.

A

Minimum: 1.0 BAR
Caution Range: 1.0 BAR - 1.5 BAR
Continuous Operation: 1.5 BAR - 5.0 BAR
Maximum: 5.0 BAR

acceptable, 1.0 to 1.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Main Transmission Oil Temperature
Continuous Operation:
Maximum:

A

Continuous Operation: -10 degrees C

Maximum: 110 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fuel quantities: Useable Fuel

Total:

A

226 gallons, 1530 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prohibited Maneuvers

A
  1. Aerobatic Maneuvers
  2. Intentional full autorotation landings
  3. Flight into icing conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rotor starting and stopping in high wind

Up to a maximum of __ kt winds from all horizontal directions

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hydraulic system quantity

Hydraulic System 1 ___ liters
Hydraulic System 2 ___ liters

A
  1. 0

1. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hover turns

Up to 3200kg maximum __ degrees per second
Above 3200kg maximum __ degrees per second

A

45

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Main rotor Mast Moment limits
Maximum ____ bar
Caution Range _____ region
Normal range _______ region

A

red
yellow
from yellow to center, left side of yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Slope Operations

Ground sloping down to the left max __ degrees
Ground sloping down to the right max __ degrees
Ground sloping nose up max __ degrees
Ground sloping nose down max __ degrees

A

11
6
8
8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lateral center of gravity limits left and right of the fuselage centerline are:

for gross mass up to 3000kg: ___mm
For gross mass over 3000kg: ___mm

A

100

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

VNE for gross mass up to 3000kg

A

150 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

VNE for gross mass above 3000kg

A

145 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rotor RPM Limitations

CONDITION                                       POWER ON                            POWER OFF
Min Transient -
Min Cont
GM <= 2000 kg
GM >= 2000 kg
Max Cont
Partial Power
Torque <= 2x30% -
Max Transient
A

CONDITION POWER ON POWER OFF
Min Transient 85% -
Min Cont
GM <= 2000 kg 96% 80%
GM >= 2000 kg 96% 85%
Max Cont
Partial Power 104% 104%
Torque <= 2x30% 106% -
Max Transient 106% 110%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Main Transmission Oil Pressure

Minimum:
Caution Range:
Continuous Operation:
Maximum:

NOTE: XMSN OIL PRESS warning illumination is ____ in the range from ____ BAR during the pressure build up phase.

A

Minimum: 1.0 BAR
Caution Range: 1.0 BAR - 1.5 BAR
Continuous Operation: 1.5 BAR - 5.0 BAR
Maximum: 5.0 BAR

acceptable, 1.0 to 1.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Main transmission oil temperature

continuous operation
maximum

A

-10 to 105

105

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mast moment limit indications

yellow circle __
red circle __
white line ______
white circle ____

A

50 %
64 %
only displayed when MM is in the yellow range
only displayed when white dot reaches the red circle

37
Q

Mast moment ranges

____ continuous
____ Precautionary thick ____ circle
____% ___ seconds cumulative time MM symbol with number underlined
>___ precautionary landing MM Exceedance

A

0-50%
50-64% YELLOW
64-77%, 25
77

38
Q

VNE with doors spoiled/open

A

100 kts

39
Q

VNE rearward flight with door open

A

15 kts

40
Q

Engine starter energize time limits onboard battery power

A 
30 sec on
60 sec off
30 sec on
60 sec off
30 sec on

30 min off

41
Q

Engine starter energize time limits external power

A 
20 sec on
60 sec off
20 sec on
60 sec off
20 sec on

30 mins off

42
Q

AEO FLI and Torque Limits

___ to ___FLI or __ to __% TQ Continuous
___ to ___FLI or __ to __% TQ 5 minute takeoff power symbol:___
___ to ___FLI or __ to __% TQ 12 second transient symbol: ___

A

0-8.5, 0-71%
8.5-10, 71-88%, yellow arc
10-10.5, 88-97%, red dot

43
Q

Starting TOT Limits

___FLI or __ Celsius MAX TOT starting limit symbol:___
___ to ___FLI or __ to __ Celsius TOT starting 5 sec transient symbol:___
___ to ___FLI TOT starting range symbol: ___

A

8.5, 785, hollow red triangle
8.5-11, 785-865, solid red triangle
6-7, white arc

44
Q

What is the emergency equipment?

A

First aid kits, fire extinguisher, for he aircraft and ALSE Vest and CSEL (combat survivor evader locator) personal

45
Q

What is a Class 2 aircraft?

A

Aircraft whose weight or center of gravity limits can redily be exceeded by loading arrangements normally used in tactical operations or those aircraft designed primarily for transporting troops and other passengers.

46
Q

When shall the DD Forms 365-4 be reviewed?

A

12 months at Fort Rucker and IAW AR 95-1 and 90 days in all other units IAW TM
55-1500-342-23.

47
Q

What are the PC’s responsibilities for weight and balance?

A

The PC will insure the accuracy of the computations of the DD For 365-4; that a completed DD Form 365-4 is aboard the aircraft that represents the loading of the weight and center of gravity will remain within allowable limit for the entire flight.

48
Q

When must the PPC be recomputed?

A

The PPC will be recomputed when there is an increase of:

a. Free air temperature of 5° C
b. Pressure altitude of 500 feet
c. Gross weight of 91 kgs or 200 lbs

49
Q

When must the arrival data be computed?

A

Compute arrival data if arrival conditions at destination have increased from the departure data for any of the following:

a. Free air temperature of 5° C
b. Pressure altitude of 500 feet
c. Gross weight of 91 kgs or 200 lbs

50
Q

What is Aircraft Basic Weight?

A

The Aircraft Basic Weight is the weight of the aircraft with all lubricants and trapped unusable fuel.

51
Q

What is Aircraft Operating Weight?

A

The Aircraft Operating Weight is the Aircraft Basic Weight plus crewmembers and their equipment and any mission equipment

52
Q

What is Aircraft Zero Fuel Weight?

A

The Aircraft Zero Fuel Weight is the Aircraft Operating Weight plus any
passengers, ammunition and cargo

53
Q

What is Aircraft Gross Weight?

A

The aircraft zero fuel weight plus fuel

54
Q

What is Max Torque Available?

A

The maximum amount of power the engine can produce under the maximum environmental conditions while maintaining the rotor at the desired RPM.

55
Q

What does the GO/NO GO TQ for IGE and OGE represent?

A

The GO/NO GO TQ for IGE and OGE represents the torque you could expect to see, at a 3-foot hover, if the aircraft weighed the computed Max GWT IGE/OGE.

56
Q

What can make the aircraft actual hover torque be different from the Predicted Hover TQ?

A

The following can affect actual hover torqe:

a. An increase or decrease in current free air temperature
b. An increase or decrease in current pressure altitude
c. An increase or decrease in aircraft gross weight
d. Hovering of uneven terrain
e. Hovering higher or lower than 3 feet
f. A head wind or a tail wind

57
Q

What does the H/V altitude provide?

A

A minimum OGE altitude at which a safe landing can be made under OEI

58
Q

What would you expect the AEO cruise torque to be if an engine failed?

A

The OEI torque will be twice that of the AEO torque

59
Q

What airspeed requires the least amount of power to maintain straight and level flight?

A

Max Endurance

60
Q

What airspeed allows the aircraft to cover the most distance?

A

Max Range

61
Q

What FLI would you expect to see while flying at Minimum or Maximum OEI airspeed while OEI?

A

12 FLI

62
Q

What would happen if you tried to fly slower than Minimum or faster than
Maximum OEI airspeed while und OEI?

A

The FLI would re-reference N1 or TOT and the rotor would drop below the
desired RPM resulting in a loss of altitude.

63
Q

What is Dynamic Rollover?

A

Dynamic Rollover is the susceptibility of a helicopter to a lateral rolling
tendency.

64
Q

What three conditions are required for dynamic rollover?

A

Pivot Point, Rolling Motion, and Exceeding the Critical Angle

65
Q

What are the human factors to consider in prevention of dynamic rollover?

A

Inattention, inexperience, failure to take timely corrective action, inappropriate
control input and loss of visual reference

66
Q

What should you do to prevent Dynamic Rollover?

A

Making smooth and moderate collective inputs are most effective in preventing Dynamic Rollover.

67
Q

What should you do in the onset of Dynamic Rollover?

A

A smooth and moderate collective reduction is recommended.

68
Q

What are some common errors that lead to Dynamic Rollover?

A

Failure to detect lateral motion, abrupt cyclic displacements, large and /or uncoordinated pedal inputs, rapid collective inputs while performing slope landings and takeoffs are all common errors that lead to Dynamic Rollover.

69
Q

What is Transverse Flow?

A

The difference in lift between the forward portion and the aft portion of the rotor system recognizable by a vibration, resulting in a right rolling motion due to gyroscopic precession.

70
Q

When does Transverse Flow occur?

A

It occurs between 10 and 20 knots, most noticeably during takeoff but also
during deceleration of landing.

71
Q

What actions must a pilot take when Transverse Flow occurs?

A

Left cyclic input

72
Q

What is Dissymmetry of Lift?

A

Dissymmetry of Lift is the difference in lift between the advancing half and the retreating half of the rotor system due to the difference of air velocity and surface area (no lift areas).

73
Q

What are the no lift areas on the retreating side?

A

Reverse Flow, Negative Stall, Negative Lift and Positive Stall

74
Q

How do you compensate for Dissymmetry of Lift?

A

Dissymmetry of Lift is compensated through blade flapping and cyclic
feathering.

75
Q

How does blade flapping compensate for Dissymmetry of Lift?

A

As the blade flaps up on the advancing half it results in a larger induced flow and smaller Angle of Attack. As the blade flaps down on the retreating side it results in a reduced induced flow and larger Angle of Attack.

76
Q

Where does the blade have its maximum up flap velocity?

A

The 3-oclock position

77
Q

Where does the blade have its maximum down flap velocity?

A

The 9-oclock position

78
Q

How does the pilot prevent Blow Back?

A

Blow Back is prevented with forward cyclic (cyclic feathering)

79
Q

What is Translating Tendency?

A

Translating Tendency is the tendency of a single rotor helicopter to drift in the direction of tail rotor thrust.

80
Q

How does and aviator compensate for Translating Tendency?

A

An aviator compensates for Translating Tendency by tilting the rotor to the left with cyclic input.

81
Q

When is Translating Tendency at its highest?

A

While at a hover or when a large collective application is made at the end of an approach.

82
Q

If the MM is ≤_______% the white dot is in center position

A

10

83
Q

Minimum height for hands-off and feet-off operation during T/O and
approach: ________ ft AGL.

A

200

84
Q

Minimum height for hands-off and feet-off operation in cases other
than T/O and approach: ________ ft AGL

A

500

85
Q

Minimum air temperature (with bleed air heating DEFECTIVE) ___________________

A

10

86
Q

Exceeding 5.0 bar oil pressure is allowed for_______ operation during the
_______ and ________ at _______ only

A

transient, start cycle, warm up, ground idle

87
Q 
Engine oil temperature
Minimum for starting:
Oil viscosity 3 cSt and 3.9 cSt \_\_\_\_\_\_
Oil viscosity 5 cSt \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Minimum for power application:
Oil viscosity 3 cSt and 3.9 cSt \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Oil viscosity 5 cSt \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Maximum operating temperature \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

-45
-40
-10
0
115

88
Q

A __________ warning light indicates a hazard which may require immediate corrective action.
A __________ caution indicates the possible need for future corrective action.

A

red

yellow

89
Q

ACRONYMS

1) ENG 1 FAIL or ENG 2 FAIL –
2) FIRE SYS1 or SYS2 GROUND –
3) FIRE SYS 1 or SYS 2 IN FLIGHT –
4) XMSN OIL PRESS –
5) SINGLE ENG FAIL OGE FORCED –
6) SINGLE ENG FAIL OGE TO FLIGHT –
7) SINGLE ENG FAIL INFLIGHT –
8) SINGLE ENG EMER SHUTDOWN –
9) ENG OVERSPEED GOV FAIL –
10) ENG UNDERSPEED GOV FAIL –
11) DOUBLE ENG EMER SHUTDOWN –
12) AUTOROTATION –
13) TAIL DRIVE FAIL HOVER IGE –
14) TAIL DRIVE FAIL HOVER OGE –
15) TAIL DRIVE FAIL FIXED PITCH FLIGHT –

A

ACRONYMS

1) ENG 1 FAIL or ENG 2 FAIL – (OASL)
2) FIRE SYS1 or SYS2 GROUND – (FBBCDp Bb)
3) FIRE SYS 1 or SYS 2 IN FLIGHT – (OAFBCASpL B L)
4) XMSN OIL PRESS – (PL L)
5) SINGLE ENG FAIL OGE FORCED – (CA LC AS)
6) SINGLE ENG FAIL OGE TO FLIGHT – (CA CRA CASL)
7) SINGLE ENG FAIL INFLIGHT – (ORASL)
8) SINGLE ENG EMER SHUTDOWN – (TR)
9) ENG OVERSPEED GOV FAIL – (CVN ATL)
10) ENG UNDERSPEED GOV FAIL – (OBVAN TL S)
11) DOUBLE ENG EMER SHUTDOWN – (Ground = BBB / Flight = BB)
12) AUTOROTATION – (CAD f fhc B)
13) TAIL DRIVE FAIL HOVER IGE – (BLC D)
14) TAIL DRIVE FAIL HOVER OGE – (C A BC D)
15) TAIL DRIVE FAIL FIXED PITCH FLIGHT – (CAsSAL AAA)

Common Core (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions