Variadas 8

Question 1

What is considered “Fall risk” for the TUGS test?

A) maior q 10

b) maior q 12

c)maior q 14

d)maior 16

Answer 1

C

The commonly cited cut-off score of ≥13.5 seconds used to identify individuals at high risk of falls

Question 2

If your right limb was impaired, a compensatory strategy to help you stand would be?

a) Put right foot anterior to left foot

b) Put left foot anterior to right foot

c) Put your left foot in

d) Put your left foot out

e) Shake it all about

Answer 2

A

Question 3

What score represents “at risk for falls” on the Berg balance scale?

A)menor q 46
b) maior q 46
c) menor q 56
d) maior q 56

Answer 3

A

A score of 56 indicates functional balance.

A score of < 45 indicates individuals may be at greater risk of falling.

Question 4

Anticipatory postural control uses:
a) Feedback control
b) Feedforward control
c) Feed me control
d) None of the above

Answer 4

B

Question 5

During mid-stance:

a)Tib. ant. eccentrically controls movement which starts small and progressively increases

b) Tib. ant. eccentrically controls movement which starts big and progressively decreases

c)Gastroc. eccentrically controls movement which starts small and progressively increases.

d) Gastroc. eccentrically controls movement which starts big and progressively decreases

Answer 5

C

Question 6

Largest ROM of any lower limb joint during gait is at the:
a) Ankle
b) Knee
с) Нір
d) Trunk

Answer 6

B

Question 7

If a patient has an impairment to their left leg:

a) Their left stride length will be greater than their right stride length

b) Their right stride length will be greater than their left stride length

c) Their left step length and right step length will be the same

d)Their left step length and right step length will be different

Answer 7

D

Question 8

The swing phase typically endures what % of the gait cycle?

A)30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d)60%

Answer 8

B

Question 9

What% of load goes through the medial compartment of the knee?

a) 60-65%
b) 70-75%
c) 80-85%
₫ 100%

Answer 9

C

Question 10

Which of the following is an accurate representation of the order of a 2nd class
lever?

a)Resistance-Axis-Muscle
b) Muscle-Axis-Resistance
c) Muscle-Resistance-Axis
d) Resistance-Muscle-Axis

Answer 10

C

Question 11

Which would be the best parameters for ultrasound to superficial tissue during the inflammatory phase?

a) 1MHz, 0.5W/cm2
b) 3MHz, 0.5W/cm2
c) IMHz, 2.0W/cm2
d) 3MHz, 2.0W/cm2

Answer 11

B

Question 12

Which modality is best used for wound healing?

a) HVPC -High Voltage Pulsed Current
b)Interferential current
c) iontoforesis
d) Short wave diathermy

Answer 12

A

Question 13

Which settings reflect conventional TENS?

A) 80-150Hz, 60microseconds, 40-60mins

b) 80-150Hz, 60microseconds, 30mins

C)10Hz, 200microseconds, 40-60min

d)10Hz. 200microseconds, 30mins

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Which refers to the ability to recognize objects by touch?

A)Graphesthesia

B)Stereognosis

c) Astereognosis

d) Kinesthesia

Answer 14

B

Question 15

Which is a localized disorder of bone remodelling?

A)Arthogryposis multiplex congenital
B)Salter Harris
c) Prader-Willi syndrome
d) Paget’s disease

Answer 15

D

Question 16

Which of the following is characterized by hyperthyroidism?

a)Addison’s disease
b) Graves disease
c) Cushing’s disease
d) Hashimoto thyroiditis

Answer 16

B

Question 17

Which is not a cardinal sign of psoriasis?
a) Plaque
b) Bright salmon red colour
c) Silvery micaceous scale
d) Asymmetrical distribution

Answer 17

D

Question 18

Pediatric patient presents with burn over head, right arm, posterior torso and right leg. Approximately what percentage of body surface area was affected?

A)36%

b)45%

С)59%

d)63%

Answer 18

C

Rule of 9’s for Children: 9% for each arm, 14% for each leg, 18% for head, 18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.

Question 19

27-year-old female suffered a traumatic brain injury after falling off her mountain bike 2 days ago. She was admitted to the local trauma center where she is currently being monitored. Her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCs) score is currently 11.

Given her GCS score, which of the following descriptions would we anticipate?

a. Unconscious in decorticate posturing

b. Able to make some sounds but cannot speak and is aroused only by pain

c. Oriented and ambulating independently

d. Alert but confused and unable to follow commands consistently

Answer 19

D

A- Unconscious in decorticate posturing
An unconscious patient in decorticate posturing would be scored very low around a 3.

B. Able to make some sounds but cannot speak and is aroused only by pain
This describes a patient with a severe brain injury who would be scoring around an 8 or below.

C. Oriented and ambulating independently
This describes a patient who has sustain a mild brain injury and is rating very high on the
GCS (e.g. 15)

• GSC scores range from 3-15
Mild brain injury: 13-15
Moderate brain injury: 9-12 ilI.
Severe brain injury: 3-8

• Thus, a GCS of 11 in this scenario indicates a moderate brain injury.
This is the best description of a patient with a moderate brain injury and is thus the correct answer.

Question 20

A 40 year male patient presented to the clinic with complaints of mid and low back pain with morning stiffness.

The patient has already seen the doctor and he is tested positive for HLA-B27. The patient had reported NPRS4/10 pain and pain is also present in the buttocks.

According to the above mentioned information. What would be the possible diagnosis of this patient?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Spinal Stenosis
D) Ankylosing Spondylitis

Answer 20

D

the common symptoms of AS is pain relieved with exercises and activity and increases with resting. The majority of patients who have ankylosing spondylitis are also having HLA B27 factor +ve.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true about the espondilite anquilosante?

A) Morning stiffness last greater than 30 minutes

B) Pain decreases with exercise

C) Patient present with decreased lumbar lordosis

D) All of the above

Answer 21

D

A: Morning stiffness lasts more than 30 minutes in AS. For OA, it lasts less than
30 mins. For RA, it usually lasts more than one hour

Option B: Patients with ankylosing spondylitis who are less active or not involved in exercises experience more pain due to decreased joint mobility and muscle weakness.

Option c: In Ankylosing Spondylitis, there is decreased lumbar lordosis and increased thoracic kyphosis. It occurs in advanced stage of AS due to fusion of the joints

Option d: All of the above is the correct answer. Other symptoms are difficulty breathing due to decreased chest expansion, eye disease, involvement of other joints such as hip, knees and shoulders.

Question 22

A physiotherapist is working in the orthopedic ward of a busy downtown hospital. The physiotherapist works full-time Monday to Friday on the ward. They only have a few hours left in their Tuesday shift and need to prioritize the remaining caseload as not all patients will be seen before they leave for the day.

i. A 56-year-old patient who is working with a physiotherapy assistant (PTA), but the PTA has stated that the program needs to be modified due to a new onset of pain.

ii. A 65-year-old patient who is day 1 post total knee replacement who has yet to mobilize or be assessed by physiotherapy. -

iii. A 75-year-old patient who is 2 days post total hip replacement and has been up mobilizing with a standard walker but now
requires a 2-wheeled walker.

iv. A 36-year-old patient who is 2 days post open reduction and internal fixation of the tibia and requires an assessment on
how to safely ascend/descend stairs prior to their discharge home on Wednesday.

Which of the following demonstrates the best order for prioritizing patient care?

A. iv, ii, i, iii
B. i, ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, i, iii
D. ii, i, ili, iv

Answer 22

C

Question 23

Question 1
Which of the following scenarios is it the most appropriate to accept a gift?

A. Your patient gives you a $100 gift card to buy coffee and treats for the front desk staff as a token of their appreciation for getting them in on your cancellation list.

B. You are given a gift card to a local shop as a thank you from your patient during their last treatment.
They are 7 week post uncomplicated distal colles fracture.

C. While writing your initial assessment report, your patient who is 2 weeks post tibial plateau fracture after a motor vehicle accident gives you a plate of cookies.

D. You are given a gift card to a local coffee shop by a patient who you are treating post workplace injury. They were experiencing 10/10 pain at rest when they first saw you and are now at 2/10 pain.

Answer 23

B

Question 24

Question 2
You are a PT working at a private practice clinic with a patient wo suffered a stroke that resulted in hemiplegia. You would like to recommend a hand splint to prevent contractures from developing in the patient’s tight hand. The clinic sells the exact splint you need and is priced only $3.00 less than one that can be purchased online.
How should you proceed?

A. If the product is clinically indicated, suggest the splint from your clinic as it is the lowest price option.

B. Make the patient aware of other braces they can choose from, as well as the brace at your clinic.

C. Make the patient aware of other brace options as you cannot recommend the one at your clinic.

D. Refer the patient to a hand specialist as referring splints are outside of your scope of practice

Answer 24

B

Question 25

You are on a hike with your best friend. At the midway point of the like, your friend falls and badly sprains their ankle. You use a tensor bandage and help them return down the mountain. As you hike out, you provide your friend with strategies to help manage their pain and ankle sprain. Your friend offers to pay you for treatment.
How should you proceed?

A. Since you were the therapist who initially treated their ankle, it is in the patient best interest for the to continue their care with you if further treatment is needed

B. Once at your clinic, create a chart for your friend and document your interaction, do not allow your friend to pay for treatment

C. Once at your clinic, create a chart note for your patient and document your interaction. Your friend can pay for the treatment if they offer. However, you should refer them to another physio for future treatment if needed.

D. Contact the college to advise them that you have breached your professional standards by treating a friend

Answer 25

B

Emergency case so no breaches
Your friend can nor pay for the services

Question 26

Your patient is seeing you for a torn achilles tendon. Recently you have woticed their mood decrease as they are fearing they will never be able to return to sport. You advise them that it is possible and you are working towards that goal, but they continue to appear “off”. You create a treatment plan for them and communicate it to the patient.
You suffered a torn achilles 4 years ago and share your story of your rehab and return to full sport as a way to motivate the patient in their recovery.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. The use of self disclosure is never appropriate as it put your needs to disclose above the patients.

B. The physiotherapist is responsible for managing boundaries to ensure that the relationship is always therapeutic/professional. Disclosing personal information about your story would not be appropriate.

C. Disclosure of personal information to a patient in this situation is appropriate as the therapist is hoping to meet the therapeutic needs of the patient.

D. Disclosure of personal information may make the patient feel like it is their responsibly to heal the therapist, so under no circumstance is is appropriate to disclose personal information.

Answer 26

C

Question 27

Question 5
Your patient is seeing you for a torn achilles tendon. Recently you have noticed their mood decrease as they are fearing they will never be able to return to sport. You advise them that it is possible and you are working towards that goal, but they continue to appear “off”. You create a treatment plan for them and communicate it to the patient.
While you are grocery shopping, you run this patient. They begin to confide in you about a personal situation with a family member. The patient asks for your personal phone number in case the situation escalates as they have no one else to contact. How should you respond?

A. Give the patient your personal phone number but explain to them that they should only use it in the case of an emergency

B. Explain to the patient that you are unable to give out your cell phone number and work on re-establishing professional boundaries.

C. Explain to the patient that you cannot give your number to them, but you can give them your personal email address.

D. Give the patient your personal phone number as your duty is to provide the best care to your patient.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

Your patient is seeing you for a torn achilles tendon. Recently you have noticed their mood decrease as they are fearing they will never be able to return to sport. You advise them that it is possible and you are working towards that goal, but they continue to appear “off”. You create a treatment plan for them and communicate it to the patient.
After several months, you reach the end of your treatment plan and the patient has regained full functional return to sport.
They are incredibly happy with your expertise and leave the following review online.
“Joe is the best therapist in Canada, they helped me return to soccer quickly. Go see Joe for any soccer injuries, they specialize in soccer injuries!.
You would like to showcase this review on your website, how should you do this?

A. Use the testimonial on your website, but remove any identifiable characteristics of the patient such as name. age and injury

В.
Do not use the testimonials as no two patients are alike and it is the physiotherapist’s responsibility to provide care on an individualized basis.

C. Contact the patient and ask for both written and verbal consent to use the testimonial. Offer to remove any identifiable characteristics from the testimonial.

D. Do not use the review on your website as its use goes against physiotherapists advertising professional standards.

Answer 28

D

Question 29

A physical therapist is observing a chest radiograph of a patient. Which of the following characteristics is the LEAST likely to confirm the diagnosis of CHF?

A)Blunting of the costophrenic angle

B)Decrease in heart size

C)Opacities in the lung field

D)Increase in heart size

Answer 29

B

I- An enlarged cardiac silhouette. The
enlargement of the heart in patient with CHF occurs secondary to congestion of fluid in the lung and possible pathological hypertrophy of the ventricles.

Il- Opacities (white areas) in the lung field with interstitial and parenchymal edema. This occurs when excessive fluid collects in the lung when LV end-diastolic pressures exceed 25 mmHg.

IlI- Blunting of the costophrenic angle. In patients with CHF, fluid settles to the lower, dependent aspect of the lung, producing an opaque appearance, and blunts the costophrenic angle.

Question 30

Which is not a symptom of hyperglycemia?

a)Blurred vision
b) Frequent urination
c) Acetone breath
d) Sweating profusely

Answer 30

D

Question 31

RA primarily affects:
a MCP and PIP
b) MCP and DIP
c) DIP and PIP
d) 1st CMC

Answer 31

A

Question 32

Damage to which nerve results in ape hand deformity?

a) Radial
b) Ulnar
c) Median
d) Musculocutaneous

Answer 32

C

Question 33

Which infant reflex is most typical to see in an 8-month-old?

a) ATNR

B)STNR

C)palmar grasp

D)moro

Answer 33

B

Question 34

Patient presents with being easily distracted, but able to respond to simple commands. Patient does not have clear memory since injury and displays inappropriate behaviour. What level on the Ranchos Los Amigos scale is this patient?
a) LevelI
b) Level III
c) Level V
d) Level VII

Answer 34

C

Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning

• Level 1: No response, person appears to be in deep sleep

• Level 2: Generalized response, person reacts inconsistently, not directly in response to stimuli

• Level 3: Localized response, reacts inconsistently, directly to stimuli

• Level 4: Confused/Agitated, person is extremely confused, agitated

• Level 5: Confused-Inappropriate/Non-Agitated, person is confused andresponds inaccurately to commands

• Level 6: Confused-Appropriate, Person is confused, responds accurately to commands

• Level 7: Automatic-Appropriate, person goes through daily routine with minimal confusion

• Level 8: Purposeful-Appropriate, person has functioning memory, responsive to environment, may display depression

• Level 9: Purposeful-Appropriate, goes through daily routine aware of need for stand-by assistance, depression may continue

• Level 10: Purposeful-Appropriate/Modified Independent, goes through daily routine but may require more time or compensatory strategies, periodic depression may occur.

Question 35

Patient ambulates with one crutch opposite to affected limb, advances crutch at same time as affected limb. What gait pattern is this?

a) 3-point

b) 2-point

C) 4-point

d) 2-point modified

Answer 35

D

Referred to as “modified” because a single forearm crutch is used (instead of 2 crutches), this gait is a similar reciprocal movement as with a single cane.

It assumes the affected leg is weight-bearing but weaker than the other leg. Sequence: forearm crutch and affected leg, then strong leg by itself.

Question 36

Which about residual limb bandaging is false?

A)Tension at end of limb should be firm, decreasing gradually as bandage is applied upward

b) Limb should remain in extension throughout procedure

c) Cylindrical shape is best for transtibial and conical shape for transfemoral initially for prosthesis fit

d) All turns should be circular, not diagona.

Answer 36

D

Question 37

Which is not a pressure tolerant area in the residual limb of a transtibial amputee
with a prosthetic?
a) Patellar tendon
b) Medial/Lateral flare of tibia
c) Quadriceps tendon
d) Posterior muscle mass

Answer 37

C

Question 38

Which best describes allodynia?

a )Increased sensitivity to stimulation

B)Increased pain from a stimulus that normally provokes pain

c) Abnormal painful reaction to a stimulus, especially a repeated stimulus

d) Pain due to a stimulus that doesn’t normally provoke pain

Answer 38

D

Question 39

What is the max 02 flow with nasal prongs?
a）2L
b)4L
c) 6L
d) 8L

Answer 39

C

Question 40

FEV1 < 0.7 indicates:

a Restrictive lung disease
b) Obstructive lung disease
c)Restrictive or obstructive lung disease
d)Normal

Answer 40

B

Question 41

Inspiratory reserve volume is:
a)Max inspiration after tidal volume expuration

B)Max inspiration after tidal volume inspiration

c) Max inspiration after max expiration

d) Max expiration after max inspiration

Answer 41

B

Question 42

Peripheral artenal disease occurs:

a) At site of narrowing or obstruction
b) Proximal to site of narrowing or obstruction
c) Distal to site of narrowing or obstruction
D)All of the above

Answer 42

C

Question 43

Mr X is undergoing rehabilitation post Right leg transtibial amputation after a motor vehicle accident. He is undergoing prosthetic training using a Patella tendon bearing (PTB) socket. He complains of tingling and numbness in the amputated part of leg.
During gait analysis with PTB prosthesis PT observes

Q3. that the right knee goes in excessive flexion during early stance. What can be the cause for this gait deviation?

A) Socket placed too far Posterior
B) Socket placed too far Anterior
C) Low shoe heel
D Soft shoe heel

Answer 43

Correct Answer: B
When the socket is placed too far Anterior, excessive knee flexion occurs during early stance.

Incorrect Answers:
A - When socket is placed too far posterior, insufficient knee flexion occurs during early stance.
C & D - Low and soft shoe heel results in insufficient knee flexion during early stance.

Question 44

Mr X is undergoing rehabilitation post Right leg transtibial amputation after a motor vehicle accident.
He is undergoing prosthetic training using a Patella tendon bearing (PTB) socket. He complains of tingling and numbness in the amputated part of leg.

Q2. After a few days of prosthetic training with a PTB socket using 3 wool socks (5 ply) for adequate fitting of socket, PT observed pistoning of the socket during gait training. What should be the immediate step to address this issue?

A) Add one more wool sock for snug fit
B) Add 2 more wool socks to achieve snug fit
C) Replace the socket
D) Add a woollen sheath for snug fit

Answer 44

Correct Answer: C
When the patient requires a total of 15-ply of socks to achieve snug fit, the socket should be altered or replaced by the prosthetist. Excessive sock padding distorts the weight-bearing characteristics of the socket, losing the effect of strategically placed build-ups and reliefs.

Incorrect Answers:
A & B - Excessive sock padding (more than 15 ply) distorts the weight-bearing characteristics of the socket, losing the effect of strategically placed build-ups and reliefs.
D - Sheath will add to more thickness which will disrupt the weight-bearing characteristic of the socket.

Question 45

A 55 year old male is referred for
Rehabilitation for complaints of dizziness, a feeling of his surrounding “spinning”, and occasional nausea. His complaints started 2 weeks ago while turning his head quickly while driving. Aggravating activities include rolling out of bed and bending over. Gait is normal except for slight unsteadiness while turning head. No Nystagmus is observed at rest.

Q1. Which of the following vestibular insult is the patient suffering from?

A) Unilateral Vestibular Hypofunction
(UVH)

B) Bilateral Vestibular Hypofunction (BVH)

C) Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
(BPPV)

D) Meniere’s disease

Answer 45

C

Patient’s complaints of dizziness, a feeling of his surrounding “spinning”, and occasional nausea without balance abnormalities and resting Nystagmus are consistent with BPPV.

Incorrect: A- Patients who sustain a UVH will experience direct impairments of vertigo, spontaneous nystagmus, oscillopsia during head movements, postural
instability, and dysequilibrium.

B- The primary complaint is dysequilibrium, though oscillopsia and gait ataxia are common clinical signs with a BVH diagnosis.

D- Ménière’s disease is confirmed by a documented low frequency hearing loss and episodic vertigo. The patient may also complain of a sense of fullness in the ear and tinnitus.

Question 46

A 55 year old male is referred for
Rehabilitation for complaints of dizziness, a feeling of his surrounding “spinning”, and occasional nausea. His complaints started 2 weeks ago while turning his head quickly while driving. Aggravating activities include rolling out of bed and bending over. Gait is normal except for slight unsteadiness while turning head. No Nystagmus is observed at rest.

Q2. On examination, when patient’s head is extended in supine position and rotated to right, upbeating Nystagmus was observed which started after few seconds along with vertigo and reduced after 30 seconds. Based on these observation findings what type of dysfunction is the patient suffering?

A) Canalithiasis of Posterior Canal
B) Canalithiasis of Anterior Canal
C) Cupulolithiasis of Posterior Canal
D) Cupulolithiasis of Anterior Canal

Answer 46

Answer: A
During Dix Hallpike test performed in this patient, upbeating Nystagmus along with delay in onset of symptoms and transcient reduction, is a characteristic of Canalithiasis of Posterior canal BPPV.

Incorrect: B- Canalithiasis of Anterior canal involves downbeating Nystagmus.
C & D- In Cupulolithiasis there is immediate onset of Nystagmus and vertigo.

Question 47

Craig is a 63 year old male who with an acute exacerbation of Emphysema. He has a 47 pack yr history and was diagnosed with emphysema 15 years ago. He also has type Il diabetes. Craig is at risk for all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Esophageal varacies
B) Osteoporosis
C) Pressure wounds
D) Syncope
E) A and B

Answer 47

A

Esophageal varacies are a complication of liver cirrhosis. He is at increased risk for osteoporosis due to the sedentary life style adopted by individuals with emphysema as well as corticosteroids which are a common treatment for it. He is at increased risk of pressure wounds due to the decreased mobility he will have while in hospital in combination with the circulatory changed with Diabetes. He is at increased risk of syncope due to the poor gas exchange associated with emphysema.

Question 48

Samantha Edwards is 46 years old and has a desk job. On the weekend she picked up her 3 year old daughter and felt a sharp pain in her back. She is unable to pick up her shoes without the pain shooting down her right leg and she has not attended work in 3 days as her pain is exacerbated by sitting at her desk. Samantha most likely experienced what type of injury?

A) Spinal stenosis
B) Disc herniation
C) Degenerative disc disease
D) Strained erector spinae

Answer 48

B

Due to her age, the aggravating factors and the sudden nature of her pain, she likely experienced a disc herniation.

Question 49

Jodi had congestive heart failure (CHF) and is now 6 days post-op from a heart replacement. You are seeing her to assess her ambulation prior to discharge. You place a walker at the side of her bed and instruct her to stand. You tell her to:

A) Cross her arms across her chest, lean forward and come into standing

B) Hold the walker with both hands, lean forward and pull herself up into standing

C) Place both hands on the bed beside her thighs, lean forward and push into standing

D)Place one hand on the bed, one on the walker, then lean forward and come into standing.

Answer 49

A

After a sternotomy, It Is contraindicated to push/pull through the arms for b-o weeks. Crossing the arms across the chest will prevent her from pushing on the bed, as well as give counter pressure while standing to reduce the pain.

Question 50

Josie is a mother of three ages 5, 2, and 1 month. She has recently began having pain in her wrists when she picks up her kids. A positive Finkelstein’s test indicated thickening in which tendons.

A. Extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longis
B. Extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longis
C. Extensor pollicis longis, abductor pollicis brevis
D. Extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis

Answer 50

B

Question 51

Which muscle in the face is not innervated by the trigeminal nerve?

A. Buccinator
B. Temporalis
C. Masseter
D. Pterigoids
E. all are innervated by CN V

Answer 51

A

Buccinator is not a mm of mastication (CN V3), its a mm of facial expression and is innervated by CN VII.

Question 52

A patient is experiencing numbness and paresthesia on the scalp, forehead, upper eyelids, and nose. Which of the following disorders is the MOST likely origin of the sensory disturbance?

1. Ce spinal nerve root impingement
2. Bell’s Palsy of the facial nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve lesion
4. Vestibulocochlear neuroma

Answer 52

3

1. Ce’s dermatome is the posterior skull near the external occipital protuberance.
2. This condition would result in facial paralysis to one side of the face, not a sensory disturbance of the forehead.
3. This is the correct answer. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) has 3 branches that innervate the face. The specific branch mentioned is the Vi opthalmic nerve.
4. This would be characterized by dizziness and loss of hearing, not facial numbness.

Question 53

While examining a pregnant patient, a physical therapist notices a dark line down the center of the rectus abdominis. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely present?

1. Diastasis rectus
2. Inguinal hernia
3. Linea nigra
4. Preeclampsia

Answer 53

3

1. This is a condition where the rectus abdominis separates and can result in a hernia. This would me most evident by a palpable chasm of the abs.
2. This is a prolapse of the bowel through the inguinal ring.
3. This is the correct answer. The dark line is caused by increase melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
4. This is a condition of pregnancy that is characterized by high blood pressure and increased protein in the urine.