Variadas 5

Question 1

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient in the hospital.

Upon entering the patient’s room, the physical therapist reviews the patient’s chart. While reviewing the chart the physical therapist notes the patient currently has measles.

Which of the following precautions must the physical therapist follow when evaluating this patient?

1- N-95, gown, and gloves

2- N-95, no gown, no gloves

3- No mask, gown, gloves

4- N-95, no gown, gloves

Answer 1

2

The patient has measles which falls into the airborne precautions. If a physical therapist is treating a patient with airborne precautions, they need to wear a N-95, but a gown or gloves are not required.

Question 2

A physiotherapist is analyzing static posture from lateral view. During assessment which of the following landmarks should the suspended plumb line pass through?

A) Anterior to thoracic spine, anterior to knee, posterior to lateral malleolus

B) Bodies of cervical vertebrae, posterior to hip, anterior to lateral malleolus

C) Posterior to lumbar spine, anterior to hip, anterior to knee

D) Through C7 spinous process, posterior to Lumbar Spine, posterior to the knee

Answer 2

Correct Answer = B, Bodies of cervical
vertebrae, posterior to hip, anterior to lateral malleolus

The plumb line is a physical representation of the line of gravity (LOG). Under this concept, ideal postural alignment for standing (viewed from the side) was defined as a straight line (line of gravity) that passes through the
1. ear lobe,
2. the bodies of the cervical vertebrae,
3. the tip of the shoulder,
4. midway through the thorax,
5. through the bodies of the lumbar vertebrae,
6. slightly posterior to the hip joint,
7. slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint,
8. just anterior to the lateral malleolus

Question 3

PT IS TESTING THE SEVERITY OF A PATIENT’S SYMPTOMS, HE INSTRUCTED THE PATIENT TO WALK ON THE TREADMILL AND STOP WHEN HE CAN NO LONGER CONTINUE BECAUSE OF PAIN. WHICH TEST IS THE PT PERFORMING?

A) Timed claudication test

B) Absolute claudication test

C) 2 stage treadmill test

D) Stoop test

Answer 3

B

The absolute claudication test is the maximum time or distance a person can walk before he or she needs to stop due to pain. This can be used as an outcome measure to assess at the beginning of and during an exercise program in order to determine treatment effectiveness.

Incorrect Answers:
A - The timed claudication test is the time or distance it takes for the onset of symptoms to begin after walking is initiated whereas, PT instructs the patient to stop when he can no longer continue.

C - 2 stage treadmill test assesses the difference in walking distance and symptom provocation between flat and incline walking in patients with neurogenic claudication.

D - Stoop test is used to detect intermittent neurogenic claudication.

Question 4

How is performed Stacked breathing?

What conditions it is used for?

Answer 4

Stacked breathing is a series of deep breaths that build on top of the previous breath without expiration until the maximal volume the pt can tolerate is reached.

This is used for hypoventilation, atelectasis, ineffective cough, pain, and uncoordinated breathing pattern.

Question 5

When is paced breathing used?

Answer 5

Paced breathing is coordinated breathing during activities. This can be used to help pt’s with low endurance, dyspnea, fatigue, anxiety, and tachypnea.

Question 6

How is inspiratory hold technique?

What conditions it is used for?

Answer 6

Inspiratory hold involves holding the breath at maximum inspiration.
Instructions are “hold your breath at the height of inspiration for 2-3 seconds followed by a relaxed exhale”.

This is used to help with hypoventilation, atelectasis, and ineffective cough.

Question 7

What is the good and the bad colesterol?

Answer 7

Good HDL
Bad LDL

Question 8

What caracteriza the standing posture of a pt with excessive femoral anteversion?

Internal/external rotation of hip
Toe in or toe out

Answer 8

Internal rotation of hip w toe in

Question 9

Intermittent compression for postmastectomy lymphedema is being used in tx for a pt.
How should a 4 week course of compression be applied for best result?

Answer 9

At home, every day for at least two hours

Question 10

In which of the following cases would you not be permitted to discharge a patient from care?

1- when the patient has not been forth coming with information about their ancestry or family status while completing their medical history form and you believe this information will have an impact on your ability to provide care

2- When the patient has not performed task required to progress their status within the treatment plan and as a result the care provided to date has not been effective

3- When the patient requests the discontinuation from physiotherapy care despite being educated about why they would benefit from physiotherapy services

4- When the patient has failed to pay for physiotherapy services with a reasonable amount of time

Answer 10

1- when the patient has not been forth coming with information about their ancestry or family status while completing their medical history form and you believe this information will have an impact on your ability to provide care

Question 11

What is expressive aphasia, receptive aphasia and global aphasia?

Answer 11

Expressive aphasia: broca. Left frontal lobe
Compreensão is not affected. Flow of the speech is slow and hesitant. Limited vocabulary.

Receptive aphasia: wernickes. Speech flows smoothly but tem difficult w compreensão. Pt responde algo q nao tem nada a ver
Left temporal lobe

Global aphasia: difficult w language comprehension and production

Question 12

What is anosognosia?

Answer 12

Lack of insight. Inability to recognize they had a stroke

Question 13

What is somatognosia?

Answer 13

Inabily to recognize body parts. Their own or from
Others

Question 14

What is homonymous hemianopia?

Answer 14

Same side
Loss of visual field on half of the eyes.

Ex: Pessoa nao ve o lado direito dos dois olhos

Question 15

1. Superficial heat
2. Cryotherapy
3. TENS during labour

Indicated, precaution, contra-indication during pregnancy?

Answer 15

Indicated

Question 16

1. Pulsed Ultrasound
2. TENS
3. Laser
4. HVPC
5. Electrical stimulation

Indicated, precaution, contra-indication during pregnancy?

Answer 16

PRECAUTION (Precaution - NOT on abdomen, pelvis, trunk or Low back region.)

Question 17

1. Shortwave Diathermy
2. Whirlpool (whole body)
3. Traction

Indicated, precaution, contra-indication during pregnancy?

Answer 17

Contra indication

Question 18

Q2. What precautions should PT follow while examining a pregnancy pt?

A) Keep towel roll under Left hip while examining patient in supine position

B) Keep towel roll under Right hip while examining patient in supine position

C) Do not exceed supine lying for more than 15 mins

D) Encourage breath holding while teaching exercises

Answer 18

Answer: B

Place a small wedge or rolled towel under the right hip to lessen the effects of uterine compression on abdominal vessels and to improve cardiac output. The wedge turns the patient slightly toward the left. This modification is helpful during physical therapy evaluation and treatment when the patient is positioned supine.

Incorrect: A - If rolled towel is kept under left hip it will turn the patient slightly to right which will compress the abdominal vessels.

C - Supine lying is not exceed more than 5 mins.

D - Breath holding is discouraged during evaluation and treatment in a pregnant female since it may cause unusual downward forces on uterus and pelvic floor and may also cause changes in heart rate and BP.

Question 19

A physical therapist is treating a pediatric patient with cerebral palsy. The patient is seen in standing with a toe-in posture. Which of the following postural strategies most accurately correlates with the observed foot position?

1-Metatarsus abductus, internal tibial torsion, increased femoral retroversion

2-Metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, increased femoral anteversion

3- Metatarsal adductus, external tibial torsion, increased femoral retroversion

4-Metatarsal abductus, external tibial torsion, increased femoral anteversion

Answer 19

2

The three major causes of pediatric in-toeing are metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, and femoral anteversion.

Metatarsus adductus is a transverse plane deformity with adduction of all of the five metatarsals, which occurs at the tarsometatarsal joint. Femoral anteversion is considered to exist when angle of anterior torsion is greater than 15° to 20°.

Question 20

What are the postural changes expected during pregnancy?

Cervical
Scapular
Kness
Hips

Answer 20

Cervical lordosis
scapular protraction
knees hyperextended
Hips externally rotated

Question 21

Spasticity will decrease or increase with crioterapy?

Answer 21

Decrease

Question 22

Spasticity will decrease or increase with thermorherapy?

Answer 22

Will have no effect

Question 23

What indicates remission in a pt w RA?

Answer 23

Less then 12min of morning stiffness and no joint tenderness or effusion for at least 3 months

Question 24

Which falange is usually not affected on RA?

Answer 24

DIP,s

Question 25

During the stance phase on the Right hip, the left hip drops. What best describes this?

1-right trendelenburg
2-left trendelenburg

Answer 25

Right trendenburg

Question 26

Which of the following subjective information best describes a meniscal injury?

1- history of a snap
2- history of crackle

3- history of pop
4- history of giving away

Answer 26

Giving away

Question 27

Where should u align the axis of the goniometer when measuring knee flexion rom?
1- lateral epicondyle of femur
2-lateral condyle of femur

Answer 27

1- Lateral epicondyle of the femur

Question 28

Your pt has a sprained anterior talofibular ligament.
Which movements would put this ligament on the most stretch?

Answer 28

Pf and inversion

Question 29

A pt has decrease sensation i his right midle finger. Which dermatome best represents this area?

Answer 29

C7

Question 30

Which is the first mov of upper limb neurodynamic test 1?

1- move shoulder into abd
2- fix sh girdle into neutral position

Answer 30

Fix sh into neutral position

Question 31

What is the starting position for a MMT of grade 3 middle trapezius?

a) Prone, shoulder at 90 deg, thumb up
b) Prone, shoulder at 90 deg, thumb down

Answer 31

A thumb up

Question 32

What is the starting position for a MMT of grade 3 lower trapezius?

a) Prone, hand behind back on contralateral buttock with palm up

b) Prone, hand behind back on contralateral buttock with palm down

c) Prone, shoulder at 130 deg, thumb up

d) Prone, shoulder at 130 deg. thumb down

Answer 32

c) Prone, shoulder at 130 deg, thumb up

Question 33

Which belongs to the distal row of carpal bones?

a) Pisiform

b) Scaphoid

с) Triquetrum

d) Trapezium

Answer 33

D trapezium

Question 34

Which glide will restore supination at the proximal radioulnar joint?
a) Posterior glide to ulna
b) Posterior glide to radius
c) Anterior glide to ulna
d) Anterior glide to radius

Answer 34

D anterior glide to radius

Question 35

Which mobilization best improves hip internal rotation?
a) Posterior glide
b) Anterior glide

Answer 35

Posterior glide

Joelho dobrado calcaneo pra dentro ir

Question 36

What is the capsular pattern of the hip?

a) Flex > abd > ER

b) Flex > abd > IR

c) Flex > add > ER

d) Flex > add > IR

Answer 36

b) Flex > abd > IR

Question 37

What is the loose packed position of the hip?

Answer 37

30flex
30 abd
Slightly ER

Question 38

What is the resting position of the glenohumeral joint?

Answer 38

55 abd and 30 horizontal ad

Question 39

Which is not a contraindication for joint mobilizations?

a) Closed pack position
b) Acute inflammation
c) Pregnancy
d) Recent fracture

Answer 39

C pregnancy

Question 40

Which best describes the “screw home mechanism” of the knee?

a) Near end extension, med. compartment closepacks first resulting in tibial IR with full extension

b) Near end extension, lat. compartment closepacks first resulting in tibial IR with full extension

C- Near end extension, med. compartment closepacks first resulting in tibial ER with full extension

D- near end extension, lat. compartment closepacks first resulting in tibial ER with full extension

Answer 40

D- near end extension, lat. compartment closepacks first resulting in tibial ER with full extension

Question 41

At what age should a child be able to sit unsupported?

А.7 months

B.9 months

C.10 months

D.12 months

Answer 41

A

Question 42

Which activity does not normally develop between the 9th and 12th months of normal development?

A.pincer grasp
B.begins walking

C.transfers objects from one hand to the other
D.stands with high guard

Answer 42

C

What age do babies transfer objects between hands?

between months 5 and 7

Question 43

A therapist records the blood pressure of a two year old child in the medical record.
Assuming normal values, the most typical blood pressure reading is

A 80 systolic, 35 diastolic
B. 85 systolic, 60 diastolic

C. 105 systolic, 65 diastolic
D. 120 systolic, 80 diastolic

Answer 43

B

Question 44

During an evaluation of a traumatic brain injured patient the therapist notes the patient mumbling phrases which are non-purposeful in nature. As the physical therapist initiates passive range of motion to the palient’s lower extremities, the patient attempts to strike the therapist in the head.
According to the Ranchos Los Amigos levels of cognitive functioning, this patient would be best described at level?

A. 2
B 3
C 4
D 5

Answer 44

C

1-No Response
2-Generalized response
3-Localized response
4-Confused-agitated

5-Confused-inappropriate
6-Confused-appropriate
7-Automatic-inappropriate
8-Purposeful and appropriate

Question 45

. A patient with hemiplegia should be positioned in sidelying on the affected side early in rehabilitation. The advantages of this position include all of the following except?

A. decrease in spasticity of the affected side

B. elongation of the affected side

C. improved gross motor coordination of the affected side

D. increased physical awareness of the affected side

Answer 45

C

Question 46

A therapist identifies excessive femoral neck anteversion during an evaluation of a patient diagnosed with trochanteric bursitis. This structural finding commonly results in

A. an increase in hip extemal rotation
B. an increase in hip internal rotation
C. an increase in hip extension
D. an increase in hip flexion

Answer 46

B

Question 47

Which statement concerning the anterior cruciate ligament is true?

A. It is maximally taut between 0-20 and 70-90 degrees of knee flexion

B. it resists posterior tibial displacement

C. it inserts on the medial femoral
intercondylar notch

D.. it prevents hyperflexion of the knee

Answer 47

A

ACL resists anterior tibial translation and rotational loads.

Question 48

The most common mechanism for an anterior talolibular ligament sprain is _?

A. inversion and dorsiflexion

B. inversion and plantarflexion

C.inversion

D. pronation, eversion and dorsiflexion

Answer 48

B

Question 49

A patient is referred to physical therapy diagnosed with right hip trochanteric bursitis.
Which clinical finding is usually nol associated with trochanteric bursitis?

A. resisted abduction will reproduce symptoms

B. no functional limitations in active range of motion

C. positive Ober test

D. Joint play motions are limited in a capsular pattem

Answer 49

D

Question 50

Craig is a 63 year old male who entered the emergency room last night due to an acute exacerbation of his Emphysema. He has a 47 pack yr history and was diagnosed with emphysema 15 years ago. He also has type Il diabetes. Upon observation you expect Craig to exhibit:

a) Fingernail clubbing
b) Accessory muscle use
c) Barrel chest deformity
d) A & B
e) All of the above

Answer 50

E

All of the above are typical with long standing emphysema.

Question 51

Samantha Edwards is 46 years old and has a desk job. On the weekend she picked up her 3 year old daughter and felt a sharp pain in her back. She is unable to pick up her shoes without the pain shooting down her right leg and she has not attended work in 3 days as her pain is exacerbated by sitting at her desk.
Samantha is worried about loosing too much time from work. On your first visit what ergonomic advice do you give her?

1. Take standing breaks every 15 minutes 4. Keep desk chair close to key board
2. Sleep in crook lying with pillows under
   to prevent reaching the knees to keep the pelvis in posterior tilt
3. Use a standing desk if possible
4. Keep desk chair close to key board to prevent reaching
5. When standing keep one foot up on a small stool
6. Place a roll behind the low back in sitting to support lumbar lordosis

A) all of the above
B) 1, 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 3, 4, 6
D) 4, 5, 6

Answer 51

C

Disc herniations are aggravated by flexion and eased by extension. Positions that will decrease flexion include frequent standing breaks, a standing desk, chair position to prevent leaning towards desk, and supported lumbar lordosis.

Question 52

A 12 year old male athlete is being evaluated by a physical therapist. The patient reports pain with running and has a sharp pain over the patellar tendon, particularly on the tibial tubercle.
Which of the following disorders is MOST likely present?

1. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
2. Chondromalacia patellae
3. Osgood-Schlatter disease
4. Pes amperine bursitis

Answer 52

3

1. Legg-Calvé Perthes disease is characterized by loss of blood supply to the head of the femur and subsequent bone death. The cause is often unknown and typically occurs in boys from 4-10 years old.
2. Chondromalacia patellae are characterized by cartilage loss or disturbance underneath the patella. This is evinced by pain with knee motion, but not a painful tibial tubercle.
3. This is the correct answer. Osgood-Schlatter disease is characterized by a painful bump over the tibial tubercle and pain with sporting activities. This is most common in young children who are very active in sports, particularly males.
4. Pes anserine bursitis is characterized by pain at the insertion of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus, which is medial to the tibial tubercle by 3-4 cm.

Question 53

A patient is recovering from a broken tibia and has just been instructed to discontinue use of a walking boot. The patient demonstrates excessive pronation and complains of pain and instability in the ankle while ambulating. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate treatment?

1. Begin a single leg standing program and advance to eccentric calf strengthening as tolerated.
2. Begin with open-chain exercises and progress to closed-chain strengthening of the ankle as tolerated.
3. Begin with closed-chain exercises and progress to open-chain strengthening of the ankle as tolerated.
4. Begin a strengthening program involving primarily ankle evertors, progressing as tolerated.

Answer 53

2. This is the correct answer. Progressive strengthening of the ankle will be the MOST appropriate treatment.

Question 54

A patient reports pain around the anterior aspect of the calcaneus extending toward the 2nd metatarsal head. The patient has the most pain when first standing up after waking which gradually lessens throughout the day. The patient has recently begun a walking program. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely present?

1. Medial deviation of the 1st metatarsal
2. Plantar fasciitis
3. Metatarsalgia
4. Tarsal tunnel syndrome

Answer 54

2

1. A bunion or medical deviation of the 1st metatarsal presents with pain over the medial side of the head of the 1st metatarsal.
2. This is the correct answer. Plantar fasciitis is typically associated with pain at the anterior portion of the calcaneus and increased symptoms with the first steps of the day that gradually decreases.
3. Metatarsalgia is pain localized under the ball of the foot, typically under the head of the first metatarsal.
4. Tarsal tunnel syndrome presents with numbness and pain throughout the first 3 toes secondary to the tibial nerve being compressed.

Question 55

A patient presents with rheumatoid arthritis and finger pain. The 2nd digit has a flexed metacarpophalangeal joint, hyperextended proximal interphalangeal joint, and a flexed distal interphalangeal joint. Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the position?

1. Swan neck deformity
2. Boutonniere deformity
3. Mallet finger deformity
4. De Quervain syndrome

Answer 55

1. This is the correct answer.
2. Boutonniere deformity is just opposite of the Swan Neck
3. Mallet finger involves just flexion of the DIP joint.
4. De Quervain syndrome is tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus as they pass under the fascial sheath that covers the two tendons.