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PCE > Variadas 2 > Flashcards

Variadas 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Heaviness of limb in pt with PD

A

Rigidity

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2
Q

Slowness of movement in pt with PD

A

Bradykinesia

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3
Q

Shakiness or oscillating movement in pt with PD

A

Tremor

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4
Q

Difficult in maintaining sitting or standing position in pt with PD

A

Postural instability

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5
Q

Decreased voice volume,monotonous speech and distorted articulation

A

Hypokinetic dysarthria

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6
Q

Pt speaks whispers or not speak at all

A

Mutism

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7
Q

Slowness of thoughts

A

Bradyphenia

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8
Q

Onset: acute and sudden
Course: fluctuating (worse at night/upon awakening)
Delirium or dementia?

A

Delirium

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9
Q

Onset: insidious/ slow
Course: progressive
Delirium or dementia?

A

Dementia

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10
Q

Duration: hours/days/weeks
Attention: impaired. Decreased ability to sustain or shift attention

Delirium or dementia?

A

Delirium

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11
Q

Duration: months to years
Attention: normal.

Delirium or dementia?

A

Dementia

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12
Q

Consciousness: fluctuating, decreased level of consciousness

Speech: can be incoherent and disorganized

Delirium or dementia?

A

Delirium

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13
Q

Consciousness: generally intact
Speech: ordered. May have aphasia

Delirium or dementia?

A

Dementia

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14
Q

Atelectasis is on left side.

Which side will the mediastinal shift?

Which side will have an elevation of the hemidiaphragm?

A

Atelectasis is on left side, mediastinal shift will be on left along with elevation of left hemidiaphragm.

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15
Q

When the V/Q ratio is more than 1.

Shunt or dead space?

A

it is referred as dead space.

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16
Q

When the V/Q ratio is less than 1.

Shunt or dead space?

A

Shunt

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17
Q

Pt with atelectasia on L side lower lobe. MWhich side should he lie down to improve ventilation?

A

Sidelying on right will be helpful . This will improve ventilation in upper lung.

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18
Q

Pleural effusion can reduce or increase lung expansion?

A

Pleural effusion can cause reduced lung expansion.
The accumulated fluid puts pressure on the lungs, limiting their ability to expand fully during inhalation.

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19
Q

What will be the goal O2 for pts with COPD?

A

goal of 02 therapy is to maintain SpO2 between 88-92% at a low dose of oxygen.

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20
Q

Pt with COPD. Symptoms are: worsening of dyspnea and increased secretions.

On auscultation, what would the PT hear in this patient?

A

Due to narrowed airways caused by bronchospasm during acute exacerbation of COPD, high or medium pitched wheezes are heard.

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21
Q

If the railing is on the UNAFFECTED side…how to use the crutches?

A

Use one railing and one crutch

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22
Q

If the railing is on the AFFECTED side…how to use the crutches?

A

Use two crutches

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23
Q

What is the other name for the palmar side of the hand?

A

Volar

24
Q

hypoventilation (retaining CO2)
Respiratory acidose ou alcalose?

A

Resp acidose

25
Q

The increased respiratory rate that accompanies an anxiety attack will result in increased CO2 being
exhaled…

A

Resp alcalose

26
Q

COPD exacerbations result in increased CO2 retention due to their obstructive disorder and causes difficulty with exhalation (think, hyperinflated!) and retainment of CO2=

A

Resp acidose

27
Q

What is the use of the modified borg scale? And how is it scored?

A

This is a scale that asks you to rate the difficulty of your breathing.

It starts at number O where your breathing is causing you no difficulty at all and progresses through to number 10 where your breathing difficulty is maximal.

How much difficulty is your breathing causing you right now?”

3-4-5 safe range
3: mod
4: somewhat hard
5:hard

28
Q

What to do when the pt is experiencing Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A

Step 1: Communicate with the patient that they are experiencing an episode of AD.

Step 2: Ensure the patient is in a safe seated position.
• Keep their head elevated. DO NOT LIE THEM DOWN!

Step 3: Look for the source of noxious stimuli.

Step 4: If the noxious stimulus is found, wait several minutes to see if the patient is feeling better. Check blood pressure every 5 minutes.

Step 5: If you cannot find the stimulus and the patient is not feeling better. immediately connect with nursing staff if in the hospital or call 911 if the patient is at
home.

29
Q

What are the scores for The Angina Scale ?

A

The Angina Scale is a 5-point scale with

0 = “no angina”

1 = “light, barely noticeable”

2 = moderate, bothersome

3 = “severe, very uncomfortable”,

4 = “most pain ever experienced”

30
Q

“Household ambulators” are classified as having a walking speed of…

A

less than 0.4m/s.

Less than 0.4 m/sec: Household ambulator

0.4 to 0.8 m/sec: Limited community ambulator.

0.8 to 1.2 m/sec: Community ambulator.

1.2 m/sec and above: Able to safely cross streets.

31
Q

Limited community ambulators” are classified as having a walking speed of

A

between 0.4m/s and 0.8m/s.

32
Q

“Community ambulators” are classified as having walking speed of

A

Maior que 0.8m/s

33
Q

“Normal” walking speed is…

A

1.2m/s to 1.4m/

34
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a boutonniere deformity?

A)A Rupture of central slip causing PIP extension and DIP flexion

B) Rupture of central slip causing PIP flexion and DIP extension

C) Rupture of palmar plate causing PIP extension and DIP flexion

D) Rupture of palmar plate causing PIP flexion and DIP extension

A

B
Also called as zigzag deformity

35
Q

A physical therapy treatment plan for a patient rehabilitating from an anterior shoulder dislocation includes progressive resistive exercises. Which muscle groups should be emphasized during rehabilitation?

A. abduciors, external rotators
B. adductors, extemal rotators
C. abductors, internal rotators
D. adductors, internal rotators

A

D

36
Q

A physical therapist works with a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. The physician referral specifies closed kinetic chain rehabilitation. Which exercise would not be appropriate based on the physician order?

A. exercise on a stair machine
B. limited squats to 45 degrees
C. walking backwards on a treadmill
D. isokinetic knee extension and flexion

A

D

There are two kinds of kinetic chain exercises: open and closed.
In open kinetic chain exercises, the segment furthest away from the body — known as the distal aspect, usually the hand or foot — is free and not fixed to an object.

In a closed chain exercise, it is fixed, or stationary.

37
Q

A 65 year old female reports to physical therapy diagnosed with degenerative joint disease of the right hip. Which of the following clinical findings would you not expect to identity?

A.tendency to stand with the hip and knee extended and the lumbar spine flexed

B. painful limitation of hip motion in a capsular patiem

C. marked limitation of hip internal rotation and abduction

D. tendency to incline the trunk toward the involved side during the stance phase of gail

A

A

38
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve in the volar aspect of the wrist. This syndrome may be caused by all of the following except

A. anterior dislocation of the lunate
B. inflammation of the extensor retinaculum

C. tenosynovitis of the flexor tendons
D. direct trauma

A

B

39
Q

Weakness in the… would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches?

A. medial deltoid
B. erector spinae
C. latissimus dorsi
D. Romboids

A

C

40
Q

Transverse friction massage is a valuable treatment technique in a variety of common musculoskeletal disorders. Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the application technique of transverse friction massage?

A. The therapist moves the skin back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the normal orientation of the fibers.
B.A lubricant is used to prevent excessive skin friction.

C. Fingers that are not involved directly in the massage are used to provide stabilization.
D. The rate of movement is 2-3 cycles per second and rhythmical.

A

B

41
Q

A patient’s right shoulder is immobilized in a sling after a fall two days ago. The referring physician indicales that x-rays of the involved shoulder were negative, however he expresses concem about the patient developing secondary upper extremity problems during the two week immobilization period. Which of the following activities would not be recommended during this two week period?

A)active range of motion to the elbow, forearm, wrist and fingers several times a day

B)repetitive squeezing of a soft object with the hand

C)position the hand below the level of the heart when edema is noted in the hand

D)instruct the patient in the importance of keeping all distal joints as active as possible

A

C

42
Q

Mobilization is often indicated with a loss of accessory joint movement. It is however imporlant to determine the exact cause for the loss of accessory motion. Which of the following would be an aoceptable condition for joint mobilization?

A. capsuloligamentous adherence
В.internal derangement

C. reflex muscle guarding
D. bony blockage

A

A

43
Q

A physical therapist observes the standing posture of a patient from a lateral view. If the patient had normal anatomical alignment you would expect the plumb line to fall.

A. posterior to the lobe of the ear
В.anterior to the greater trochanter of the femur

C. slightly anterior to a midline through the knee
D. slightly posterior to the lateral malleolus

A

C

44
Q

A therapist performs a muscle screening examination on a 43 year old female diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. The therapist attempts to pull the patient’s fingers from a position of adduction to abduction. This action is used to test the?

A. finger extensors
B. opponens pollicis

C. dorsal interossei
D. palmar interossei

A

D

45
Q

A therapist observes the gait of a patient status post pneumonia. The therapist notices that the patient walks on his heels. Possible causes of this deviation include all of the following except?

A. weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle
B. tightness of the dorsiflexor muscles

C. decreased strength in the dorsiflexors
D. pes calcaneus deformity

A

C

46
Q

A therapist performs a range of motion screening on a 14 year old female. The therapist instructs the patient to stand on her tip toes. The therapist uses this command to evaluate

A. dorsiflexion and toe extension
B. dorsiflexion and toe flexion

C.plantarflexion and toe extension
D. plantarilexion and toe flexion

A

C

47
Q

A patient with I quadriplegia exercises on a mat. The physical therapist assists the patient into a prone on elbows position. The therapist instructs the patient to push his elbows down, tuck his chin and lüt his trunk off of the mat while rounding out the shoulders. This exercise is helpful in strengthening the _ ?

A. serratus anterior and scapular muscles
B)Вserratus anterior

C)latissimus dorsi and scapular muscles
D. sacrospinalis and semispinalis

A

A

48
Q

A therapist completes a manual muscle test on a muscle that invertes the foot and assists in plantarflexion of the ankle joint. This description best describes the

A. tibialis anterior
B. tibialis posterior

C. peroneus longus
D. peroneus tertius

A

B

Peroneus longus: eversion and PF
Peroneus tertius: eversion and DF

49
Q

A physical therapist observes a patient dragging his toe during the swing phase of gait.
All of the following are possible causes except

A. weakness of dorsiflexors
B. spasticity of plantarfiexors
С.weakness of plantarflexors
D. inadequate knee flexion

A

C

50
Q

A physical therapist reviews an initial evaluation of a patient diagnosed with an upper motor neuron disease. The evaluation documents the existence of a positive Babinski reflex. A positive Babinsli reflex is characterized by ?

A)extension of the great toe
B)flexion of the great toe
C)abduction of the great toe
D)adduction of the great toe

A

A

51
Q

A physical therapist treats a stroke patient with a hypotonic left upper extremity. While performing sitting activities the position of choice for the left upper extremity is

A.in the patient’s lap
B. In a sling

C. weightbearing through the upper extremity with the elbow extended

D. weightbearing through the upper extremity with the elbow and wrist flexed

A

C

52
Q

A physical therapist attempts to measure a patient’s shoulder extenal rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described by which of the following?

A. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed 1o 90 degrees

B. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended

С.shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees

D. shoulder in neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees

A

A

53
Q

A physical therapist observes a patient performing active hip abduction in supine. The patient is limited by 10 degrees in active hip abduction, but appears to be moving through the full range of motion. What compensatory measures might the patient use to seemingly increase hip abduction?

A. hip flexion and exteral rotation
B. hip fiexion and intemal rotation

C. hip hyperextension and exteral rotation
D. hip hyperextension and internal rotation

A

A

54
Q

A therapist examines the elbow of a patient rehabilitating from a radial head fracture.
Which of the following most accurately describes the close packed position of the humeroradial joint?

A)45 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination
B)60 degrees flexion, 20 degrees supination

C)90 degrees flexion, 5 degrees supination
D)120 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination

A

C

The joint position in which articulating bones have their maximum area of contact with each other. It is in this position that joint stability is greatest.

The close-packed position for the knee, wrist, and interphalangeal joints is at full extension, and for the ankle joint at full dorsiflexion.

55
Q

A physiotherapist working on the acute spine ward is mentoring a new physiotherapy graduate. She is reviewing functional expectations based on injury level.
Assuming a complete spinal cord injury (ASIA A), what is the highest spinal lesion level in which a patient would be able to transfer independently using a sliding board.

a. C4
b. C5
с. С6
d. C7

A

С. С6
This patient has the potential for independent transfers using a sliding board on a level surface.
Thus, this is the highest level in which independent transfers using a slide board is possible.

PCE (30 decks)

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