Variadas 6 Flashcards
Genu valgum…
Coxa will be?
Coxa vara
105 angle
Genu varum
Coxa will be?
Valga
140 angle
Normal angle of coxa?
125
Femoral anteversion…
Toe out or in?
Toe in
Internal rotation
Femoral retroversion
Toe out or in?
Toe out
Loose pack position of hip
30 flexion
30 abd
Slightly ER
Capsular pattern of restriction of hip?
Flexion
Abd
Internal rotation
What is the Patrick (faber) test for?
Flexion/abd/ex rotation
Test to check oa at the hip
Scour ( vasculhar) test used for?
Hip OA
Hip flex mais add
What are the correct bed exercs for a THA with a posterolateral approach?
A) Straight leg raise, ankle pumps, active knee flexion
B) Straight leg raise, gravity eliminated hip abduction, static quadricep setting
C) Active knee flexion, ankle pumps, hip extension
D) Active knee flexion, static quadricep setting, gravity eliminated hip abduction
D) Active knee flexion, static quadricep setting, gravity eliminated hip abduction
What is the Sign of the Buttock? How it’s performed?
Used to detect neoplasm, abscess on the
Ischi tuberosity, hip patology, septic arthritis or bursitis, sacral fracture
1- Perform a SLR test. As soon as the pt leg is limited… flex the pt knee and see if u can increase hip flexion.
If not, it’s a positive sign of the buttocks
What are the PRECAUTIONS FOR HEMIARTHROPLASTY, CANNULATED SCREWS, DHS & GAMMA?
• typically NO restrictions with movement & WBAt
check MD orders!
What are the Total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) > glenoid + humeral components replaced
Pos op precautions?
Post-op precautions: immobilization (full time for 1 week, nightly for 4 weeks, sling (4 weeks)
What is the precautions/ contraindications for a Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) ?
→ “ball and socket” components switched to increase stability
Post-op precautions: flexion/elevation in scapular plane passively up to 90°, pure abduction
CONTRAINDICATED, avoid IR for 6-weeks
Damage to the cerebellum causes ipsilateral or contra lateral symptoms?
Damage to the cerebellum causes ipsilateral symptoms.
Lesions in the cerebellar hemispheres cause deficits in the arm and or leg
ipsilateral or contra lateral
to the affected hemisphere?
Lesions in the cerebellar hemispheres cause deficits in the arm and or leg IPSILATERAL to the affected hemisphere.
Lesions in the cerebral hemispheres cause deficits in the arm and or leg
ipsilateral or contra lateral
to the affected hemisphere
Lesions in the cerebral hemispheres cause deficits in the arm and or leg CONTRA LATERAL to the affected hemisphere.
Where is the most common location of spondylolisthesis?
a) L4/L5
b) L5/S1
c) S1/S2
d) S2/S3
B l5 s1
Which describes a Colles fracture?
a) Fractured distal ulna, subluxed distal radius
b) Fractured distal ulna, fractured distal radius
c) Fractured distal radius, subluxed distal ulna
d) Subluxed distal radius, subluxed distal ulna
c) Fractured distal radius, subluxed distal ulna
Colles- colled
Distal raDIus
Dorsal displacement
Dorsally flexed
Dinner fork
- Which T-score indicates osteopenia?
a) 0.2
b) 0.8
c) 1.4
d) -1.4
D
Normal = within -1 standard deviation for BMD.
• Osteopenia = -1 to -2.5 sd BMD.
• Osteoporosis = -2.5 sd and below.
• Severe osteoporosis = same BMD as osteoporosis + 1 or more fragility fracture:
- What are the leading causes of amputation?
a) DM and peripheral vascular disease
b) DM and trauma
c) Peripheral vascular disease and trauma
d) Tumor and trauma
A
Which type of amputation involves surgery going through the distal tib-fib joint?
a Symes
b) Chopart
c) LisFranc
d)Transmetatarsal
A symes
6-year-old boy presents with a positive Trendelenberg, a limp, and unilateral loss of abduction and internal rotation. Which best reflects this presentation?
a) Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
b) Legg Calve-Perthes disease
c)Taipes equinovarus
d) Developmental dysplasia of the hip
B necrose avascular da head do femur.
Commun em
Meninos
Patient presents with pain, swelling and sudden decreased ROM with an abnormal firm or hard end feel in his elbow. What is the likely cause?
a) Osteoporosis
b) Post-traumatic syringomyelia
c) Heterotopic ossification
d) Humeral fracture
C
Brown Sequard syndrome results in which of the following?
a) Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature, contralateral loss of motor function, proprioception, vibration
b) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature, ipsilateral loss of motor function, proprioception, vibration
c) Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature, motor function, proprioception, vibration
d) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature, motor function, proprioception, vibration
b) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature, ipsilateral loss of motor function, proprioception, vibration
According to the ASIA Impairment Scale, which key muscles are used testing for C8?
a) Finger abductors
b)Thumb extension
с) Finger extensors
d)Finger flexors
d)Finger flexors
Patient presents with SCI injury that involves motor function preservation below neurological level, and more than half of key muscles below neurological level have muscle grade less than 3. Where does this individual fall on the ASIA Impairment Scale?
a) ASIA A
b) ASIA B
c) ASIA C
d) ASIA D
c) ASIA C
Asia A: no motor,sendory or sacral
Asia B: no motor, sensory only
Asia C: 50%of muscles LESS than grade 3 ( cant raise arms/legs)
Asia D: 50% of muscles MORE then grade 3 ( can raise arms:legs of bed
Asia E: normal
Which brain injury would lead to trouble with language production?
A) frontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe
Frontal lobe
What is the best first line of action for hemorrhagic stroke?
a) Tissue plasminogen activator (TA)
B) surgery
C) rest
D)rice
Surgery
What is the most common cause of stroke?
a) Hemorrhagic
b) Aneurysm
c) Thrombosis
d) AV malformation
C thrombosis
Wernickes apasia ( receptive) what is the lobe compromised?
Temporal lobe
Expressive apasia ( broca) what is the lobe compromised?
Frontal lobe
Which disease is best characterized by progressive airway obstruction that is often
reversible?
a) COPD
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
c) Asthma
d) Interstitial lung disease
C
Congestive heart failure leads to which of the following?
a) Damming of blood in systemic and portal venous systems
b) Pitting edema
c) Liver damage and enlarged spleen
d) Pulmonary edema
D
Which of the following indicates MI?
a)Elevated or depressed ST segment > 1mm
b) Inverted T wave
c) Abnormal Q
wave
d) Absent P wave
A
Which is not part of the terrible triad of the heart?
A ischemia
B infection
C injury
D infarction
B
Lung collapse due to air in pleural space is called:
a)Flail chest
b) Pneumothorax
c) Right sided heart failure
d) Pulmonary edema
B
Compression of the heart due to blood or fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac
a) Valvular heart disease
b) Dilated cardiomyopathy
c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d) Cardiac tamponade
D
The ability to track a slowly moving object with eye movement only refers to:
a) Volitional saccade
b) Reflexive saccade
c) Nystagmus
d) Smooth pursuit
D
Babinski reflex is normal in babies up to:
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 2 years
d） 4year
C
An 80 year old patient complains of breathlessness during both rest and activity. The patient’s relatives inform the physiotherapist that the patient’s breathlessness increases whenever he tends to walk 10 meters or climb stairs.
Which of the following intervention will be the most appropriate for all of the patient’s problems?
A) Diaphragmatic breathing
B) Purse lip breathing
C) Paced breathing
D) Butterfly techniques
B, Purse lip breathing
The patient has breathlessness when sitting, speaking, walking, climbing. This is equivalent to breathlessness at rest and exertion/activity.
Paced breathing will not help a patient at rest.
Purse-lip breathing can be done to address all of the patient’s goals mentioned above.
Additionally, purse lip breathing can also be used if the patient wheezes (Extra - not a part of the question)
Why is diaphragmatic breathing used for?
hypoxemia
tachypnea
atelectasis
anxiety (adjunct)
excess secretions
Why is paced breathing used for?
breathlessness on exertion
fatigue
anxiety
tachypnea
low endurance
Why is Butterfly techniques is used for?
hypoventilation, chest wall immobility or muscle tightness
A patient with chronic type 1 diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with cardiac denervation syndrome.
Which one of the following sympathetic cardiovascular changes occurs in a patient with long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Resting heart rate is higher than normal values
B)Resting heart rate is lower than normal values
C)Heart rate is fixed and doesn’t change with stress or moderate levels of activity
D) Heart rate increases linearly in response to stress and moderate levels of activity
C
Long term complication of Type 1 diabetes mellitus is cardiac denervation syndrome which results in a fixed HR that is unresponsive to exercise, stress or sleep.
A patient status post large rotator cuff repair surgery is referred to physical therapy. Which of the following motions would you expect to be most restricted intally?
A extension
B adduction
C internal rotation
D extemal rotation
D
A patient is found to have limited knee extension. Which of the following mobilization techniques would be indicated?
A lateral glide of the patella
B. caudal glide of the patella
C. posterior glide of the tibia
D. anterior glide of the tibia
D
Which sequence is most appropriate when descending stairs with crutches?
A. crutches, involved leg, uninvolved leg
B.crutches, uninvolved leg. involved leg
C.involved leg, crutches, uninvolved leg
D.uninvolved leg, crutches, involved leg
A
A physical therapist performs passive range of motion to a patient with C7 quadriplegia.
The patient’s bilateral straight leg raise is measured passively to 90 degrees. What should the physical therapist conclude about the patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living?
A. The patient requires a straight leg raise of 110-120 degrees in order to perform long sit and activities of daily living.
B. The patient is at a functional range to perform long sit and activities of daily living.
C. The patient’s range of motion is beyond the expected limit for long sit and activities of daily living
D. The patient requires a straight leg raise of 150 degrees in order to perform long sit and activities of daily living.
A
A patient is positioned in supine with the hips flexed to 90 degrees and knees extended.
As the patient slowty lowers her extended legs toward the horizontal, there is an increase in lordosis of the low back. This notes marked weakness of the
A. hip flexors
B. back extensors
C. hip extensors
D. abdominals
D
What functional position should the metacarpophalangeal joint be placed in when designing a splint?
A. “complete extension
B. 20-40 degrees of flexion
C. 50-50 degrees of flexion
D. 70-90 degrees of flexion
B
A physical therapist examines a patient and determines that the patient has a positive Active Compression test (O’Brien’s Test). Which of the following pathologies is MOST implicated?
- Rotator cuff tear
- Biceps tendonitis
- Superior labral tear
- Acromioclavicular joint sprain
- This is the correct answer. The O’Brien’s test is MOST indicative of SLAP tears.
A patient reports feeling a frequent need to urinate and often leaks urine before reaching the bathroom. Which type of incontinence is MOST likely present?
- Stress incontinence
- Urge incontinence
- Overflow incontinence
- Functional incontinence
2
- Stress incontinence occurs when abdominal pressure increases and causes urine to leak.
- This is the correct answer. Often called overactive bladder, this incontinence is characterized by frequent and sudden urges that cause urine leaks.
- Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder voids inefficiently and causes frequent leaks.
- Functional incontinence is caused by a secondary impairment that slows the individual in reaching the bathroom.
A physical therapist is treating a patient with ulnar nerve entrapment at the cubital tunnel.
Which muscle would MOST likely be weak from this type of pathology?
- Flexor digitorum superficialis
- Flexor carpi radialis
- Flexor pollicis longus
- Flexor carpi ulnaris
4
- This is innervated by the median nerve.
- This is innervated by the median nerve.
- This is innervated by the median nerve.
- This is the correct answer. The ulnar nerve innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction and presents to an outpatient physical therapy clinic for cardiac rehabilitation. Which of the following is an absolute indication to cease exercising?
- Cyanosis
- Significant fatigue
- RPE >15 on the Borg scale
- Rise in systolic BP of 15 mmHg
- This is the correct answer. Cyanosis indicates poor perfusion.
- Fatigue is a normal response to exercise.
- RPE > 15 is a relative indication to stop.
- This is a normal response to exercise.
Which of the following arterial blood gas values is MOST indicative of respiratory alkalosis?
- Pa02 80 mmHg
- Pa02 100 mmHg
- PaCO2 25 mmHg
- PaCO2 45 mmHg
3
- This is a normal PaO value (bottom end)
- This is a normal PaOz value (top end)
- This is the correct answer. PaCe levels are typically between 35-45 mmHg.
With decreased PaCO2, the pHl of the blood increases, causing alkalosis. - This is a normal PaCOe value (top end)
