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LAM II-RUSVM > Vaccines/Cardiac Conditions > Flashcards

Vaccines/Cardiac Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Immunize

A

Producing a detectable immune response through vaccination

Doesn’t imply protection

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2
Q 
All of these reasons will contribute to what in terms of vaccines?
Colostral immunity interference
Improper vaccine handling
Improper booster administration
Incubating disease already
Too stressed to respond
Immunity not strong enough to prevent/mitigate disease
NUTRITION
A

Vaccine failure

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3
Q

Where should injections be administered in food animals?

A

Neck region-the area is less desired for meat consumption

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4
Q

There are four claims of a USDA labeled vaccine-what are they? What are examples of vaccines for each claim?

A

“for the prevention of infection”- Spirovac for Lepto
“for the prevention of disease”- Bovishield for PI prevention
“an aid in the prevention of disease”
“an aid in the control of disease”- Salmonella SRP

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5
Q

Which USDA claim is the most common?

A

Aid in the prevention of disease due to….

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6
Q

What is the 6 “F” vaccine rule?

A 
Effective
Functional & Practical
Financially Sound
Federal Mandates
Fatal dz
Frequent dz
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7
Q

What are the four types of vaccines?

A

Inactivated
Subunit
Autogenous
Modified Live

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8
Q

What is a subunit vaccine?

A

Only particular antigens are present, can combine with recombinant techniques

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9
Q

What is a autogenous vaccine?

A

Herd specific vaccines, combined with adjuvant

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10
Q

What is an inactivated vaccine?

A

Killed microorganism- adjuvants provide stability and immunogenicity

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11
Q

What are some pros/cons of inactivated vaccines?

A

Pros: safe for pregnant/immunocompromised animals, no reversion to virulence, longer shelf-life
Cons: need adjuvant/multiple doses, slower onset, more expensive

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12
Q

What is a modified live vaccine?

A

Altered microorganism

Capable of infection and replication

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13
Q

What are some pros/cons of modified live vaccines?

A

Pros: less adverse reactions, stronger/longer-lasting immune response, stimulates innate immunity, more closely mimics natural infection
Cons: potential reversion to virulence, viral replication in preggo/immunocompromised animals

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14
Q

What are the 3 goals of vaccination programs?

A

Maximize herd health, cost-benefit ratio and compliance

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15
Q

What is the primary and secondary goal of breeding herd vaccinations?

A

Primary: maintain solid herd immunity to prevalent pathogens
Secondary: boost innate immunity for calves

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16
Q

What is the two-fold goal of replacement heifer vaccinations?

A

Protect against prevalent threats & provide basis for solid herd immunity

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17
Q

What is the primary goal for market calf vaccines?

A

Immune protection to prevalent disease challenge

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18
Q

What are the minimal requirements for replacement heifers in terms of vaccines?

A

Respiratory viruses: IBR, BVDV, PI3, BRSV
7-way Clostridial
+/- Lepto and Brucella

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19
Q

How many doses of killed vaccines must be administered?

A

2 doses of killed vaccines, 2-4 weeks apart

More complete herd protection

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20
Q

When are calf immune systems mature by?

A

4-5 months old

Maternal AB persist to 3 months

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21
Q

Why shouldn’t you vaccinate before 5 months of age?

A

They will not be protected into adulthood

22
Q

Which type of vaccines are more efficient in protection?

A

MLV

23
Q

Why must you be careful when vaccinating a pregnant cow with a MLV?

A

Potential to cross placenta

24
Q

What happens if you give >2 gram negative vaccines at once?

A

overwhelm immune system and lead to hyperimmunity

25
Q

If a calf is still receiving maternal Ab, what type of responses will you see from the vaccination immunity?

A

Formation of memory B cells
Increased T cell response
Prolonged Ab titers
Increased disease protection

26
Q

What vaccines should be administered to dairy heifers at:
Weaning (2 months)
Breeding (14 months)
Calving (24 months)

A

Weaning: 7-way clostridial, MLV resp vaccine, +/- Lepto (repeat in 2-4 weeks)
Breeding: MLV resp vaccine, Lepto bacterin, Clostridial
Calving: E. coli, Scour vaccine

27
Q

What is the typical posture of a cow with cardiac disease?

A

Arched back, rigid extended neck

DDx: Pericarditis, lung disease, abdominal pain, musculo-skeletal

28
Q

What IC spaces is the heart auscultated in cattle?

A

IC spaces 3-5

29
Q

What is the HR of cattle, SR and camels?

A

Cow: 50-80
SR: 80-100
Camel: 50-90

30
Q

What are the following murmurs typically caused by?

A

Physiological murmur: anemia
Pathological systolic: AV insufficiency or aortic/pulmonary stenosis
Diastolic: aortic/pulmonary insufficiency
Pre-systolic: AV valve stenosis

31
Q

What are the four mechanisms of edema?

A

Hydrostatic (most common)
Oncotic
Increased capillary permeability
Lymphatic obstruction

32
Q

Where is the jugular pulse observable at?

A

Thoracic inlet (carotid pulse & closure of mitral valve)

33
Q

If you perform a jugular distention test and the jugular remains distended, what does this mean?

A

The CVP is increased

34
Q

If there is jugular filling with small jugular pulse, what would you suspect?

A

Cardiac tamponade

Fluid accumulation in pericardial sac, pressure on heart & inlets of large veins

35
Q

What are two causes of cardiac tamponade?

A

Traumatic pericarditis

Tri-cavity effusion

36
Q

If there is jugular filling with moderate to strong jugular pulse what would you suspect?

A

CHF/AV valve insufficiency

37
Q

What are two causes of CHF and AV valve insufficiency in cattle?

A

Lymphosarcoma (R atrium)
High altitude dz
Ionophore toxicity
Valvular endocarditis

38
Q

What is the main CS for all cardiac conditions in FA?

A

Death

39
Q

What can congenital heart disease resemble?

A

Respiratory dz- dyspnea, resp. distress, cyanosis, easily fatigued, weight loss, murmur

40
Q

What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion in calves?

A

Fallot’s tetrolagy

  • Pulmonic stenosis
  • VSD
  • Overriding aorta
  • R vent hypertorphy as a result of pulmonic stenosis
41
Q

What is the most common congenital heart disease in calves and camelids?

A

VSD/ASD

Can spontaneously close

42
Q

What is the cause of cardiomyopathy and swayback in sheep?

A

Copper deficiency

43
Q

What causes white muscle disease?

A

Vitamin E/Se deficiency

Rapidly growing animals

44
Q

In patients with traumatic pericarditis, where do you see fibrin formations?

A

Between abdominal wall & reticulum, atrium or ventral sac of rumen

45
Q

What are classic CS of pericardial tamponade?

A

Severely distended jugulars with weak pulse & pre-sternal edema
Washing machine murmur

46
Q

What is the withers test?

A

Dx acute cases of traumatic pericarditis by putting pressure behind xyphoid and let drop suddenly- pain due to reticulum moving against diaphragm

47
Q

What is valvular endocarditis due to?

A

Chronic bacteremia

48
Q

What is the most common pathogen of valvular endocarditis and where are the affected lesions on the heart?

A

T. pyogenes

Right AV valve

49
Q

What are some biochem results of a patient with valvular endocarditis?

A

Hypergammaglobulinemia, neutrophilia, Increased WCC

50
Q

What is another name for CHF in cattle?

A

Brisket edema/high altitude disease

51
Q

What is high altitude pulmonary hypertension a consequence of?

A

Chronic alveolar hypoxia –> hypoxic vasoconstriction and remodeling of the pulmonary circulation

52
Q

What are the requirements to perform a PAP test?

A

Must be at least 1 years old, at 6500 altitude for 3-6 weeks

Normal PAP=30-35

LAM II-RUSVM (19 decks)

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