Vaccines/Cardiac Conditions Flashcards
Immunize
Producing a detectable immune response through vaccination
Doesn’t imply protection
All of these reasons will contribute to what in terms of vaccines? Colostral immunity interference Improper vaccine handling Improper booster administration Incubating disease already Too stressed to respond Immunity not strong enough to prevent/mitigate disease NUTRITION
Vaccine failure
Where should injections be administered in food animals?
Neck region-the area is less desired for meat consumption
There are four claims of a USDA labeled vaccine-what are they? What are examples of vaccines for each claim?
“for the prevention of infection”- Spirovac for Lepto
“for the prevention of disease”- Bovishield for PI prevention
“an aid in the prevention of disease”
“an aid in the control of disease”- Salmonella SRP
Which USDA claim is the most common?
Aid in the prevention of disease due to….
What is the 6 “F” vaccine rule?
Effective Functional & Practical Financially Sound Federal Mandates Fatal dz Frequent dz
What are the four types of vaccines?
Inactivated
Subunit
Autogenous
Modified Live
What is a subunit vaccine?
Only particular antigens are present, can combine with recombinant techniques
What is a autogenous vaccine?
Herd specific vaccines, combined with adjuvant
What is an inactivated vaccine?
Killed microorganism- adjuvants provide stability and immunogenicity
What are some pros/cons of inactivated vaccines?
Pros: safe for pregnant/immunocompromised animals, no reversion to virulence, longer shelf-life
Cons: need adjuvant/multiple doses, slower onset, more expensive
What is a modified live vaccine?
Altered microorganism
Capable of infection and replication
What are some pros/cons of modified live vaccines?
Pros: less adverse reactions, stronger/longer-lasting immune response, stimulates innate immunity, more closely mimics natural infection
Cons: potential reversion to virulence, viral replication in preggo/immunocompromised animals
What are the 3 goals of vaccination programs?
Maximize herd health, cost-benefit ratio and compliance
What is the primary and secondary goal of breeding herd vaccinations?
Primary: maintain solid herd immunity to prevalent pathogens
Secondary: boost innate immunity for calves
What is the two-fold goal of replacement heifer vaccinations?
Protect against prevalent threats & provide basis for solid herd immunity
What is the primary goal for market calf vaccines?
Immune protection to prevalent disease challenge
What are the minimal requirements for replacement heifers in terms of vaccines?
Respiratory viruses: IBR, BVDV, PI3, BRSV
7-way Clostridial
+/- Lepto and Brucella
How many doses of killed vaccines must be administered?
2 doses of killed vaccines, 2-4 weeks apart
More complete herd protection
When are calf immune systems mature by?
4-5 months old
Maternal AB persist to 3 months
Why shouldn’t you vaccinate before 5 months of age?
They will not be protected into adulthood
Which type of vaccines are more efficient in protection?
MLV
Why must you be careful when vaccinating a pregnant cow with a MLV?
Potential to cross placenta
What happens if you give >2 gram negative vaccines at once?
overwhelm immune system and lead to hyperimmunity
If a calf is still receiving maternal Ab, what type of responses will you see from the vaccination immunity?
Formation of memory B cells
Increased T cell response
Prolonged Ab titers
Increased disease protection
What vaccines should be administered to dairy heifers at:
Weaning (2 months)
Breeding (14 months)
Calving (24 months)
Weaning: 7-way clostridial, MLV resp vaccine, +/- Lepto (repeat in 2-4 weeks)
Breeding: MLV resp vaccine, Lepto bacterin, Clostridial
Calving: E. coli, Scour vaccine
What is the typical posture of a cow with cardiac disease?
Arched back, rigid extended neck
DDx: Pericarditis, lung disease, abdominal pain, musculo-skeletal
What IC spaces is the heart auscultated in cattle?
IC spaces 3-5
What is the HR of cattle, SR and camels?
Cow: 50-80
SR: 80-100
Camel: 50-90
What are the following murmurs typically caused by?
Physiological murmur: anemia
Pathological systolic: AV insufficiency or aortic/pulmonary stenosis
Diastolic: aortic/pulmonary insufficiency
Pre-systolic: AV valve stenosis
What are the four mechanisms of edema?
Hydrostatic (most common)
Oncotic
Increased capillary permeability
Lymphatic obstruction
Where is the jugular pulse observable at?
Thoracic inlet (carotid pulse & closure of mitral valve)
If you perform a jugular distention test and the jugular remains distended, what does this mean?
The CVP is increased
If there is jugular filling with small jugular pulse, what would you suspect?
Cardiac tamponade
Fluid accumulation in pericardial sac, pressure on heart & inlets of large veins
What are two causes of cardiac tamponade?
Traumatic pericarditis
Tri-cavity effusion
If there is jugular filling with moderate to strong jugular pulse what would you suspect?
CHF/AV valve insufficiency
What are two causes of CHF and AV valve insufficiency in cattle?
Lymphosarcoma (R atrium)
High altitude dz
Ionophore toxicity
Valvular endocarditis
What is the main CS for all cardiac conditions in FA?
Death
What can congenital heart disease resemble?
Respiratory dz- dyspnea, resp. distress, cyanosis, easily fatigued, weight loss, murmur
What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion in calves?
Fallot’s tetrolagy
- Pulmonic stenosis
- VSD
- Overriding aorta
- R vent hypertorphy as a result of pulmonic stenosis
What is the most common congenital heart disease in calves and camelids?
VSD/ASD
Can spontaneously close
What is the cause of cardiomyopathy and swayback in sheep?
Copper deficiency
What causes white muscle disease?
Vitamin E/Se deficiency
Rapidly growing animals
In patients with traumatic pericarditis, where do you see fibrin formations?
Between abdominal wall & reticulum, atrium or ventral sac of rumen
What are classic CS of pericardial tamponade?
Severely distended jugulars with weak pulse & pre-sternal edema
Washing machine murmur
What is the withers test?
Dx acute cases of traumatic pericarditis by putting pressure behind xyphoid and let drop suddenly- pain due to reticulum moving against diaphragm
What is valvular endocarditis due to?
Chronic bacteremia
What is the most common pathogen of valvular endocarditis and where are the affected lesions on the heart?
T. pyogenes
Right AV valve
What are some biochem results of a patient with valvular endocarditis?
Hypergammaglobulinemia, neutrophilia, Increased WCC
What is another name for CHF in cattle?
Brisket edema/high altitude disease
What is high altitude pulmonary hypertension a consequence of?
Chronic alveolar hypoxia –> hypoxic vasoconstriction and remodeling of the pulmonary circulation
What are the requirements to perform a PAP test?
Must be at least 1 years old, at 6500 altitude for 3-6 weeks
Normal PAP=30-35
