Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

LAM II-RUSVM > Small Ruminant-French > Flashcards

Small Ruminant-French Flashcards

1
Q

At what age are castrations performed and what are the four methods?

A

1-4 wks

Elastrator band, knife, emasculatome, callicrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the normal vial parameters?

A

T: 102-104
P: 70-90
R: 12-20
RC: 1-2/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are incisors used to age SR?

A

1st: 1 year
2nd: 2 years
3rd: 3 years
4th: 4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: dehorning is not regulated in the US

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: the use of NSAIDs with local block at time of dehorning has showed to decrease cortisol at 3 hours compared to local block alone

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What nerve is blocked for dehorning?

A

Infratrochlear nerve

Cornual branch just below lateral ridge of frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the preferred way to dehorn?

A

Hot iron (3-5 s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the goal when using hot iron method?

A

Circular ring around bud until center falls out and becomes copper like a penny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is thermal injury due to hot iron dehorning treated with?

A

Oxytetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can tail docking too short predispose a patient to?

A

Rectal prolapse (sacro-coccygeal area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where should you amputate the tail?

A

Between C1-C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does cranial vs. caudal epidural block?

A

Caudal: sacro-coccigeal, blocks perineum
Cranial: lumbosacral, blocks the perineum and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the rule for trimming hooves?

A

Sole is parallel to coronary band

Pink tissue=STOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are two types of foot baths used?

A

CuSO4

ZnSO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When should Clostridium D + T vaccines be administered?

A

1&2 months of age, 6 months, annually and 1 month prior to parturition
IM in NECK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How much colostrum should be ingested in the first 24 hours (preferably first 4 hours)?

A

10% BW

2-4 oz Q3-4 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What keeps neonates alive for first 6 hours by reducing risk to hypothermia?

A

Brown fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the main portal of disease in neonates for the first 24 hours?

A

Navel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of immunity does colostrum provide?

A

Specific and non-specific immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Normal neonates are agammaglobinemic

A

True- get these Ab from colostrum

IgG=MOST IMPORTANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When are Ab seen in calves, lamb and piglets?

A

Calf: viral Ab: 90-120 days (>180 for bacteria)
Lamb: Ab at 41-120 days
Piglets: Ab at 55 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much does IgG decrease at 12 hrs, 24 hrs and 36 hrs?

A

12: 50% decrease
24: 5x decrease
36: 10x decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

___ correlates to protein content which correlates to IgG content of colostrum

A

Specific gravity

To know if you have good colostrum- can check IgG based on SG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What level of TP typically considers successful passive transfer?

A

5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How many grams of immunoglobulins do neonates need?
200-300 g
26
What can you use to test for failure of passive transfer?
``` Refractometer Zn sulfate Na sulfite Glutaradehyde Radial immunodiffusion ```
27
How much blood and plasma can be transfused to a patient who had failure of passive transfer?
Blood: 20 mL/kg Plasma: 10 mL/kg
28
What is the transmission route for Bluetongue?
Culcoides
29
What is the reservoir for bluetongue?
Cattle/wild ruminants
30
What region of the US is bluetongue and endemic?
Southern regions
31
What are CS of blue tongue?
Generalized vasculature, fever, EDEMA (face, muzzle, ears)
32
What type of virus is contagious ecthyma?
Parapox virus
33
What are the CS of Orf?
Pustular encrustations on lip/nostril
34
T/F: contagious ecthyma is typically self-limiting
True
35
T/F: ORF is zoonotic
True
36
What is bloat often caused by in small ruminants?
Lush legume pasture
37
What can be caused by engorgement of grain or rapid change to high concentrate diet?
Rumen acidosis
38
What age is Giardia typically seen?
16-30 days
39
What age is Salmonella typically seen?
7-30 days
40
What age is Cryptosporidium seen?
9-16 days
41
What age is Rotavirus seen?
7-16 days
42
What age is E. coli seen?
7-10 days
43
What does C. perfringens type D cause and what are the CS caused by the toxin?
Enterotoxemia (pulpy kidney disease) | Epsilon toxin- increased vascular permeability, edema in kidneys/lungs
44
What is a common cause of rectal prolapse?
Short tail docking
45
What is the tx for pregnancy toxemia?
Glucose 50-100 mL IV | Propylene glycol 2 oz BID PO
46
Where are oestrus ovis larvae deposited and where do they migrate to?
Near nostrils- migrate to dorsal turbinates & sinuses
47
What are the CS of oestrus ovis?
Rhinitis, sneezing, discharge, shaking head
48
What is the tx for oestrus ovis?
Ivermectin
49
What are the two main respiratory pathogens that we vaccinate for?
M. hemolytica | P. multocida
50
What are the two sinuses involved in sinusitis post-dehorning?
Frontal | Maxillary
51
What are CS of a patient with sinusitis?
Drainage Unequal air flow Foul odor Head pressing
52
What is the tx for sinusitis?
Lavage everyday w/ 0.1% chlorhex solution
53
What is pharyngitis commonly a result from?
Dosing- bacterial invasion from trauma to pharynx T. pyogens F. necrophorum C. pseudotuberculosis
54
What are the supportive tx options for pharyngitis?
NSAIDs and rumen fistula
55
What are retropharyngeal abscesses caused by?
C. pseudotuberculosis
56
What is the tx of retropharyngeal abscesses?
Sx removal
57
What are the 6 common causes fo pneumonia?
``` Pasteurellosis PI3 BRSV Ovine/Caprine Herpes Mycoplasma Ovine Progressive pneumonia ```
58
What is pasteurellosis caused by?
Mycoplasma hemolytica biotype A&T | A=most common biotype
59
What lesions are seen from pasteurellosis?
Secondary fibrinopurulent pleuropneumonia + fluid in pleural/peritoneal cavities Lung lesions=foci of necrosis surrounded by hemorrhage
60
What pneumonia causative agent causes diffuse interstitial pneumonia with firm edematous lungs?
BRSV
61
What is the causative agent of enzootic pneumonia?
Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae
62
Where are lesions found in patients with enzootic pneumonia?
Cranial lobes w/ pleuritis
63
What is the causative agent of chronic pneumonia in older animals?
Ovine progressive pneumonia
64
T/F: Ovine progressive pneumonia has long incubation period?
True (2-4 years) | Persists in monocytes/macrophages
65
What two causative agents must be present to cause foot rot in small ruminants?
Fusobacterium necrophorum and Dichelobacter nodosus
66
What are the 4 forms of caprine arthritis encephalitis?
Arthritic (adults-Most common type) Leukoencephalomyelitis (Kids) Interstitial pneumonia Mastitis
67
What is the most common joint affected by the arthritic type of caprine arthritis encephalitis?
Carpus | *hock also infected
68
Where are kids affected with the Leukoencephalomyelitis?
Weak in the rear end
69
What is the most sensitive test for caprine arhtritis encephalitis?
AGID
70
What are the early and advanced CS of scrapie?
Early: tremors of head/neck, isolation from flocks, uncoordinated hind limbs Advanced: ITCHING, DEATH
71
How long is the incubation period for scrapie?
2-5 years
72
What is scrapie dx on?
Ante-mortem evaluation of 3rd eyelid
73
What is the scrapie resistant codon?
171R
74
What is polioencephalomalacia caused by?
``` Thiamine deficiency (increased sulfur levels) ```
75
What are cs of tetanus?
Sawhorse stance 3rd eyelid protrusion Hyperesthetic
76
What is the cause of caseous lymphadenitis?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
77
What are the clinical characteristics of caseous lymphadenitis?
Cheesy, greenish, odorless puss in a thick capsule
78
What is club lamb fungus caused by?
Trichophyton spp.
79
Where is club lamb fungus usually seen?
Livestock shows
80
How long after exposure of Trichophyton spp. will you notice signs of ringworm?
2-4 weeks
81
What is Bluebag caused by?
S. aureus and pasteurella hemolytica
82
What is the initial presentation of bluebag and what does it progress to?
Hot/erythematous udder --> cyanotic/cold udder
83
What is bighead caused by?
Clostridium novyi Type A Headbutting rams Alpha toxin
84
Black leg disease is caused by what?
Clostridium novyi Type B
85
What infection does black leg disease typically follow?
Fasciola hepatica
86
What does clostridium septicum cause?
Braxy in sheep | Malignant edema
87
What is the main CS of clostridial infections?
Death

LAM II-RUSVM (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions