Urinary Tract Infections 2 Flashcards
_______ is a sexually transmitted protozoa
trichomonad vaginalis
“strawberry cervix” and fishy odor with vaginal pH > 4.5 is indicative of _______
trichomoniasis (or BV)
the gold standard for culture of trichomoniasis is _______
modified diamond’s media
describe the biology of neisseria gonorrhea
oxidase +/-
motile/non motile
gram negative diplococci (like moraxella catarrhalis)
non motile
oxidase +
what is the typical presentation of gonorrhea in men?
generally restricted to the urethra; “yellow pus” purulent discharge/ dysuria
the most common site of gonorrhea infection in women is the _______
cervix; (in men it is the urethra)
reason why gonorrhea is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy and infertility
the pili in Neisseria gonorrhea has a specialized mechanism of antigenic variation by _______
DNA rearrangment
LOS (lipooligosaccharide) is a virulence factor of ______ (organism)
Neisseria gonorrhea; it induces TNF alpha in some cells
______ protein in Neisseria prevents the fusion of the phagolysosome
por protein
pili and ____ protein help mediate attachment in gonorrhea
opa (opacity protein)
modified diamonds media is the gold standard for culturing ________
trichomoniasis
because neisseria gonorrhea is non motile and does not have flagella, whats is the proposed mechanism that it can contribute to ascending infections?
urethral and uterine contractions
if you suspect a female has gonorrhea, what diagnostic test would you do?
must do a Thayer Martin agar/ Chocolate agar w/ VCN (vancomycin, colistin, nystatin)
cannot do a gram stain because there are other gram negative bacterial in the women’s normal microflora (however CAN do gram stain for males)
oxidase ____ is description of neisseria gonorrhea
oxidase positive
the discharge in chlamydia is described as _________
mucoid;
gonorrheal discharge is described as purulent
which of the following can you use a gram stain to diagnose: gonorrhea/chlamydia
gonorrhea (only in males because in females must do a culture on Chocolate agar)
chlamydia is NOT VISIBLE with gram stain
______ is the most sensitive test for diagnosing chlamydia
NAAT
describe the biology of chlamydia
atypical bacterium that is “gram negative” but doesn’t stain
has elementary bodies (infectious non replicating) and reticulate bodies (non infectious replicating)
OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR parasites that gain entry through abrasions or lacerations
_______ is a STI that has EB and RB forms
chlamydia trachomatis
HSV 1 remains dormant in _________ (nerve)
trigeminal ganglia
HSV 2 remains dormant in ______ (nerve)
sacral ganglia
treponema pallidum is a _______ (organism type) and is motile/non motile
tightly coiled spirochete; motile via end-flagellum
what demographic has the highest number of cases of syphilis?
men who have sex with men
the definitive diagnosis of the primary stage of syphilis is by ________
darkfield microscopy
syphilis has 3 stages of presentation.
how does the primary stage present
- hard, painless but sensitive ulcer/ chancre that develops 9-90 days after infection
- lesion can have a greater with viscous fluid containing T. palladium cells
condyloma acuminatum is seen in _____ (stage) of syphilis
primary stage in females (genital warts) and is associated with HPV
maculopapular rash is part of the _____ stage of syphilis infection. Does the rash extend over the palms and soles?
secondary; YES, rash extended over face, palms and soles
condyloma lata is found in the _______ stage of syphilis
secondary; lesions are “swarming” with the organism and described to be flat, smooth, eroded and moist
lata = later
what is the presentation of tertiary stage syphilis?
occurs 15-20 years later and present with CNS Symptoms such as progressive dementia, neingitis and hallucinations
- also have CVS effects such as aortic aneurysm
what is a CVS manifestation of tertiary syphilis?
aortic aneurysm
what 2 causative agents are responsible for urethral discharge?
- N. gonorrhea: purulent “yellow pus” discharge
- C. trachomatis: Clear watery discharge
have symptoms of dysuria and frequent urination
gonorrhea and chlamydia most common affect the _____
cervix
what are 2 causal agents of vagintis?
- T. vaginitis (trichomoniasis)
- candida
which 2 STI’s can cause inguinal bubos?
- C. trachomatis (LGV: L1,2,3
- H. ducreyi (chancroid)
Trichomonas is motile/non motile
motile w/ 4 flagella and short undulating membrane
frothy gray or yellow grey vaginal discharge is indicative of ______
trichomoniasis
wet mouth of vaginal discharge shows motile flagellated protozoa with many WBC’s. what is the most likely diagnosis
Trichomoniasis
vaginal candidiasis is diagnosed using _____
KOH wet mount
if a pregnant mother with gonorrhea gives birth to a child, what are some possible complications?
- blindness
- conjunctivitis
antigenic variation of _____ in N. gonorrhea prevents immunity and explains the difficulty in vaccine development
pili (has type IV pili)
N. gonorrhea is motile/non motile
non motile and thus in men it is usually limited to urethras but in females the urethral/uterine contracts can contribute to an ascending infection
which servers of chlamydia trachomatis is assorted with conjunctivitis, infant pneumonia and urogenital disease
D-K
where can receptors for EB’s of chlamydia be found?
- mucous membranes of the urethra
- endocervix, endometrium, fallopian tubes
- anorectum
- respiratory tract and conjunctivae
donovanosis (caused by _________ ) will have tender/nontender ulcers
donovanosis = granuloma inguinal which is caused by Klebseilla granulomatis will have NON tender ulcers
“groove sign” in a genital ulcer/adenopathy is indicative of what cause?
LGV serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis
herepsviridae is characterized an enveloped/non enveloped dsDNA
enveloped dsDNA large icosahedral virus
Cowdry type A bodies are nuclear/cytoplasmic inclusions seen in infection by ______
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in cells infected with organisms within the herpesvirus family
herpes blocks the effects of ________ and is able to escape anybody neutralization and clearance
interferon → prevents CD8 T cell recognition of infected cells
