Contraceptives and Drugs acting on the Uterus Flashcards

1
Q

the initial rise in _____ is what stimulates the ovarian follicles to developing (ripening of follicles)

A

FSH

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2
Q

the peak in ______ is responsible for the peak in LH/FSH and thus causes ovulation

A

estrogen

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3
Q

peak of ______ occurs slightly before ovulation

A

estrogen

peak of FSH/LH occurs during ovulation

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4
Q

what are two general approaches to prevent pregnancy?

A
  1. prevent ovulation (suppress LH/FSH release by preventing rise of estrogen levels)
  2. impair implantation (by maintaining elevated progesterone levels which why you give progestin)
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5
Q

the estrogen in combined oral contraceptives is either ethinyl estradiol or ______

A

mestranol

mestranol is a pro drug that is converted to ethinyl estradiol

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6
Q

which of the progestin oral contraceptives has anti androgenic effects

A

drospirenone

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7
Q

______ and ____ of the progestins have the highest androgenic activity

A

levonorgestrel and norgestrel

-norgestrel

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8
Q

most formation of OCP’s have 21 hormonally active pills and 7 placebo’s. what is the use of the placebos?

A
  • facilitates consistent daily pill intake
  • allows withdrawal from bleeding. has no benefit but its psychological for women to think that they have not completely wiped out their monthly bleeding
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9
Q

thickening of the cervical mucus and prevents sperm penetration is due to _____ (hormone)

A

progestin

also impairs implantation by induces changes in the endometrium

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10
Q

one term use of OCP’s is related to what AE

A

cardiovascular toxicity

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11
Q

when you first prescribe a patient OCP’s how would you advise the about the adverse effects?

A

they may experience symptoms of bloating nausea and breakthrough bleeding but should spontaneously resolve by the third cycle

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12
Q

the most common adverse effect of OCP’s is _______

A

breakthrough bleeding caused by the low dose estrogen because estrogen is used to stabilize the endometrium

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13
Q

women who develop migraine WHILE taking OCP’s should _____

A

stop taking OCP’s; okay to take them if they had migraines before taking OCP’s

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14
Q

why are cardiovascular disorders an AE of OCP’s?

A
  • estrogens ↑ the production f factor VII, X and fibrinogen → ↑ risk of thromboembolic events
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15
Q

a patient on OCP’s and taking antibacterial can _____ estrogen levels

A

↓; ethinyl estradiol is conjugated in ht liver and excreted into the bile, hydrolyzed by intestinal bacterial and reabsorbed as an active drug. if antibiotics reduce the population of intestinal bacterial, that can interrupt the enterohepatic circulation of estrogen

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16
Q

________ (antibiotic) has substantial evidence that it substantially lowers steroid levels

A

rifampin

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17
Q

can you give OCP’s to patients who are older than 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day:

A

NO;

however you can give them to someone who is over 35 OR if a person smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day

18
Q

you cannot give OCP’s to patients with migraines with aura because there is ↑ risk of ______

A

cerebrovascular events

19
Q

unscheduled bleeding and spotting are more common in what oral therapy for OCP’s (combined or progestin only)

A

progestin only therapy however this method had NO RISK of thromboembolic events

20
Q

what is depo-provera? how does it work to prevent pregnancy

A

it is a progestin only injectable contraceptive and contains DMPA (depot medroxyprogesterone acetate) and is extremely effective because in this case, the progestin levels are high enough to prevent ovulation via negative feedback

21
Q

what are some adverse effects of depo-provera?

A
  • high incidence of menstrual irregularities and weight gain
  • SIGNIFICANT loss of bone mineral density with chronic use
22
Q

the major adverse effect of progestin implants is ______

A

irregular menstrual bleeding

23
Q

the intrauterine systems release ______ (drug)

A

levonorgestrel (progestin); effective for 5 years

24
Q

Plan B contains tablets of _______

A

levonorgestrel (progestin)

1st one takin within 72 hours of sex and 2nd is taken 12 hours later

25
Q

in order to reduce the rate of failed induction and for oxytocin to work properly, cervical ripening must occur. Drugs used for cervical ripening include _____ and ______

A

prostaglandins: dinoprostone and misoprostol

26
Q

what is the use of dinoprostone and misoprostol?

A

they ripen the cervix and also stimulate uterine contractions (no need for oxytocin)

27
Q

dinoprostone is a ______ analog

A

PGE2

28
Q

misoprostol is a _____ analog

A

PGE1

29
Q

which of the prostaglandins can be administered orally or sublingually

A

misoprostol

30
Q

oxytocin works by ____ protein couple receptors

A

Gq; activates MLCK and

↑ prostaglandin synthesis (why oxytocin can be used for post partum hemorrhage

31
Q

high concentrations oxytocin can activate ________ receptor and cause _______

A

vasopressin receptors and cause excessive fluid retention, hyponatremia, HF, seizures and death

32
Q

ergot alkaloids (methylergonovine) can be given for _____. what is its MOA

A

post partum hemorrhage

partial agonist at α adrenergic receptors and some serotonin receptors

33
Q

tocolytics are given to ________. give examples of some

A

relax the uterus and delay labor

magnesium sulfate, indomethacin, nifedipine

34
Q

magnesium sulfate is a _______ agent and inhibits cellular action potentials by _______

A

tocolytic agent that uncles excitation-contraction in myometrial cells through inhibition of action potentials

35
Q

_______ is the main NSAID that is used to speed up/delay labor

A

Indomethacin; delay labor because prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions

36
Q

an AE of ______ is that it CAN cross the placenta and lead to respiratory and motor depression of the neonate

A

magnesium sulfate

37
Q

premature closure or constriction of the ductus arteriosus is an AE of _______________

A

indomethacin (NSAID given to delay labor)

38
Q

indomethacin should be given during what period of gestation?

A

given BEFORE 32 weeks gestation because after, there is ↑ chance of premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

39
Q

which tocolytic agent is a calcium channel blocker?

A

nifedipine; associate with more frequent successful prolongation of pregnancy

40
Q

what are the three abortifacients

A
  • mifepristone (anti progestin)
  • misoprostol (prostaglandin analog)
  • methotrexate (folic acid antagonist)