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Herzing College - MLA > Unit 4 Part 1 - Hematology, Coagulation > Flashcards

Unit 4 Part 1 - Hematology, Coagulation Flashcards

1
Q

the study of blood

A

hematology

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2
Q

deficiency of hemoglobin or RBC

A

anemia

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3
Q

section of lab that is concerned with the clotting mechanism of the blood

A

coagulation dept

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4
Q

tests for WBC, RBC, Hgb, Hct, indices, and differential

*only panel allowed, esp in hospitals

A

CBC (complete blood count)

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5
Q

determined the % of different types of WBCs (neuts, lymphs, monos, eos, basos) as well as RBC morphology and platelet # estimation

A

differential

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6
Q

an anticoagulant used in hematology tubes (lavender)

A

EDTA

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7
Q

EDTA means

A

ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

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8
Q

used to determine if inflammation is present, also referred to as sed rate

A

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)

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9
Q

% by volume of RBCs in whole blood, also called PVC (packed cell count)

A

Hematocrit (Hct)

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10
Q

counting chamber for manual WBCs, RBCs, pltelets, sperm counts, etc.

A

Hematocytometer

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11
Q

section of the lab that studies blood cells, may include coagulation and urinalysis

A

hematology dept

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12
Q

the substance in RBCs that carry oxygen and CO2

A

hemoglobin

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13
Q

the stoppage of bleeding

A

hemostasis

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14
Q

cells involved in the clotting of blood

A

platelets

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15
Q

another term for platelets

A

thrombocytes

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16
Q

calculations to determine the size and contents of RBCs

A

red blood cell indices

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17
Q

cells containing hemoglobin that transports O2 to the body and CO2 away to the lungs

A

red blood cells

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18
Q

another term for red blood cells

A

erythrocytes

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19
Q

immature RBC

A

reticulocyte (retic)

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20
Q

cells involved in infection control and immunity

A

white blood cells

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21
Q

another term for white blood cells

A

leukocytes

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22
Q

main stain used in hematology for doing differentials

A

wrights stain

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23
Q

tests done in ____:

CBC - (WBC, RBC Hgb, Hct, indices, differential & platelet count)
Retic count
Sed Rate
Sickle cells
Eosinophil count

A

hematology

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24
Q

an increase in WBC, usually happens when a person has an infection

A

leukocytosis

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25
Q

a decrease in WBC, usually happens when the immune system is compromised

A

leukopenia

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26
Q

a sudden huge increase in WBC may indicate

A

leukemia

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27
Q

an increase in RBC may indicate

A

polycythemia

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28
Q

this test will tell if the patient has enough O2 carrying capacity

A

Hgb

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29
Q

oxygen binds to ___ on hemoglobin

A

heme

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30
Q

normal adult ranges for Hgb

A

Female: 120-160 g/L
Male: 140-180 g/L

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31
Q

test that reflects the relationship between the amount of RBCs and the amount of plasma in a blood sample

quick test for anemia and blood doping

A

Hct

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32
Q

normal adult ranges for Hct

A

Female: 0.35-0.47 L/L
Male: 0.4 - 0.52 L/L

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33
Q

increasing RBCs in blood to be able to carry more O2, allowing athletes improved performance

A

blood doping

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34
Q

MCV

A

mean corpuscular volume

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35
Q

increasing amount of RBC in blood to be able to carry more O2, allowing athletes to improve performance

A

blood doping

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36
Q

MCH

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin

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37
Q

MCHC

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

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38
Q

expresses the average volume of RBCs

expressed in femtoliters (fl)

normal value: 80-100 fl

A

MCV

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39
Q

estimates weight of hgb in RBC

expressed in picograms (pg)

normal value: 27-32 pg/cell

A

MCH

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40
Q

expresses the concentration of hgb in RBCs relative to their size

expressed in grams per deciliter (g/dl)

normal value: 32-37 g/dl

A

MCHC

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41
Q

most common anemia, caused by a decrease in iron which is needed for hgb production + TIBC

treatment: iron supplements

A

iron deficiency anemia

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42
Q

anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor in the digestive tract

treatment: Vit B 12 injections

A

pernicious anemia

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43
Q

required for the absorption of Vit B12, which is necessary for normal maturing of RBCs

A

intrinsic factor

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44
Q

anemia caused by the failure of bone marrow to produce enough RBCs as well as WBCs and platelets

treatment: bone marrow transplant

A

aplastic anemia

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45
Q

anemia caused by an excessive destruction of RBCs, often because they are deformed

causes jaundice due to increased amount of bilirubin in the blood

treatment: splenectomy

A

hemolytic anemia

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46
Q

may be done on automatic cell counter, or manually on a hematocytometer by counting all the platelets in the centre area

A

platelet count

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47
Q

normal values for platelet counts

A

150k - 450k per cubic ml

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48
Q

platelets are fragments of a ___

A

megakaryocyte

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49
Q

__ blood smear is often to detect malaria

A

thick

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50
Q

__ blood smear is often to perform a manual differential

A

thin

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51
Q

types of blood smears

A

thick
thin

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52
Q

to prepare this blood smear, place large drop of blood at centre of glass, and spread with the corner of another slide until size of dime and let it dry

A

thick blood smear

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53
Q

to prepare this smear, the push wedge method is used and takes a lot of practice

A

thin blood smear

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54
Q

the push wedge method involves 3 main steps:

A

approaching
adhesion
advancement

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55
Q

the adhesion step in the push wedge method involves the slider being held at

A

30-40 degree angle

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56
Q

a blood smear is too thin if the drop was too __, or the spreader was too __

A

small, low

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57
Q

a blood smear is too thick if the drop was too __, or the spreader was too __

A

large, high

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58
Q

a patient with ___ hemoglobin will make the smear look too __

A

low, thin

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59
Q

blood smears need to be prepared within __ from collection, and note that high humidity will prolong drying time

A

1 hr

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60
Q

the wright stain is left on a slide for 5 mins, and uses a ___ stain

A

polychromatic

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61
Q

the buffer in the wright stain is left for ___ the time of the wright stain

A

double

62
Q

how to dry the wright stain?

A

air dry naturally

63
Q

wright staining problems:

too blue - stain/buffer too __, time too __, smear too ___

A

alkaline, long, thick

64
Q

wright staining problems:

too pink - stain/buffer too __, time too __

A

acidic, short

65
Q

wright staining problems:

too light - stain/buffer __, time too __, washing too __

A

improper ratio, short, long

66
Q

one step wright stains contain the ___ already dissolved in the stain

A

buffer

67
Q

1-step wright stain is done on __ or __

A

staining rack or coplin jars

68
Q

in 1-step wright stain, the slides are stained in the undiluted stain and differentiated by decolorizing in

A

purified water

69
Q

when staining bone marrow smears, times for 1-step wright stain are __

A

doubled

70
Q

advantages of using an automatic linear stainer

A

reduce repetitive motion, bending injuries
slides can be continuously loaded
save space and money

71
Q

3 parts to the differential

A
  1. WBC differential count
  2. RBC morphology
  3. Platelet estimation
72
Q

1st part of the differential, counts the # of neuts, lymphs, monos, eos and basos in 100 WBCs

A

WBC differential count

73
Q

immature neutrophils have a

A

band

74
Q

2nd part of the differential, which looks at RBCs to see if they are normal

look at size, amount of hgb and shape

A

RBC morphology

75
Q

normal RBC size is called

A

normocytic

76
Q

too small RBC size is called

A

microcytic

77
Q

too large RBC size is called

A

macrocytic

78
Q

variation in RBC sizes is called

A

anisocytosis

79
Q

normal amount of Hgb in RBC is called

A

normochromic

80
Q

not enough amount of Hgb in RBC is called

A

hypochromic

81
Q

too much amount of Hgb in RBC is called

A

hyperchromic

82
Q

variation of RBC shapes is called

A

poikilocytosis

83
Q

___ kills off the RBCs that aren’t normal

A

spleen

84
Q

occurs when air pressure becomes too high, and RBCs become deformed

A

sickle cells

85
Q

3rd part of the differential, estimates platelet count and morphology

A

platelet estimation

86
Q

when platelets clump together, the machine will count it as one platelet

A

platelet satellitism

87
Q

increase in platelets indicate a

A

clotting problem

88
Q

decrease in platelets indicate a

A

bleeding problem

89
Q

increased neut count could indicate a

A

bacterial infection

90
Q

increased lymph count could indicate a

A

viral infection

91
Q

increased eos count count indicate a

A

parasite infection or allergy

92
Q

myeloid leukemia is when the bone marrow produces too many ___ WBCs

A

immature

93
Q

acute lymphatic leukemia is when the bone marrow produces too many ___ WBCs

A

mature

94
Q

malaria goes into __ and multiplies until it bursts

A

RBCs

95
Q

found in hemolytic anemia and causes poor surface area on RBCs

no biconcave, too solid and no squishy

A

spherocytes

96
Q

RBCs with nucleus still in the blood stream

A

nucleated red cell

97
Q

caused by Epstein-Barr virus

A

infectious mononucleosis

98
Q

retic counts are stained with

A

methylene blue (15 mins)

99
Q

counts number of retics in 100 RBCs, normal about 1%

A

retic count

100
Q

increased retics may indicate

A

blood loss

101
Q

decreased retics may indicate

A

anemia

102
Q

manual method used for ESR, tube is 100 mm long and has smaller diameter than other method

A

wintrobe method

103
Q

wintrobe method for ESR is allowed to stand undisturbed for ___ so the plasma can settle

A

1 hr

104
Q

wintrobe method for ESR is expressed in

A

mm

105
Q

wintrobe method normal value for ESR

A

1-30 mm

106
Q

manual method used by most labs for ESR, tube is 200 mm long and has larger diameter than other method

A

westergren method

107
Q

nasal smears are stained with

A

wright stain

108
Q

collected by asking patient to blow nose to bring mucous into nostrils, given swab for each nostril and is labeled accordingly

A

nasal smear

109
Q

normal blood volume

A

approx. 4.73 L

110
Q

normal WBC

A

5000-9000 x 10^9 /L

111
Q

normal RBC

A

4.5-5.5 x 10^12 /L

112
Q

normal platelet

A

150-450 x 10^9 /L

113
Q

autoantibodies produced by persons infected with Mycoplasma pneumonia (atypical pneumonia) or with autoimmune hemolytic anemia

react with RBCs at temperatures below body temp

kept warm using heat block when collected, and put in incubator for 30 mins

A

cold agglutinins

114
Q

proteins that precipitate when cold, handled same way as cold agglutinins

A

cryofibrinogen and cryoglobulin

115
Q

is a process that causes bleeding to stop

A

hemostasis

116
Q

3 things that happen when a vessel is injured

A
  1. vessel contracts
  2. platelets are initiated to form a clot
  3. clotting factors convert fibrinogen to fibrin
117
Q

first step of hemostasis

A

vessel contracts

118
Q

second step of hemostasis

A

platelet plug is formed

119
Q

third step of hemostasis

A

initiation

120
Q

in the second step of hemostasis, platelets stick together to form a temporary seal to cover the break in the ___

A

vessel wall

121
Q

in the third step of hemostasis, coagulation reinforces the platelet plug with ___ that acts as molecular glue

A

fibrin threads

122
Q

endothelial cell damage expose a glue-like substance called ___ that causes platelets to stick to the damaged tissue

A

von Willebrand factor

123
Q

hemostasis starts within ___ of injury

A

10-15 seconds

124
Q

floating clots are also called

A

thromboembolism

125
Q

treatment for thromboembolism involves drug therapy such as ___ to dissolve the clot

A

streptokinase

126
Q

a clot-dissolving enzyme called tPA

A

tissue plasminogen activator

127
Q

putting the patient on anticoagulant therapy such as __ can also help with treatment of thromboembolism

A

heparin

128
Q

a drug that interferes with platelet aggregation and is used to prevent clotting

A

aspirin

129
Q

lab tests done for ___

PT/INR
PTT
Fibrinogen
Thrombin

A

coagulation

130
Q

a substance found in blood that when activated is converted to thrombin

A

prothrombin

131
Q

INR

A

international normalization ration

132
Q

PTT

A

partial thromboplastin time

133
Q

is converted to fibrin

A

fibrinogen

134
Q

PT

A

prothrombin time

135
Q

a fibrin degradation product

small protein fragment present in the blood after a blood clot is degraded by fibrinolysis

A

D-dimer

136
Q

contains two crosslinked D fragments of the fibrin protein

A

D-dimer

137
Q

there are __ factors in a coagulation cascade

A

12

138
Q

Factor I

A

Fibrinogen

139
Q

Factor II

A

Prothrombin

140
Q

Factor III

A

Tissue thromboplastin

141
Q

Factor IV

A

Ionized Ca

142
Q

2 coagulation pathways

A

extrinsic
intrinsic

143
Q

coagulation test to measure extrinsic pathway

A

PT

144
Q

coagulation test to measure intrinsic pathway

A

PTT

145
Q

upon introduction of cells, particularly crushed or injured tissue, coagulation is activated and a fibrin clot is rapidly formed

A

extrinsic pathway

146
Q

activated by trauma inside the vascular system, and is activated by platelets, exposed endothelium, chemicals, or collagen

A

intrinsic pathway

147
Q

DIC

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

148
Q

when body’s blood clotting mechanism are activated throughout the body instead of being localized at an area of injury

small clots form throughout the body and uses up clooting factors (finite)

results in clotting symptoms or more bleeding

A

DIC

149
Q

tests used to detect ___

PTT
D-dimer
Fibrinogen L=level
Platelet count
PT

A

DIC

150
Q

a decrease in Factor VIII causes

A

hemophilia A

Herzing College - MLA (14 decks)

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