Unit 3 Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

also known as celsius

A

centigrade scale

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2
Q

freezing point of water in Celsius

A

0°C

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3
Q

boiling point of water in Celsius

A

100°C

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4
Q

a system of measurement not accurate enough to be used for science, used for most measurements in the USA

A

English (imperial system)

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5
Q

temperature scale used in the USA

A

farenheit scale

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6
Q

freezing point of water in Fahrenheit

A

32°F

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7
Q

boiling point of water in Fahrenheit

A

212°F

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8
Q

a basic metric unit of weight

A

gram

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9
Q

a system of time based on a 12-hr system with am and pm differentiating between morning and afternoon

A

Greenwich time

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10
Q

a basic unit of volume

A

litre

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11
Q

a basic unit of length

A

meter

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12
Q

a system of measurement used by the international scientific community, as well as most countries in the world, including Canada

A

metric system

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13
Q

a 24-hr clock used by most health care facilities, expressed in 4 digits, eliminating confusion when documenting information

A

military time

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14
Q

the relationship between two substances in degree or number

A

ratio

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15
Q

1 kilogram =

A

1000 grams

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16
Q

1 hectogram =

A

100 grams

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17
Q

1 decagram =

A

10 grams

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18
Q

1 decigram =

A

1/10 gram (0.1 gram)

*move decimal 1 time

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19
Q

1 centigram =

A

1/100 gram (0.01 gram)

*move decimal 2 times

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20
Q

1 milligram =

A

1/1000 gram (0.001 gram)

*move decimal 3 times

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21
Q

1 microgram =

A

1/1000000 gram (0.000001 gram)

*move decimal 6 times

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22
Q

1 nano gram =

A

1/1000000000 gram (0.000000001 gram)

*move decimal 9 times

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23
Q

1 ml =

A

1 cc (cubic centimeter)

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24
Q

the physical measurement of how much an object weighs, regardless of gravity

A

mass

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25
Q

the physical measurement of an object depending on the physical force of gravity

A

weight

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26
Q

on Earth, mass and weight are considered the same (t/f)

A

true

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27
Q

1 microlitre (ul) =

A

0.001 ml

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28
Q

converting Fahrenheit to Celsius formula

A

C = (5/9)(F-32)

C = (F-32)/1.8

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29
Q

converting Celsius to Fahrenheit formula

A

F = (9/5)(C+32)

F = (1.8)(C+32)

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30
Q

dilutions are always expressed in ___

A

ratios

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31
Q

ABC formula

A

C/(A+B) = V

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32
Q

concentration formula

A

C1V1 = C2V2

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33
Q

defined as the amount of moles of a compound dissolved in an amount of solvent (usually water)

A

molarity

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34
Q

molarity formula

A

M = moles solute/liters of solution

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35
Q

gram molecular weight (GMW)

A

g/mol

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36
Q

a number expressing the central

A

average

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37
Q

3 types of averages

A

mean
median
mode

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38
Q

the average you’re used to, where you add up all the numbers and then divide by the number of numbers

A

mean

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39
Q

the middle value in the list of numbers

to find this, your numbers have to be listed in numerical order, so you may have to rewrite your list

A

median

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40
Q

the value that occurs most often

if no number is repeated, then there is none of this for the list

A

mode

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41
Q

a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean

the more spread apart, the higher the deviation

A

standard deviation

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42
Q

refers to the closeness of a measured value to a standard or known value

A

accuracy

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43
Q

refers to the closeness of two or more measurements to each other

A

precision

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44
Q

refers to the degree of accuracy and precision over an extended period of time under rugged conditions

A

reliability

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45
Q

statistical measures of the performance of a binary classification test

A

sensitivity and specificity

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46
Q

also called the true positive rate, measures the proportion of actual positives which are correctly identified as such

eg. the percentage of sick people who are correctly identified as having the condition

A

sensitivity

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47
Q

also called the true negative rate, measures the proportion of negatives which are correctly identified as such

eg. the percentage of healthy people who are correctly identified as not having the condition

A

specificity

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48
Q

1 issue for medical professionals

A

back problems

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49
Q

proper use of the human body to do work, avoid injury and strain (using the right muscles to do the job)

A

body mechanics

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50
Q

strong ___ muscles support the spine and back muscles

A

abdominal

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51
Q

your ___ is achieved by keeping your centre of gravity within your base of support

A

balance

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52
Q

part of the body that bears the most weight

feet should be 12 inches apart

A

base of support

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53
Q

point where equal weight is above, below, and to each side

A

centre of gravity

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54
Q

your centre of gravity must be within your base of support

A

balance

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55
Q

lower limb structure is designed for

A

power and support

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56
Q

spinal structure is designed for

A

posture

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57
Q

the spine is more stable when ___

A

straight

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58
Q

the study of people’s efficiency in their working environment and is a very important factor in the well being of workers

A

ergonomics

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59
Q

how many basic principles of ergonomics are there?

A

10

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60
Q

principle 1 of ergonomics

A

work in neutral postures

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61
Q

principle 2 of ergonomics

A

reduce excessive force

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62
Q

principle 3 of ergonomics

A

keep everything in easy reach

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63
Q

principle 4 of ergonomics

A

work at proper heights

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64
Q

principle 5 of ergonomics

A

reduce excessive motions

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65
Q

principle 6 of ergonomics

A

minimize fatigue and static load

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66
Q

principle 7 of ergonomics

A

minimize pressure points

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67
Q

principle 8 of ergonomics

A

provide clearance

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68
Q

principle 9 of ergonomics

A

move, excercise and stretch

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69
Q

principle 10 of ergonomics

A

maintain a comfortable environment

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70
Q

the semi-circle that your arms make as you reach out

A

reach envelope

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71
Q

excessive pressure points are sometimes called

A

contact stress

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72
Q

living things

A

organisms

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73
Q

living things so small that they can only be seen through a microscope

A

microorganisms

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74
Q

disease causing microorganisms

A

pathogens

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75
Q

microorganisms that may or may not be pathogens

A

bacteria

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76
Q

bacteria normally found in the body

A

normal flora

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77
Q

condition in body tissue in which pathogens have multiplied and destroyed many cells

A

infection

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78
Q

uncontaminated by harmful microorganisms

A

clean

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79
Q

contaminated by harmful microorganisms

A

dirty

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80
Q

free of disease-causing organisms

A

asepsis

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81
Q

preventing the conditions that allow pathogens to live, multiply and spread

also called clean technique

A

medical asepsis

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82
Q

a technique that destroys more pathogens than medical asepsis

also called sterile technique

A

surgical asepsis

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83
Q

most common bacteria in the gut that are present in feces, and can be carried to the urinary tract to cause an infection

A

E. coli

84
Q

when the body is invaded by pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, the resulting condition is known as ___

A

an infection

85
Q

infection acquired after admission to a health care facility is called

A

nosocomial infection or healthcare associated infection (HAI)

86
Q

objects that can harbour infectious agents and transmit infections

A

fomites

87
Q

a biological agent or condition that is a hazard to humans and the environment

A

biological hazard

88
Q

5 biohazard exposure routes

A

airborne
ingestion
nonintact skin
percutaneous
permucosal

89
Q

the highest level that a healthy person can be exposed to a substance without ill effects

different for everyone

A

threshold limit values (TLV)

90
Q

doing everything reasonable to protect the health and safety of individuals

A

due diligence

91
Q

respiratory illness

diagnosed by Mantoux test and chest x-ray and sputum cultures for AFB (acid-fast bacilli)

can infect other body sites like skin and lymph nodes

A

tuberculosis (TB)

92
Q

common infection in hospitals and in the community (pneumonia, skin infections)

is resistant to methicillin and needs vancomycin (stronger antibiotic)

A

methicillin-resistant staph aureus (MRSA)

93
Q

first identified in Japan in 1997 and has been found in hospitals elsewhere in Asia, as well as the UK, France, US and Brazil

resistant to vancomycin

A

vancomycin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (VRSA)

94
Q

bacteria normally found in the bowel (gut), may cause an infection in an individual with a compromised immune system

resistant to all antibiotics, even vancomycin

spred by fecal-oral route

A

vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

95
Q

bacteria found in the gut that releases toxins that can cause bloating and diarrhea, with abdominal pain that could become severe

cannot use alcohol based hand cleanser to get rid of this

A

clostridium difficile

96
Q

infection of the liver

A

hepatitis

97
Q

chicken pox
rubella
measles
mumps
whooping cough
polio

A

childhood communicable diseases

98
Q

infectious agent found in the blood

A

blood borne pathogens

99
Q

living conditions for microorganisms

A

moisture
temperature (body or room temp)
darkness
nourishment

100
Q

most common mode of infection

spread through touching, rubbing, and body secretions

A

direct contact

101
Q

spread through clothing, bedding, instruments, specimen containers, etc. (fomites)

A

indirect contact

102
Q

spread through coughing or sneezing, where droplets are relatively large (>5 um)

A

droplet spread

103
Q

spread through water, food, drugs, blood

A

common vehicle

104
Q

spread by particles <5 um, carried by moisture or dust particles in the air, which are inhaled

A

air borne

105
Q

spread via intermediate hosts such as insects or animals

A

vector borne

106
Q

6 common ways that microbes are spread

A

direct contact
indirect contact
droplet spread
common vehicle
air borne
vector borne

107
Q

the iceberg effect

A

treat everybody as infectious

108
Q

most commonly acquired infection in health care facilities is

A

urinary tract infections (UTI)

109
Q

most common bacteria that causes UTI

A

E. coli

110
Q

dedicated to preventing infections for all individuals requiring care in a region

A

the infection prevention & control (IP&C) program

111
Q

6 parts of the chain of infection

A

infectious agent
reservoir host
portal of exit
route of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host

112
Q

part of the infection cycle that is the disease causing organism (pathogen)

A

infectious agent

113
Q

place in which microorganisms can thrive and reproduce

A

reservoir host

114
Q

place of exit for microorganisms to leave the reservoir (mouth, nose, body fluid)

A

portal of exit

115
Q

how the infectious agent travels to the new host (direct contact, air, insects, etc.)

A

route of transmission

116
Q

how the infectious agent enters the new host (respiratory, GI tract, urinary, reproductive)

A

portal of entry

117
Q

a person capable fo being infected, people with suppressed immune systems

A

susceptible host

118
Q

two serious diseases that can cause significant risk to a MLA/phlebotomist

A

hepatitis
AIDS

119
Q

why are you more likely to get hepatitis than AIDS?

A

need very little amount of hepatitis particles to get infected

120
Q

most common form of viral hepatitis

spread by fecal-oral routs

clears in a few weeks with no lasting effects

A

hep A

121
Q

spread through infected blood products and sexual contact

has an effective vaccine, available to all healthcare workers

A

hep B

122
Q

spread by infected blood products and sexual contact

no vaccine

A

hep C

123
Q

transmitted through blood and sexual contact, virus known as HIV attacks the immune system

A

AIDS

124
Q

with needle stick injuries, bleeding is encouraged (t/f)

A

true

125
Q

you should squeeze the site if you get a needle stick injury (t/f)

A

false

126
Q

wearing gloves replaces hand washing (t/f)

A

false

127
Q

the most effective method in reducing the transmission of microorganisms

A

hand washing

128
Q

when hand washing, friction gets rid of the organism (t/f)

A

true

129
Q

4 different types of microorganisms

A

protozoa
fungi
bacteria
viruses

130
Q

2 types of infection

A

localized
generalized

131
Q

infection that is confined to one area

A

localized

132
Q

SHARP acronym

A

S - swelling
H - heat
A - aching
R - redness
P - pus

133
Q

infection that is spread throughout the entire body

A

generalized

134
Q

your body’s most important defense against infection

A

intact skin

135
Q

line the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive tracts

produce mucous that traps foreign materials that can cause damage

A

mucous membranes

136
Q

fine microscopic hairs that line the respiratory tract and propel the mucous and trapped foreign materials out of the body

A

cilia

137
Q

remove foreign materials from the respiratory tract

A

coughing and sneezing

138
Q

produced in the stomach and is a strong chemical that is harmful to most microorganisms

A

hydrochloric acid

139
Q

cells that specialize in fighting infections

A

WBC

140
Q

protect your eyes with a flushing action and special chemicals

A

tears

141
Q

an acid that is effective in killing some microorganisms

A

saliva

142
Q

3 types of precautions

A

standard precautions (used to be called universal)
transmission-based precautions
protective precautions

143
Q

routine activities recommended for all individuals at all times to protect health care workers from exposure to pathogens

everyone treated as infectious

hand washing done always

A

standard precautions

144
Q

3 types of transmission-based precautions

A

contact
air borne
droplet

145
Q

precautions based for patients known or to be suspected to be infected by highly transmissible pathogen

A

transmission-based precautions

146
Q

precautionary measure taken when there is risk of an infection being transmitted via direct or indirect contact with surfaces or patient care items

ex. Clostridium difficile

A

contact precaution

147
Q

precautionary measures taken with patients that have been or suspected to be infected with a pathogen transmitted by airborne droplet

particles smaller than 5 microns

ex. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

airborne precautions

148
Q

precautionary measures taken with patients that have been or suspected to be infected with a pathogen transmitted by airborne droplet

particles greater than 5 microns

ex. Mumps

A

droplet precautions

149
Q

protective barriers required to protect patient from being infected by health care workers and others

usually done with patients that are more susceptible to infections - HIV, chemotherapy, burn and transplant patients

A

protective/reverse isolation

150
Q

order when donning (putting on) PPE

A

gown
mask
goggles/face shield
gloves

151
Q

order when removing (taking off) PPE

A

gloves
gown
goggles/face shield
mask

152
Q

labs that deal with biological hazards that are low risk

ex. bleeding station

A

containment level 1

153
Q

classification of labs that most labs fall into, where primary exposure hazards associated with the organisms is through ingestion, inoculation, mucous membrane

A

containment level 2

154
Q

labs that handle agents transmitted by airborne route, often need small amount to produce ill effects, and can cause serious or fatal disease

A

containment level 3

155
Q

are suspensions of particles in the air that may enter the body through the respiratory tract

A

aerosols

156
Q

code red

A

fire

157
Q

code pink

A

infant abduction

158
Q

code orange

A

medical emergency

159
Q

code yellow

A

missing patient

160
Q

code green

A

evacuation

161
Q

code blue

A

cardiac arrest/emergency

162
Q

code white

A

violent patient

163
Q

code black

A

bomb threat

164
Q

code purple

A

hostage taking

165
Q

code brown

A

chemical spill

166
Q

code grey

A

external air exclusion

167
Q

code silver

A

armed intruder

168
Q

code alert

A

severe/significant weather situation

169
Q

basic 5 hazards in the lab

A

chemical
physical
biological
ergonomic
psychosocial

170
Q

hazards that are flammable, toxic

A

chemical hazards

171
Q

hazards that are caused by physical aspects of the environment

eg. radiation, temperature, mechanical

A

physical hazards

172
Q

hazards that involve microorganisms that are caplable of causing disease

A

biological hazards

173
Q

hazards related to the design of the workplace which stress the body physically or mentally

A

ergonomic hazard

174
Q

hazard where conditions of work causes psychological stress to the worker

A

psychosocial hazard

175
Q

safety showers & eye wash stations should be within a __ walk from anywhere in the lab

A

10 second

176
Q

safety showers & eye wash stations should be used for a minimum of __ after an accident

A

15 minutes

177
Q

kit that includes absorbents and neutralizers to clean up acid, alkali, mercury, and other type of spills

A

chemical spill kit

178
Q

device that separates a lab employee from a specimen by glass front

A

safety hood

179
Q

HEPA

A

high efficiency particulate air filter

180
Q

ventilation device that protects the user from chemicals/toxins

like a vacuum

A

fume hood

181
Q

configured to protect the work on the surface

do not protect user as it pushes aerosols towards user

like a fan

A

laminar flow hoods

182
Q

serve as the primary means to protect the laboratory worker and surrounding environment from pathogens, has circular airflow

A

biological safety cabinet

183
Q

UV light only disinfects the __ part of surfaces

A

top

184
Q

most damage is done in the first ____ after exposure to a hazardous substance

A

10 - 15 seconds

185
Q

reaction that releases heat

A

exothermic

186
Q

remember to always add ___ to ___

A

acid to water (A&W)

187
Q

a spill is cleaned with a ____ dilution of bleach/disinfectant

A

1:10

188
Q

when cleaning up the lab, use a ____ dilution of bleach/disinfectant

A

1:100

189
Q

chemicals used to inhibit the growth of microorganisms, and are used to clean skin

A

antiseptics

190
Q

disinfectants are generally used on ____

A

surfaces and instruments

191
Q

antiseptics are usually used on ____

A

human skin

192
Q

fire extinguisher classification for paper, wood, fabric, rubber and certain plastic material

A

class A

193
Q

fire extinguisher classification for flammable liquids, oil, paint, fat, and gasoline

A

class B

194
Q

fire extinguisher classification for electrical equipment

A

class C

195
Q

fire extinguisher classification for combustible metals such as sodium, potassium, uranium and powdered aluminum

A

class D

196
Q

a multipurpose extinguisher that can be used for all kinds of fires

A

ABC

197
Q

PASS acronym for fire extinguishers

A

P - pull pin
A - aim
S - squeeze handle
S - sweep base of fire

198
Q

3 things needed to start a fire

A

fuel
heat
oxygen

199
Q

acronym used in the event of a fire

A

R - rescue individuals in danger
A - activate fire alarm
C - confine fire by closing windows and doors
E - extinguish fire with nearest fire extinguisher

200
Q

chemical spills are the same as biological spills (t/f)

A

false

201
Q

2 types of spills

A

small spills
big spills

202
Q

spills you can clean up yourself or with the help of other staff members

A

small spills

203
Q

spills you cannot clean up yourself or with the help of other staff members, need outside help

A

big spills

204
Q

spillage where a bodily fluid (such as faeces, urine and blood) has been spilt

A

biological spill

205
Q

when cleaning up a spill, allow a __ contact period

A

30 minute

206
Q

when dealing with spills greater than 10 ml, move out of the area for ___ to allow aerosols to disperse and settle

A

10 - 30 minutes

207
Q

holding the same position for a period of time

A

static load