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Herzing College - MLA > Unit 3 Part 2 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

2 divisions of glassware

A

general
volumetric

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2
Q

adequate for storing many substances

not calibrated to hold or measure an exact volume

not recommended for critical measurements

A

general containers

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3
Q

examples of ___ glassware:

  • test tubes
  • centrifuge tubes
  • beakers
  • erlenmyer flask
  • graduated cylinder
  • reagent bottles
  • petri dishes
A

general

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4
Q

manufactured with a rigorous calibration process to ensure measurement accuracy

more expensive, only glass of the finest quality is used to manufacture

temperature of calibration may be etched in glassware

usually has only one calibration mark

A

volumetric container

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5
Q

means the glassware is designed to deliver a designated volume

A

TD

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6
Q

means the glassware is designed to contain a given volume of liquid

A

TC

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7
Q

the surface of a liquid that appears as a curve when placed in a container

bottom of this is to be right on the calibration mark when placed at eye level

A

meniscus

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8
Q

all liquids curve the same way inside a glass container (t/f)

A

false

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9
Q

glass or plastic tubes that are:

usually open at both ends

used to transfer specific amts of liquid from one container to another

usually used for volumes between 1 and 100 ml

A

pipettes

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10
Q

type of pipette used when the greatest accuracy and precision is required

A

volumetric pipette

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11
Q

type of pipette used for not accurate enough critical measurements and are often used for reagents

A

graduated pipettes

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12
Q

pipette designed to pick up and dispense a preset volume of solution

A

automatic pipettes

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13
Q

pipette used to measure small volumes (1 um to 1 ml)

A

micropipettes

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14
Q

it is okay to use chipped glassware (t/f)

A

false

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15
Q

If using a TD pipette with a frosted band

A

blow out the last drop

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16
Q

If using a TC pipette

A

do not blow out the last drop

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17
Q

when manual cleaning, rinse glassware ___ in tap water

A

7-10 times

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18
Q

when manual cleaning, after the tap water, rinse glassware __ in distilled water

A

3 times

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19
Q

inverted glassware is placed in a hot air oven to dry (approx ___)

A

100°C

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20
Q

when doing manual cleaning procedures of glassware, a detergent or cleaning powder should be used (usually a ___ is recommended)

A

2% solution

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21
Q

when doing manual cleaning procedures of glassware, use fairly warm water (approx. __)

A

60°C

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22
Q

glassware should be ___ in the solution when cleaning

A

agitated

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23
Q

when drying pipettes, cylinders, volumetric flasks and other accurately calibrated glassware, do not use temperatures greater than __ as excessive heat may change the calibration

A

60°C

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24
Q

when drying test tubes, culture tubes, flasks, etc. they can be dried by hanging them on pegs or placing them in basketse to air dry by drying them in an oven (temperature not greater than ___)

A

140°C

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25
Q

main purpose is to separate blood cells from plasma and serum

A

centrifuges

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26
Q

RCF

A

relative centrifugal force

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27
Q

the revolutions per minute (how far the rotor is spinning)

also called gravities (g)

A

relative centrifugal force (RCF)

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28
Q

repeated centrifugation may cause ___ and analyte deterioration and alter test results

A

hemolysis

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29
Q

two types of centrifuges

A

fixed head
horizontal head

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30
Q

centrifuge that separates blood in a slanted form

balanced in a mirror image

head does not move

A

fixed head centrifuge

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31
Q

centrifuge that separates blood straight across

balanced across the axis position

buckets (canisters) swing out when spinning

A

horizontal head centrifuge

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32
Q

specialized centrifuge used to concentrate cells in fluid specimens onto a microscope slide so they can be strained and examined

A

cytocentrifuge (cytospin)

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33
Q

very sensitive scale used in chemical analysis

most accurate balance

A

analytical balance

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34
Q

provides the mass of an object to the nearest 0.0001 g

should be used when an error smaller than 0.01 g is required

A

analytical balance

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35
Q

button that automatically deducts the weight of the container from future calculations

A

tare or zero button

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36
Q

used to keep specimens at body temperatures in the microbiology departments

A

incubators

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37
Q

a steel container filled with water, the temperature is usually controlled at 37°C (can go up to 60°C)

antibacterial agent is added to the water

A

water bath

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38
Q

a disinfectant is added to a water bath to prevent microbiological contamination (using a ___)

A

phenolic agent

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39
Q

when using a water bath, do not use ___ because it is an explosive hazard

A

sodium azide

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40
Q

first department that got automated

A

chemistry

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41
Q

main function is to maintain a defined, internal storage temperature in order to provide secure storage and protection of temperature-sensitive products, samples, specimens, chemicsls, drugs, solutions, and other substances

A

refrigerators

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42
Q

cooling slows down the ___ process

A

metabolic

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43
Q

normal temperature range for refrigerators

A

2-8°C

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44
Q

used to store blood, chemicals, tissue cultures, and other medical samples needed to be stored at low temperatures required for further tests

allows us to keep samples for a longer period of time

A

freezers

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45
Q

freezer that allows samples to partially thaw and refreeze

A

frost-free freezers

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46
Q

normal temperature range for freezers

A

-18 to -25°C

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47
Q

average temperature range for freezers

A

-29°C

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48
Q

freezers designed to maintain a consistent temperature down in ranges like -40 to -86°C

A

ultra low freezers

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49
Q

molecular testing specimens (RNA testing) should be transported, and processed ASAP

if this is not possible, the specimen must be stored in an aliquot tube and frozen at __

A

-80°C

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50
Q

all fridges and freezers should be monitored by ___

A

engineering dept

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51
Q

used to examine different specimens of microorganisms

A

microscope

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52
Q

microscopes should always be picked up with ___

A

2 hands

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53
Q

the compound microscope uses a 2 lens system

A
  1. one in the ocular
  2. one in the objective
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54
Q

determined by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens (usually 10x) by the magnification of the objective lens

A

total magnification

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55
Q

lens used to locate an object in a field

gets object into focus before rotating to other lens

A

low power lens

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56
Q

lens sometimes called the high dry objective, usually 40x (giving total magnification of 400x with ocular lens of 10x)

allows view of the specimen at a closer range for better viewing

A

high power lens

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57
Q

used to view blood slides, microorganisms and sections of tissues

lens is 100x

A

oil immersion lens

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58
Q

used to focus the low power lens

A

coarse adjustment

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59
Q

used to achieve a clearer picture after the coarse adjustment has been used

A

fine adjustment

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60
Q

the ___ adjustment must never be used when the high power lens or the oil immersion are in place

A

coarse

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61
Q

used to focus and direct light into the objective lens

A

condenser

62
Q

controls amount of light that hits the object being viewed

A

iris diaphragm

63
Q

always put ___ objective in place when not using the microscope

A

low

64
Q

use ___ motions when cleaning the microscope

A

circular

65
Q

use ___ paper when cleaning optical lens

A

lens

66
Q

when using the microscope, the ___ must be in line with or extending over the front edge of the bench

A

oculars

67
Q

the vertical position of the microscope eyepiece should be set a little __ for comfort

A

high

68
Q

microscope that uses light object/dark background

A

dark-field

69
Q

microscope that shows intracellular details, used to examine unstained specimens

A

phase-contrast

70
Q

microscope that uses UV light

A

fluorescent

71
Q

microscope that is very expensive, high-tech and uses short wave electrons, more powerful than a compound microscope (2 million x vs 1000x)

used to examine specimens as small as 0.001 um

A

electron

72
Q

simple device used commonly in laboratories to mix small vials of liquid

A

vortex mixer

73
Q

two types of vortex mixers

A
  1. individual tubes
  2. beakers
74
Q

form of solid waste treatment using heat, steam and pressure

A

autoclave

75
Q

steam autoclave parameteres

A
  1. temperature: 121°C
  2. pressure: 103.4 kPa (15 psi)
  3. time: greater than 15 minutes
76
Q

process that destroys spores and bacteria, done at high temperatures and under high pressure, usually with an autoclave

A

sterilization

77
Q

types of quality control for autoclaves

A

biological indicator
chemical indicator

78
Q

spores of this microorganism is used as a biological indicator

A

Geobacillus stearothermophilus

79
Q

indicator very specific to temperature and time

must be incubated for 24-48 hours, sometimes not possible to store the material until the results are known

A

biological indicators

80
Q

indicator not sensitive to time and temperature

change color at the proper temperature

A

chemical indicator

81
Q

do not fill autoclaves more than ___ full

A

2/3

82
Q

never autoclave anything that contains ____

A

bleach or formalin

83
Q

autoclave similar to an oven, which heats up to 150-160°C for 1 hour

A

dry heat

84
Q

autoclave that uses boiling water to sterilize

A

moist heat

85
Q

autoclave used for devices and plastic containers that cannot support conventional high temperature steam sterilization

A

Ethylene Oxide

86
Q

an instrument used to measure acidity or alkalinity of a solution

A

pH meter

87
Q

unit of measure that describes the degree of acidity or alkalinity, measured on a scale of 0 to 14

A

pH

88
Q

pH is equal to ___, where c is the hydrogen ion concentration in moles per litre

A

-log10 c

89
Q

pH 2 is ___ times stronger than pH 5

A

1000

90
Q

an object that has a wide round opening at the top, sloping sides, and a narrow tube at the bottom, used for pouring liquids or powders into containers

A

funnels

91
Q

water passed through certain processes in order to remove impurities (filtered)

A

distilled water

92
Q

distilled water which is cooled and condensed steam

membrane filtration may be used to further enhance this

electrolytes gone

A

deionized water

93
Q

rarely used in the lab as it contains organic and inorganic contaminants that may interfere with testing

A

tap water

94
Q

mixture of salt and water

salt concentration similar to tears, blood and other body fluids

A

normal saline

95
Q

normal saline is also called ___

A

isotonic solution

96
Q

salt concentration of tears, blood, and other body fluids

A

0.9% saline

97
Q

WHMIS

A

workplace hazardous materials information system

98
Q

GHS

A

globally harmonized system of classification and labelling of chemicals

99
Q

5 components of GHS

A
  1. hazard identification
  2. product classification
  3. labelling
  4. safety data sheets
  5. worker education and training
100
Q

a substance which can be included in one or more of the 9 GHS hazard classes

A

controlled products

101
Q

radioactive materials, domestic products, food and drug additives

A

non-controlled products

102
Q

a graphical composition that includes a symbol plus other graphic elements (border, background pattern, color) that is intended to convey specific information

A

pictogram

103
Q

2 sets of pictograms included within the GHS

A
  1. labelling of containers for workplace hazard warnings
  2. labelling during use of transport of dangerous goods
104
Q

pictograms that come in a variety of colors and may contain additional information such as a subcategory number

A

transport pictograms

105
Q

3 categories of GHS hazard pictograms

A
  1. physical
  2. health
  3. environmental
106
Q

how many physical hazard pictograms are there?

A

5

107
Q

list of physical hazard pictograms

A
  1. explosive
  2. flammable
  3. compressed gas
  4. oxidizers
  5. corrosive
108
Q

how many health hazard pictograms are there?

A

3

109
Q

list of health hazard pictograms

A
  1. toxic, death (acute toxicity)
  2. chronic problems or illness (irritants)
  3. health hazard (carcinogen)
110
Q

how many environmental hazard pictograms are there?

A

1

111
Q

list of environmental hazard pictograms

A
  1. environmental hazard (aquatic, land, air)
112
Q

biohazard symbol is not a part of WHMIS/GHS labels (t/f)

A

true

113
Q

responsible for the classification of controlled products and encsures that required tests are carried out

A

supplier

114
Q

ensures that the employees are instructed in:

  1. contents and information of SDS
  2. purpose and significance of information found in SDS

role in education

A

employer

115
Q

not responsible for production of SDS

role is in regards to the provision of the information on the SDS at job site

A

worker

116
Q

non-controlled products do not need GHS labels (t/f)

A

true

117
Q

source of info attached to item or container that alerts user about the hazards related to the product

should also contain precautions that may be taken to limit over-exposure

A

GHS label

118
Q

types of WHMIS label - GHS

A

supplier label
workplace label

119
Q

supplier labels can be written in english or french (t/f)

A

false! labels have to be available in english AND french

120
Q

minimum information found on supplier labels (7)

A
  1. product id (name)
  2. initial supplier id (manufacturer)
  3. pictogram (hazard symbol)
  4. signal word (indicates severity)
  5. hazard statements (phrases)
  6. precautionary statements (recommended measures)
  7. supplemental label info (route of exposure, physical state)
121
Q

minimum information found on workplace labels

A

product name
safe handling precautions (may include pictograms)
reference to SDS (if available)

122
Q
  1. identification
  2. hazard pictograms
  3. composition on ingredients
  4. first aid measures
  5. firefighting measures
  6. accidental release measures
  7. handling and storage
  8. exposure controls (PPE)
  9. physical and chemical properties
  10. stability
  11. toxicology
  12. ecological information
  13. disposal
  14. transport info
  15. regulatory info
  16. other info
A

information found on SDS

123
Q

you don’t need SDS for chemicals at home, but if you bring it to work, you will need SDS for it (t/f)

A

true

124
Q

12 essentials in quality management in laboratories

A
  1. organization
  2. personnel
  3. equipment
  4. purchasing and inventory
  5. process control
  6. information management
  7. documents and records
  8. occurence management
  9. assessment
  10. process improvement
  11. customer service
  12. facilities and safety
125
Q

a comprehensive system for achieving continuous improvement in customer satisfaction

a philosophy based on 4 principles

A

total quality management (TQM)

126
Q

4 principles of TQM

A
  1. customer satisfaction
  2. everyone is involved (management and employees)
  3. constant improvement
  4. procedure oriented (SOPs)
127
Q

a program or process designed to prevent problems in the future by evaluating present and past performance

A

quality assurance (QA)

128
Q

QA has a defined cycle caleld PDCA cycle or Deming cycle. What does PDCA mean?

A

Plan - organization
Do - development and testing
Check - monitoring of processes, modifying
Act - implement actions and improvements

129
Q

allows you to recognize your own strengths and weakness and use this to guide on-going learning

A

reflective practice

130
Q

use of checks and controls to assure quality, done at the analytical level and is a procedural part of the QA program

A

quality control (QC)

131
Q

a system by which acceptable performance of a process is assured by measurement, observation, evaluation, correction and documentation

A

quality control (QC)

132
Q

3 phases of laboratory testing

A
  1. pre-analytical
  2. analytical
  3. post-analytical
133
Q

___ verifies 3 phases of lab testing, ___ evaluates only the analytical phase of lab testing

A

QA, QC

134
Q

___ looks at the outcome, ___ involves the procedures to get that outcome

A

QA, QC

135
Q

the most important aspects of quality control

must be defined, specific and measurable

provide information on which decisions are made for improvement

A

quality indicators

136
Q

values established for all quality indicators

a level of acceptable practice

A

thresholds values

137
Q

means the patient has nothing by mouth for 8-12 hours

A

fasting

138
Q

specimens that need to be drawn at specific times

A

timed specimens

139
Q

the following manuals are examples of common ___ manuals:

SOPs (standard operating practices)
Safety manual
SDS
Infectious control manual
Incident reports (includes near misses)
performance appraisals

A

QA

140
Q

can be chemically pure or serum based, in which the value is known

instruments are calibrated to these known standards

done before controls are run

A

standards

141
Q

best way to measure accuracy, establish reference points and calculate a test result

A

standards

142
Q

made from materials with one or more known characteristics, can have known values or as positive/negatisve values

run in same way as patient samples, results must be within statistical acceptable limits (+ or - 2 SD or 95%)

run befor patient specimens

A

controls

143
Q

minimum of __ controls must be run every 24 hours

A

2

144
Q

auto analyzers require controls to be done every __ hours

A

8

145
Q

graph that quality control data is plotted on to give a visual indication whether a lab test is working well, distance from mean is measured in standard deviations

A

levey-jennings chart

146
Q

a quality control procedure, which is a comparison of current lab results with previous results for the same test on the same patient

A

delta check

147
Q

the identification, classification and prioritization of risks, chance of loss or injury

A

risk management

148
Q

2 ways that risks can be managed

A
  1. controlling risk to avoid incident
  2. looking at risk after it happens
149
Q

basic steps in risk management

A

identification
treatment
education
evaluation

150
Q

focuses on identifying and minimizing situations that pose potential dangers to patients and staff

A

risk management

Herzing College - MLA (14 decks)

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