Unit 3 Part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
2 divisions of glassware
A
general
volumetric
2
Q
adequate for storing many substances
not calibrated to hold or measure an exact volume
not recommended for critical measurements
A
general containers
3
Q
examples of ___ glassware:
- test tubes
- centrifuge tubes
- beakers
- erlenmyer flask
- graduated cylinder
- reagent bottles
- petri dishes
A
general
4
Q
manufactured with a rigorous calibration process to ensure measurement accuracy
more expensive, only glass of the finest quality is used to manufacture
temperature of calibration may be etched in glassware
usually has only one calibration mark
A
volumetric container
5
Q
means the glassware is designed to deliver a designated volume
A
TD
6
Q
means the glassware is designed to contain a given volume of liquid
A
TC
7
Q
the surface of a liquid that appears as a curve when placed in a container
bottom of this is to be right on the calibration mark when placed at eye level
A
meniscus
8
Q
all liquids curve the same way inside a glass container (t/f)
A
false
9
Q
glass or plastic tubes that are:
usually open at both ends
used to transfer specific amts of liquid from one container to another
usually used for volumes between 1 and 100 ml
A
pipettes
10
Q
type of pipette used when the greatest accuracy and precision is required
A
volumetric pipette
11
Q
type of pipette used for not accurate enough critical measurements and are often used for reagents
A
graduated pipettes
12
Q
pipette designed to pick up and dispense a preset volume of solution
A
automatic pipettes
13
Q
pipette used to measure small volumes (1 um to 1 ml)
A
micropipettes
14
Q
it is okay to use chipped glassware (t/f)
A
false
15
Q
If using a TD pipette with a frosted band
A
blow out the last drop
16
Q
If using a TC pipette
A
do not blow out the last drop
17
Q
when manual cleaning, rinse glassware ___ in tap water
A
7-10 times
18
Q
when manual cleaning, after the tap water, rinse glassware __ in distilled water
A
3 times
19
Q
inverted glassware is placed in a hot air oven to dry (approx ___)
A
100°C
20
Q
when doing manual cleaning procedures of glassware, a detergent or cleaning powder should be used (usually a ___ is recommended)
A
2% solution
21
Q
when doing manual cleaning procedures of glassware, use fairly warm water (approx. __)
A
60°C
22
Q
glassware should be ___ in the solution when cleaning
A
agitated
23
Q
when drying pipettes, cylinders, volumetric flasks and other accurately calibrated glassware, do not use temperatures greater than __ as excessive heat may change the calibration
A
60°C
24
Q
when drying test tubes, culture tubes, flasks, etc. they can be dried by hanging them on pegs or placing them in basketse to air dry by drying them in an oven (temperature not greater than ___)
A
140°C
25
main purpose is to separate blood cells from plasma and serum
centrifuges
26
RCF
relative centrifugal force
27
the revolutions per minute (how far the rotor is spinning)
also called gravities (g)
relative centrifugal force (RCF)
28
repeated centrifugation may cause ___ and analyte deterioration and alter test results
hemolysis
29
two types of centrifuges
fixed head
horizontal head
30
centrifuge that separates blood in a slanted form
balanced in a mirror image
head does not move
fixed head centrifuge
31
centrifuge that separates blood straight across
balanced across the axis position
buckets (canisters) swing out when spinning
horizontal head centrifuge
32
specialized centrifuge used to concentrate cells in fluid specimens onto a microscope slide so they can be strained and examined
cytocentrifuge (cytospin)
33
very sensitive scale used in chemical analysis
most accurate balance
analytical balance
34
provides the mass of an object to the nearest 0.0001 g
should be used when an error smaller than 0.01 g is required
analytical balance
35
button that automatically deducts the weight of the container from future calculations
tare or zero button
36
used to keep specimens at body temperatures in the microbiology departments
incubators
37
a steel container filled with water, the temperature is usually controlled at 37°C (can go up to 60°C)
antibacterial agent is added to the water
water bath
38
a disinfectant is added to a water bath to prevent microbiological contamination (using a ___)
phenolic agent
39
when using a water bath, do not use ___ because it is an explosive hazard
sodium azide
40
first department that got automated
chemistry
41
main function is to maintain a defined, internal storage temperature in order to provide secure storage and protection of temperature-sensitive products, samples, specimens, chemicsls, drugs, solutions, and other substances
refrigerators
42
cooling slows down the ___ process
metabolic
43
normal temperature range for refrigerators
2-8°C
44
used to store blood, chemicals, tissue cultures, and other medical samples needed to be stored at low temperatures required for further tests
allows us to keep samples for a longer period of time
freezers
45
freezer that allows samples to partially thaw and refreeze
frost-free freezers
46
normal temperature range for freezers
-18 to -25°C
47
average temperature range for freezers
-29°C
48
freezers designed to maintain a consistent temperature down in ranges like -40 to -86°C
ultra low freezers
49
molecular testing specimens (RNA testing) should be transported, and processed ASAP
if this is not possible, the specimen must be stored in an aliquot tube and frozen at __
-80°C
50
all fridges and freezers should be monitored by ___
engineering dept
51
used to examine different specimens of microorganisms
microscope
52
microscopes should always be picked up with ___
2 hands
53
the compound microscope uses a 2 lens system
1. one in the ocular
2. one in the objective
54
determined by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens (usually 10x) by the magnification of the objective lens
total magnification
55
lens used to locate an object in a field
gets object into focus before rotating to other lens
low power lens
56
lens sometimes called the high dry objective, usually 40x (giving total magnification of 400x with ocular lens of 10x)
allows view of the specimen at a closer range for better viewing
high power lens
57
used to view blood slides, microorganisms and sections of tissues
lens is 100x
oil immersion lens
58
used to focus the low power lens
coarse adjustment
59
used to achieve a clearer picture after the coarse adjustment has been used
fine adjustment
60
the ___ adjustment must never be used when the high power lens or the oil immersion are in place
coarse
61
used to focus and direct light into the objective lens
condenser
62
controls amount of light that hits the object being viewed
iris diaphragm
63
always put ___ objective in place when not using the microscope
low
64
use ___ motions when cleaning the microscope
circular
65
use ___ paper when cleaning optical lens
lens
66
when using the microscope, the ___ must be in line with or extending over the front edge of the bench
oculars
67
the vertical position of the microscope eyepiece should be set a little __ for comfort
high
68
microscope that uses light object/dark background
dark-field
69
microscope that shows intracellular details, used to examine unstained specimens
phase-contrast
70
microscope that uses UV light
fluorescent
71
microscope that is very expensive, high-tech and uses short wave electrons, more powerful than a compound microscope (2 million x vs 1000x)
used to examine specimens as small as 0.001 um
electron
72
simple device used commonly in laboratories to mix small vials of liquid
vortex mixer
73
two types of vortex mixers
1. individual tubes
2. beakers
74
form of solid waste treatment using heat, steam and pressure
autoclave
75
steam autoclave parameteres
1. temperature: 121°C
2. pressure: 103.4 kPa (15 psi)
3. time: greater than 15 minutes
76
process that destroys spores and bacteria, done at high temperatures and under high pressure, usually with an autoclave
sterilization
77
types of quality control for autoclaves
biological indicator
chemical indicator
78
spores of this microorganism is used as a biological indicator
Geobacillus stearothermophilus
79
indicator very specific to temperature and time
must be incubated for 24-48 hours, sometimes not possible to store the material until the results are known
biological indicators
80
indicator not sensitive to time and temperature
change color at the proper temperature
chemical indicator
81
do not fill autoclaves more than ___ full
2/3
82
never autoclave anything that contains ____
bleach or formalin
83
autoclave similar to an oven, which heats up to 150-160°C for 1 hour
dry heat
84
autoclave that uses boiling water to sterilize
moist heat
85
autoclave used for devices and plastic containers that cannot support conventional high temperature steam sterilization
Ethylene Oxide
86
an instrument used to measure acidity or alkalinity of a solution
pH meter
87
unit of measure that describes the degree of acidity or alkalinity, measured on a scale of 0 to 14
pH
88
pH is equal to ___, where c is the hydrogen ion concentration in moles per litre
-log10 c
89
pH 2 is ___ times stronger than pH 5
1000
90
an object that has a wide round opening at the top, sloping sides, and a narrow tube at the bottom, used for pouring liquids or powders into containers
funnels
91
water passed through certain processes in order to remove impurities (filtered)
distilled water
92
distilled water which is cooled and condensed steam
membrane filtration may be used to further enhance this
electrolytes gone
deionized water
93
rarely used in the lab as it contains organic and inorganic contaminants that may interfere with testing
tap water
94
mixture of salt and water
salt concentration similar to tears, blood and other body fluids
normal saline
95
normal saline is also called ___
isotonic solution
96
salt concentration of tears, blood, and other body fluids
0.9% saline
97
WHMIS
workplace hazardous materials information system
98
GHS
globally harmonized system of classification and labelling of chemicals
99
5 components of GHS
1. hazard identification
2. product classification
3. labelling
4. safety data sheets
5. worker education and training
100
a substance which can be included in one or more of the 9 GHS hazard classes
controlled products
101
radioactive materials, domestic products, food and drug additives
non-controlled products
102
a graphical composition that includes a symbol plus other graphic elements (border, background pattern, color) that is intended to convey specific information
pictogram
103
2 sets of pictograms included within the GHS
1. labelling of containers for workplace hazard warnings
2. labelling during use of transport of dangerous goods
104
pictograms that come in a variety of colors and may contain additional information such as a subcategory number
transport pictograms
105
3 categories of GHS hazard pictograms
1. physical
2. health
3. environmental
106
how many physical hazard pictograms are there?
5
107
list of physical hazard pictograms
1. explosive
2. flammable
3. compressed gas
4. oxidizers
5. corrosive
108
how many health hazard pictograms are there?
3
109
list of health hazard pictograms
1. toxic, death (acute toxicity)
2. chronic problems or illness (irritants)
3. health hazard (carcinogen)
110
how many environmental hazard pictograms are there?
1
111
list of environmental hazard pictograms
1. environmental hazard (aquatic, land, air)
112
biohazard symbol is not a part of WHMIS/GHS labels (t/f)
true
113
responsible for the classification of controlled products and encsures that required tests are carried out
supplier
114
ensures that the employees are instructed in:
1. contents and information of SDS
2. purpose and significance of information found in SDS
role in education
employer
115
not responsible for production of SDS
role is in regards to the provision of the information on the SDS at job site
worker
116
non-controlled products do not need GHS labels (t/f)
true
117
source of info attached to item or container that alerts user about the hazards related to the product
should also contain precautions that may be taken to limit over-exposure
GHS label
118
types of WHMIS label - GHS
supplier label
workplace label
119
supplier labels can be written in english or french (t/f)
false! labels have to be available in english AND french
120
minimum information found on supplier labels (7)
1. product id (name)
2. initial supplier id (manufacturer)
3. pictogram (hazard symbol)
4. signal word (indicates severity)
5. hazard statements (phrases)
6. precautionary statements (recommended measures)
7. supplemental label info (route of exposure, physical state)
121
minimum information found on workplace labels
product name
safe handling precautions (may include pictograms)
reference to SDS (if available)
122
1. identification
2. hazard pictograms
3. composition on ingredients
4. first aid measures
5. firefighting measures
6. accidental release measures
7. handling and storage
8. exposure controls (PPE)
9. physical and chemical properties
10. stability
11. toxicology
12. ecological information
13. disposal
14. transport info
15. regulatory info
16. other info
information found on SDS
123
you don't need SDS for chemicals at home, but if you bring it to work, you will need SDS for it (t/f)
true
124
12 essentials in quality management in laboratories
1. organization
2. personnel
3. equipment
4. purchasing and inventory
5. process control
6. information management
7. documents and records
8. occurence management
9. assessment
10. process improvement
11. customer service
12. facilities and safety
125
a comprehensive system for achieving continuous improvement in customer satisfaction
a philosophy based on 4 principles
total quality management (TQM)
126
4 principles of TQM
1. customer satisfaction
2. everyone is involved (management and employees)
3. constant improvement
4. procedure oriented (SOPs)
127
a program or process designed to prevent problems in the future by evaluating present and past performance
quality assurance (QA)
128
QA has a defined cycle caleld PDCA cycle or Deming cycle. What does PDCA mean?
Plan - organization
Do - development and testing
Check - monitoring of processes, modifying
Act - implement actions and improvements
129
allows you to recognize your own strengths and weakness and use this to guide on-going learning
reflective practice
130
use of checks and controls to assure quality, done at the analytical level and is a procedural part of the QA program
quality control (QC)
131
a system by which acceptable performance of a process is assured by measurement, observation, evaluation, correction and documentation
quality control (QC)
132
3 phases of laboratory testing
1. pre-analytical
2. analytical
3. post-analytical
133
___ verifies 3 phases of lab testing, ___ evaluates only the analytical phase of lab testing
QA, QC
134
___ looks at the outcome, ___ involves the procedures to get that outcome
QA, QC
135
the most important aspects of quality control
must be defined, specific and measurable
provide information on which decisions are made for improvement
quality indicators
136
values established for all quality indicators
a level of acceptable practice
thresholds values
137
means the patient has nothing by mouth for 8-12 hours
fasting
138
specimens that need to be drawn at specific times
timed specimens
139
the following manuals are examples of common ___ manuals:
SOPs (standard operating practices)
Safety manual
SDS
Infectious control manual
Incident reports (includes near misses)
performance appraisals
QA
140
can be chemically pure or serum based, in which the value is known
instruments are calibrated to these known standards
done before controls are run
standards
141
best way to measure accuracy, establish reference points and calculate a test result
standards
142
made from materials with one or more known characteristics, can have known values or as positive/negatisve values
run in same way as patient samples, results must be within statistical acceptable limits (+ or - 2 SD or 95%)
run befor patient specimens
controls
143
minimum of __ controls must be run every 24 hours
2
144
auto analyzers require controls to be done every __ hours
8
145
graph that quality control data is plotted on to give a visual indication whether a lab test is working well, distance from mean is measured in standard deviations
levey-jennings chart
146
a quality control procedure, which is a comparison of current lab results with previous results for the same test on the same patient
delta check
147
the identification, classification and prioritization of risks, chance of loss or injury
risk management
148
2 ways that risks can be managed
1. controlling risk to avoid incident
2. looking at risk after it happens
149
basic steps in risk management
identification
treatment
education
evaluation
150
focuses on identifying and minimizing situations that pose potential dangers to patients and staff
risk management
