Unit 4 Part 1 - Blood Bank Flashcards

1
Q

clumping as a result of an interaction between antigens and antibodies

visible in vitro

A

agglutination

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2
Q

a natural immune substance that reacts with and destroys specific antigens entering the body

A

antibody

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3
Q

substance that promotes the production of antibodies

A

antigen

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4
Q

test done to screen a patient’s blood for antibodies

A

antibody screen

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5
Q

area of the lab that processes products for transfusion, also referred to as immunohematology

A

blood bank

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6
Q

compatibility testing

testing the blood cells of a donor with the serum from the recipient for observation of clumping

A

cross match

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7
Q

liquid portion of the blood, used to treat burn victims

A

plasma

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8
Q

red blood cell mass

red cells that are separated from whole blood

used in majority of blood transfusions

A

packed cells

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9
Q

study of the reaction of antigens and antibodies

A

serology

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10
Q

abnormal reaction by a patient to a blood transfusion

may be rash, lower back pain, anxiety,kidney failure, clotting or death

A

transfusion reaction

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11
Q

the entire contents of a unit of blood

A

whole blood

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12
Q

patients bank their own blood to be transfused

A

autologous transfusion

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13
Q

types of transfusions

A

whole blood - rarely done
packed cells - most common
plasma - for burn victims
platelets
white blood cells
blood factors - usually factor VIII or IX for coag patients

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14
Q

packed cells are stored in the fridge at __ and good for up to __

A

1-6 degrees C, 42 days

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15
Q

plasma is stored in the freezer at __ and good for up to __

A

-18 degrees C, 1 year

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16
Q

platelets are stored at __ on a __, and good for up to __

A

20-24 degrees C (RT), rocker, 5 days

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17
Q

present on the surface of platelets but they are not specific

A

platelet antigens

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18
Q

HLA

A

human leukocyte antigens

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19
Q

present on the surface of white cells, typing must be done to determine the type

A

HLA (human leukocyte antigens)

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20
Q

donor blood is passed through a filter and allowed to rest for ___

A

1 hr

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21
Q

donor blood bags are ___ in order to kill the WBCs because the WBCs have ___

A

radiated, antigens

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22
Q

___ are separated from the RBCs and stored at ___ on a rocker

A

platelets, RT

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23
Q

platelets are kept in constant motion to prevent them from

A

sticking together

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24
Q

in the ABO blood group, antigens are on/in the __

A

RBCs

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25
in the ABO blood group, antibodies are on/in the ___
plasma
26
determines the presence or ansence of D antigen
RH blood group
27
RH positive has
D antigen (85% of pop)
28
RH negative has
absence of D antigen (15% of pop) -- d antigen
29
subgroup of Rh blood group , which is a weak D antigen (most common in black women)
RH Du
30
there are about __ different blood groups now
36
31
most common blood group
O+ 37.4% of population
32
rarest blood group
AB- 0.6% of population
33
most NB test done in blood bank
ABO and RH testing
34
__ is considered the universal donor for red cells
group O
35
over 45 years, male and female receive __
group O+
36
under 45 years, females receive __
group O-
37
__ is the universal donor for plasma and platelets
group AB
38
a procedure performed prior to transfusion of blood or blood products to detect any serological incompatibilities in the blood of donor and recipient
cross matching
39
in cross-matching/type and screen: Donor's ___ are mixed with the recipient's ___
RBCs, plasma
40
an antiglobulin used to determine donor blood compatibility with recipient's blood
coombs serum
41
in cross-matching/type and screen, the blood is incubated at __ and then reacted with Coombs serum
37 degrees C
42
cross match tubes are collected for __ (in appropriate EDTA tubes)
transfusions NOT diagnostic testing
43
HDFN
hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
44
a set of pathophysiological consequences that occur before and/or after birth resulting from the destruction of fetal red blood cells by maternal antibody that reacts with an antigen or antigens inherited from the father
HDFN
45
HDFN is not a problem with the __ pregnancy but could be a problem in subsequent pregnancies
first
46
At one time __ was the most common antibody implicated in severe HDFN
antiD
47
other antibodies associated with HDFN
antiK antiC antiE
48
ABO HDFN is the most common form, most frequently associated with antiA,B in ___ mothers who give birth to ___ infants
group O mothers group A infants
49
in the first pregnancy, the mother has a primary immune response in which mainly __ antibody are produced
IgM
50
in the second pregnancy, the D positive fetus causes a secondary immune response in which higher levels of ___ are produced
IgG anti D
51
all RH neg mother are given __ at 28 weeks to prevent HDFN
Rhig injections
52
a type of blood test that determines the presence and level (titre) of antibodies in the blood carried out to investigate if there is an immune reaction triggered by foreign invaders (antigens) in the body determines strength of antibodies
antibody titre
53
the ___ dilution that shows antigen/antibody reaction (clumping) is considered the antibody titre
weakest
54
when a donor is found to have an abnormal antiboy, further testing is done with various antigens to determine the type of antibody
antibody panel
55
blood donation from parent to child
directed donation
56
filter and return blood to a patient during surgery
intra-operative blood technique
57
the patient has the antibody and therefore has/had the disease
positive reaction
58
the patient does not have the antibody and therefore does not have/hasn't had the disease
negative reaction
59
determines the presence of antibodies produced by the epstein barr virus
mono test
60
RF
rheumatoid factor, done for rheumatoid arthritis
61
RPR
rapid plasma reagin, done for syphilis
62
VDRL
venereal disease research laboratory, done for syphilis (no longer done in MB)
63
CRP
C reactive protein, done for arthritis
64
ASO titre
antistreptolysin O, done for strep infections *ASO is an antibody produced by Strep A
65
ANA
antinuclear antibody, done for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)