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Herzing College - MLA > Unit 4 Part 1 - Blood Bank > Flashcards

Unit 4 Part 1 - Blood Bank Flashcards

1
Q

clumping as a result of an interaction between antigens and antibodies

visible in vitro

A

agglutination

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2
Q

a natural immune substance that reacts with and destroys specific antigens entering the body

A

antibody

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3
Q

substance that promotes the production of antibodies

A

antigen

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4
Q

test done to screen a patient’s blood for antibodies

A

antibody screen

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5
Q

area of the lab that processes products for transfusion, also referred to as immunohematology

A

blood bank

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6
Q

compatibility testing

testing the blood cells of a donor with the serum from the recipient for observation of clumping

A

cross match

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7
Q

liquid portion of the blood, used to treat burn victims

A

plasma

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8
Q

red blood cell mass

red cells that are separated from whole blood

used in majority of blood transfusions

A

packed cells

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9
Q

study of the reaction of antigens and antibodies

A

serology

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10
Q

abnormal reaction by a patient to a blood transfusion

may be rash, lower back pain, anxiety,kidney failure, clotting or death

A

transfusion reaction

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11
Q

the entire contents of a unit of blood

A

whole blood

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12
Q

patients bank their own blood to be transfused

A

autologous transfusion

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13
Q

types of transfusions

A

whole blood - rarely done
packed cells - most common
plasma - for burn victims
platelets
white blood cells
blood factors - usually factor VIII or IX for coag patients

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14
Q

packed cells are stored in the fridge at __ and good for up to __

A

1-6 degrees C, 42 days

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15
Q

plasma is stored in the freezer at __ and good for up to __

A

-18 degrees C, 1 year

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16
Q

platelets are stored at __ on a __, and good for up to __

A

20-24 degrees C (RT), rocker, 5 days

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17
Q

present on the surface of platelets but they are not specific

A

platelet antigens

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18
Q

HLA

A

human leukocyte antigens

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19
Q

present on the surface of white cells, typing must be done to determine the type

A

HLA (human leukocyte antigens)

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20
Q

donor blood is passed through a filter and allowed to rest for ___

A

1 hr

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21
Q

donor blood bags are ___ in order to kill the WBCs because the WBCs have ___

A

radiated, antigens

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22
Q

___ are separated from the RBCs and stored at ___ on a rocker

A

platelets, RT

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23
Q

platelets are kept in constant motion to prevent them from

A

sticking together

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24
Q

in the ABO blood group, antigens are on/in the __

A

RBCs

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25
Q

in the ABO blood group, antibodies are on/in the ___

A

plasma

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26
Q

determines the presence or ansence of D antigen

A

RH blood group

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27
Q

RH positive has

A

D antigen (85% of pop)

28
Q

RH negative has

A

absence of D antigen (15% of pop) – d antigen

29
Q

subgroup of Rh blood group , which is a weak D antigen (most common in black women)

A

RH Du

30
Q

there are about __ different blood groups now

A

36

31
Q

most common blood group

A

O+

37.4% of population

32
Q

rarest blood group

A

AB-

0.6% of population

33
Q

most NB test done in blood bank

A

ABO and RH testing

34
Q

__ is considered the universal donor for red cells

A

group O

35
Q

over 45 years, male and female receive __

A

group O+

36
Q

under 45 years, females receive __

A

group O-

37
Q

__ is the universal donor for plasma and platelets

A

group AB

38
Q

a procedure performed prior to transfusion of blood or blood products to detect any serological incompatibilities in the blood of donor and recipient

A

cross matching

39
Q

in cross-matching/type and screen:

Donor’s ___ are mixed with the recipient’s ___

A

RBCs, plasma

40
Q

an antiglobulin used to determine donor blood compatibility with recipient’s blood

A

coombs serum

41
Q

in cross-matching/type and screen, the blood is incubated at __ and then reacted with Coombs serum

A

37 degrees C

42
Q

cross match tubes are collected for __

(in appropriate EDTA tubes)

A

transfusions NOT diagnostic testing

43
Q

HDFN

A

hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

44
Q

a set of pathophysiological consequences that occur before and/or after birth resulting from the destruction of fetal red blood cells by maternal antibody that reacts with an antigen or antigens inherited from the father

A

HDFN

45
Q

HDFN is not a problem with the __ pregnancy but could be a problem in subsequent pregnancies

A

first

46
Q

At one time __ was the most common antibody implicated in severe HDFN

A

antiD

47
Q

other antibodies associated with HDFN

A

antiK
antiC
antiE

48
Q

ABO HDFN is the most common form, most frequently associated with antiA,B in ___ mothers who give birth to ___ infants

A

group O mothers

group A infants

49
Q

in the first pregnancy, the mother has a primary immune response in which mainly __ antibody are produced

A

IgM

50
Q

in the second pregnancy, the D positive fetus causes a secondary immune response in which higher levels of ___ are produced

A

IgG anti D

51
Q

all RH neg mother are given __ at 28 weeks to prevent HDFN

A

Rhig injections

52
Q

a type of blood test that determines the presence and level (titre) of antibodies in the blood

carried out to investigate if there is an immune reaction triggered by foreign invaders (antigens) in the body

determines strength of antibodies

A

antibody titre

53
Q

the ___ dilution that shows antigen/antibody reaction (clumping) is considered the antibody titre

A

weakest

54
Q

when a donor is found to have an abnormal antiboy, further testing is done with various antigens to determine the type of antibody

A

antibody panel

55
Q

blood donation from parent to child

A

directed donation

56
Q

filter and return blood to a patient during surgery

A

intra-operative blood technique

57
Q

the patient has the antibody and therefore has/had the disease

A

positive reaction

58
Q

the patient does not have the antibody and therefore does not have/hasn’t had the disease

A

negative reaction

59
Q

determines the presence of antibodies produced by the epstein barr virus

A

mono test

60
Q

RF

A

rheumatoid factor, done for rheumatoid arthritis

61
Q

RPR

A

rapid plasma reagin, done for syphilis

62
Q

VDRL

A

venereal disease research laboratory, done for syphilis (no longer done in MB)

63
Q

CRP

A

C reactive protein, done for arthritis

64
Q

ASO titre

A

antistreptolysin O, done for strep infections

*ASO is an antibody produced by Strep A

65
Q

ANA

A

antinuclear antibody, done for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Herzing College - MLA (14 decks)

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