Unit 4 Part 1 - Blood Bank Flashcards
clumping as a result of an interaction between antigens and antibodies
visible in vitro
agglutination
a natural immune substance that reacts with and destroys specific antigens entering the body
antibody
substance that promotes the production of antibodies
antigen
test done to screen a patient’s blood for antibodies
antibody screen
area of the lab that processes products for transfusion, also referred to as immunohematology
blood bank
compatibility testing
testing the blood cells of a donor with the serum from the recipient for observation of clumping
cross match
liquid portion of the blood, used to treat burn victims
plasma
red blood cell mass
red cells that are separated from whole blood
used in majority of blood transfusions
packed cells
study of the reaction of antigens and antibodies
serology
abnormal reaction by a patient to a blood transfusion
may be rash, lower back pain, anxiety,kidney failure, clotting or death
transfusion reaction
the entire contents of a unit of blood
whole blood
patients bank their own blood to be transfused
autologous transfusion
types of transfusions
whole blood - rarely done
packed cells - most common
plasma - for burn victims
platelets
white blood cells
blood factors - usually factor VIII or IX for coag patients
packed cells are stored in the fridge at __ and good for up to __
1-6 degrees C, 42 days
plasma is stored in the freezer at __ and good for up to __
-18 degrees C, 1 year
platelets are stored at __ on a __, and good for up to __
20-24 degrees C (RT), rocker, 5 days
present on the surface of platelets but they are not specific
platelet antigens
HLA
human leukocyte antigens
present on the surface of white cells, typing must be done to determine the type
HLA (human leukocyte antigens)
donor blood is passed through a filter and allowed to rest for ___
1 hr
donor blood bags are ___ in order to kill the WBCs because the WBCs have ___
radiated, antigens
___ are separated from the RBCs and stored at ___ on a rocker
platelets, RT
platelets are kept in constant motion to prevent them from
sticking together
in the ABO blood group, antigens are on/in the __
RBCs
in the ABO blood group, antibodies are on/in the ___
plasma
determines the presence or ansence of D antigen
RH blood group
RH positive has
D antigen (85% of pop)
RH negative has
absence of D antigen (15% of pop) – d antigen
subgroup of Rh blood group , which is a weak D antigen (most common in black women)
RH Du
there are about __ different blood groups now
36
most common blood group
O+
37.4% of population
rarest blood group
AB-
0.6% of population
most NB test done in blood bank
ABO and RH testing
__ is considered the universal donor for red cells
group O
over 45 years, male and female receive __
group O+
under 45 years, females receive __
group O-
__ is the universal donor for plasma and platelets
group AB
a procedure performed prior to transfusion of blood or blood products to detect any serological incompatibilities in the blood of donor and recipient
cross matching
in cross-matching/type and screen:
Donor’s ___ are mixed with the recipient’s ___
RBCs, plasma
an antiglobulin used to determine donor blood compatibility with recipient’s blood
coombs serum
in cross-matching/type and screen, the blood is incubated at __ and then reacted with Coombs serum
37 degrees C
cross match tubes are collected for __
(in appropriate EDTA tubes)
transfusions NOT diagnostic testing
HDFN
hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
a set of pathophysiological consequences that occur before and/or after birth resulting from the destruction of fetal red blood cells by maternal antibody that reacts with an antigen or antigens inherited from the father
HDFN
HDFN is not a problem with the __ pregnancy but could be a problem in subsequent pregnancies
first
At one time __ was the most common antibody implicated in severe HDFN
antiD
other antibodies associated with HDFN
antiK
antiC
antiE
ABO HDFN is the most common form, most frequently associated with antiA,B in ___ mothers who give birth to ___ infants
group O mothers
group A infants
in the first pregnancy, the mother has a primary immune response in which mainly __ antibody are produced
IgM
in the second pregnancy, the D positive fetus causes a secondary immune response in which higher levels of ___ are produced
IgG anti D
all RH neg mother are given __ at 28 weeks to prevent HDFN
Rhig injections
a type of blood test that determines the presence and level (titre) of antibodies in the blood
carried out to investigate if there is an immune reaction triggered by foreign invaders (antigens) in the body
determines strength of antibodies
antibody titre
the ___ dilution that shows antigen/antibody reaction (clumping) is considered the antibody titre
weakest
when a donor is found to have an abnormal antiboy, further testing is done with various antigens to determine the type of antibody
antibody panel
blood donation from parent to child
directed donation
filter and return blood to a patient during surgery
intra-operative blood technique
the patient has the antibody and therefore has/had the disease
positive reaction
the patient does not have the antibody and therefore does not have/hasn’t had the disease
negative reaction
determines the presence of antibodies produced by the epstein barr virus
mono test
RF
rheumatoid factor, done for rheumatoid arthritis
RPR
rapid plasma reagin, done for syphilis
VDRL
venereal disease research laboratory, done for syphilis (no longer done in MB)
CRP
C reactive protein, done for arthritis
ASO titre
antistreptolysin O, done for strep infections
*ASO is an antibody produced by Strep A
ANA
antinuclear antibody, done for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
