UNIT 3 Clicker and Quiz Questions Flashcards

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1
Q
The fundamental repeating units of eukaryotic chromatin
A. Nucleotides
B. Nuclei acids
C. Chromosomes
D. Nucleosomes
E. None of the above
A

D. Nucleosomes

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2
Q
A structure for attaching chromatids to microtubules to move them
A. Centromere
B. Chromatin
C. Kinetochore
D. Linker DNA
None of the above
A

C. Kinetochore

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3
Q
How many sets of chromosomes are found in human body cells
A. 46
B. 23
C. 2
D. 1
E. None of the above
A

C. 2

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4
Q

Know what prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase look like in a cell!!!

A

Know what prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase look like in a cell!!!

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5
Q

The function of the spindle and its microtubules formed during mitosis is to:
A. Disassemble the nuclear membrane in prophase
B. Cause the chromatin in the nucleus to condense
C. Facilitate cytokinesis during telophase
D. Separate sister chromatids during anaphase
E. None of the above

A

D. Separate sister chromatids during anaphase

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6
Q
The products of meiosis in plants and fungi:
A. Gametes
B. Zygotes
C. Spores
D. Pollen grains
E. None of the above
A

C. Spores

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7
Q

The ultimate source of heritable (genetic) variation:
A. Genetic recombination
B. Mutation
C. Crossing over
D. Independent assortment
E. Crossing over and independent assortment

A

B. Mutation

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8
Q
How many genetically different kinds of gametes could be produced by independent assortment during meiosis by an organism with four pairs of chromosomes?
A. 4
B. 8 
C. 16
D. 64
E. None of the above
A

C. 16

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9
Q
How many pairs of autosomes are found in a human gamete?
A. 46
B. 44
C. 23
D. 22
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above, autosomes are haploid

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10
Q
Cytokinesis in plant cells is accomplished by the formation of a 
A. Cleavage furrow
B. Spindle
C. Chiasma
D. Cell plate
E. None of the above
A

D. Cell plate

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11
Q
In honeybees, the queen produces haploid eggs by meiosis that if not fertilized, develop by parthenogenesis into haploid males called:
A. Drones
B. Clones
C. Workers
D. Soldiers
E. None of the above
A

A. Drones

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12
Q
How many genetically different kinds of spores could be produced by independent assortment during meiosis by an organism with three pairs of chromosomes?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 64
E. None of the above
A

B. 8

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13
Q
How many sets of autosomes are found in human body cells?
A. 44
B. 22
C. 2
D. 1
E. None of the above
A

C. 2

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14
Q
In ferns, the mature gametophyte produces:
A. Haploid spores by meiosis
B. Haploid spores by mitosis
C. Haploid gametes by meiosis
D. Haploid gametes by mitosis
E. None of the above
A

D. Haploid gametes by mitosis

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15
Q
Which of the following animals are oviparous?
A. Opossums
B. Kangaroos
C. Wolves
D. Reptiles
E. None of the above
A

D. Reptiles

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16
Q
In flowering plants (Athophyta) a pollen grain is the:
A. Zygote
B. Inside of the seed
C. Haploid male gametophyte
D. Diploid male gametophyte
E. None of the above
A

C. Haploid male gametophyte

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17
Q

In the flowering plants (Athophyta), one sperm from the pollen grain fertilizes the egg to form the zygote, while the other sperm:
A. Fertilizes another egg to form the female gametophyte
B. Fertilizes another egg to form the male gametophyte
C. Fuses with two polar nuclei to form the endosperm
D. Fuses with another egg to produce the seed
E. None of the above

A

C. Fuses with two polar nuclei to form the endosperm

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18
Q
In the flowering plants (Athophyta), sperm are produced in structures called:
A. Pollen grains
B. Sporangia
C. Antheridia
D. Anthers
E. None of the above
A

D. Anthers

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19
Q

Quiz Q:
Why of the following does NOT normally lead to genetic recombination?
A. Crossing over
B. The process of fertilization
C. Mitosis
D. Independent assortment
E. All of the above are forms of genetic recombination

A

C. Mitosis

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20
Q
Quiz Q:
In meiosis, one member of each homologous pair of chromosomes moves to the opposite poles of the cell during:
A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II
E. Interphase
A

Anaphase I

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21
Q
Quiz Q:
How many sex chromosomes would a human egg contain?
A. One 
B. Two
C. 22
D. 23
E. None of the above
A

A. One

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22
Q
Quiz Q:
How many different kinds of gametes could be produced by independent assortment during meiosis in an animal with 4 pairs of chromosomes?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. None of the above
A

C. 16

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23
Q
Quiz Q:
How many pairs of chromosomes would a human sperm cell contain?
A. One
B. Two
C. 23
D. 46
E. None of the above
A

?

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24
Q
Quiz Q:
In honeybees, the queen produces haploid eggs that, if fertilized, become diploid:
A. Males called workers
B. Males called drones
C. Females called workers
D. Females called drones
E. None of the above
A

C. Females called workers

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25
Q
Quiz Q:
In flowering plants, a pollen grain is actually a:
A. Male sporophyte
B. Female sporophyte
C. Male gametophyte
D. Female gametophyte
E. None of the above
A

C. Male gametophyte

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26
Q
Quiz Q:
How many sets of chromosomes would a human liver cell contain?
A. One 
B. Two
C. 23
D. 46
E. None of the above
A

B. Two

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27
Q
Quiz Q:
During mitosis, sister chromatids are separated during:
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
A

D. Anaphase

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28
Q
Quiz Q:
In meiosis, crossing over may occur during:
A. Interphase
B. Prophase I
C. Metaphase I
D. Anaphase I
E. Telophase I
A

D. Anaphase I

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29
Q
Quiz Q:
Which of the following organisms utilizes external fertilization and external development?
A. Kangaroos
B. Frogs
C. Turtles
D. None of the above
A

C. Turtles

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30
Q
Quiz Q:
Cytokinesis in animal cells is accomplished by the development of a:
A. Centromere
B. Spindle
C. Cleavage furrow
D. Cell plate
E. None of the above
A

C. Cleavage furrow

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31
Q
Quiz Q:
The products of meiosis in animals:
A. Body cells
B. Spores
C. Gametes
D. Zygotes
E. None of the above
A

C. Gametes

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32
Q
Cytokinesis is accomplished in plant cells by the development of a:
A. Centromere
B. Spindle
C. Cleavage furrow
D. Cell plate
E. None of the above
A

D. Cell plate

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33
Q
Quiz Q: 
The development of a cleavage furrow in animal cells would be seen during what stage of mitosis?
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
A

E. Telophase

34
Q
Quiz Q:
How many chromosomes would a human sperm cell normally contain?
A. One 
B. Two
C. 23
D. 46
E. None of the above
A

C. 23

35
Q
Quiz Q:
Type of asexual reproduction involving the spontaneous development of an unfertilized egg:
A. Budding
B. Binary fission
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Vegetative reproduction
E. None of the above
A

C. Parthenogenesis

36
Q
The gene that determines skin color in chorus frogs also influences developmental rates and tolerance to dehydration, this is an example of:
A. Multiple alleles
B. Codominant alleles
C. Polygenic inheritance
D. Pleiotropy
E. None of the above
A

D. Pleiotropy

37
Q
Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by nondisjunction of autosomes?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down Syndrome
D. Huntington disease
E. None of the above
A

C. Down Syndrome

38
Q
If you are using a Chi-Square test to determine if the observed results from a cross between two heterozygous pink snapdragons that show incomplete differ significantly from what you expect according to the laws of probability, how many degrees of freedom would you use to obtain the critical value from a Chi-Square table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above
A

B. 2

39
Q

If you obtained a Chi-Square value of 6.64 using the data from the preceding incomplete dominance cross between two heterozygous parents, and the critical value in the table under 2 degrees of freedom is 5.99 at the 0.05 level of significance, what can you conclude?
A. The observed values do NOT differ significantly from the expected values at the 0.05 level of significance
B. The observed values do differ significantly from the expected values at the 0.05 level
C. The observed values are exactly the same expected values for this cross
D. You cannot conclude anything since this is only a statistical test

A

B. The observed values do differ significantly from the expected values at the 0.05 level

40
Q
Individuals with only one X chromosome (X0) suffer from what genetic disorder?
A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Sickle-cell anemia
D. Klinefelter syndrome
E. None of the above
A

B. Turner Syndrome

41
Q
How many sets of chromosomes are in the human body?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 44
D. 35
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

42
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a long sequence of adenine nucleotides that promotes export from the nucleus of the processed mRNA transcript and protects it from degradation.
A. 5' Cap
B. Poly-A tail
C. Stop codon
D. 3' UTR
E. None of the above
A

B. Poly-A tail

43
Q
How many pairs of autosomes are found in human body cells?
A. 46
B. 23
C. 22
D. 2
E. None of the above
A

C. 22

44
Q
DNA is replicated during the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the cell cycle
A. Growth phase
B. S-phase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
E. None of the above
A

B. S-phase

45
Q
How many RNA nucleotides would be needed to code for a protein with 20 amino acids?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 60
D. 63
E. 66
A

D. 63

46
Q
Sister chromatids of each double-stranded chromosome are separated and moved by spindle fibers during \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of meiosis.
A. Anaphase I
B. Anaphase II
C. Metaphase I
D. Telophase II
E. None of the above
A

B. Anaphase II

47
Q
In sexually reproducing organisms, existing genetic variation is amplified by:
A. Mutation
B. Mitosis
C. Genetic recombination
D. Cytokinesis
E. None of the above
A

C. Genetic recombination

48
Q
In ferns, the diploid sporophyte produces:
A. Haploid spores by meiosis
B. Haploid spores by mitosis
C. Haploid gametes by meiosis
D. Haploid gametes by mitosis
E. None of the above
A

A. Haploid spores by meiosis

49
Q
If you are using a Chi-square test to determine if the observed results form a cross between two heterozygous pink snapdragons that show incomplete dominance are significantly different from what you expected, how many degrees of freedom would you use to obtain the critical value from a Chi-square table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above
A

B. 2

50
Q

If you obtained a Chi-square value of 6.64 from the preceding incomplete dominance cross between two heterozygous parents, and the critical value in the table under 2 degrees of freedom is 5.99 at the 0.05 level of significance, what can you conclude?
A. The observed values do NOT differ significantly from the expected values at the 0.05 level of significance (P>0.05)
B. The observed values do differ significantly from the expected values at the 0.05 level (P<0.05)
C. The observed values are exactly the same expected values for this cross
D. You cannot conclude anything since this is only a statistical test

A

B. The observed values do differ significantly from the expected values at the 0.05 level (P<0.05)

51
Q
In snapdragons a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant produces plants with pink flowers; such a pattern of inheritance is called incomplete dominance. If a cross between two pink-flowered plants produced 100 plants, how many of them would you expect to be pink?
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 25
E. None of the above
A

C. 50

52
Q
In ferns, the haploid gametophyte produces:
A. Haploid spores by meiosis
B. Haploid spores by mitosis
C. Haploid gametes by meiosis
D. Haploid gametes by mitosis
E. None of the above
A

D. Haploid gametes by mitosis

53
Q
In flowering plants, the male gametophyte is called a(an): 
A. Anther
B. Pollen grain
C. Stamen
D. Sperm cell
E. None of the above
A

B. Pollen grain

54
Q
The energy for DNA polymerization comes from the hydrolysis of two high-energy phosphate bonds found in:
A. Nucleoside triphosphates
B. DNA Nucleotides
C. RNA Nucleotides
D. Pyrophosphates
E. None of the above
A

A. Nucleoside triphosphates

55
Q
The addition of free nucleotides to the leading strand of DNA during replication is catalyzed by the enzyme:
A. Primase
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA Polymerase I
D. DNA Polymerase III
E. None of the above
A

D. DNA Polymerase III

56
Q
Amino acids are brought to the site where proteins are assembled in the cytoplasm by:
A. ATP
B. Microtubules
C. t-RNA
D. RNA polymerase
E. None of the above
A

C. t-RNA

57
Q
Proteins are assembled by structures called:
A. Nucleosomes
B. Synthases
C. Ribosomes
D. Polysomes 
E. None of the above
A

C. Ribosomes

58
Q
Sickle-cell anemia is caused by what type of mutation?
A. A deletion
B. An insertion
C. A fame-shift error
D. A point mutation
E. None of the above
A

D. A point mutation

59
Q
The process of decoding the information in a mRNA transcript to produce a polypeptide (protein):
A. Replication
B. Triplet decoding
C. Transcription
D. Translation
E. None of the above
A

D. Translation

60
Q
A mRNA transcript consists of 20 codons; how many amino acids would this mRNA code for?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 26
D. 19
E. None of the above
A

D. 19

61
Q

Quiz Q:
The genetic code is called degenerate because:
A. Eventually the DNA molecule will be broken down if it is not replicated
B. Messenger RNA carries some nonsense codons that do not code for amino acids
C. A single codon on the messenger RNA can code for more than one amino acid
D. More than one codon can code for the same amino acid
E. None of the above

A

D. More than one codon can code for the same amino acid

62
Q
Quiz Q:
In garden peas, the allele for smooth seed shape is dominant to the allele that produce a rough seed shape, and the allele for yellow seed color is dominant to the allele for green seed color.
If two individuals heterozygous for seed shape and seed color were crossed, what would be the probability of getting a plant with seeds that were rough and green?
A. 9/16
B. 4/16
C. 3/16
D. 1/16
E. None of the above
A

D. 1/16

63
Q
Quiz Q:
Individuals with an extra copy of chromosome 21 suffer from a genetic disorder known as:
A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Sickle-cell anemia
E. None of the above
A

A. Down Syndrome

64
Q

Quiz Q:
In garden peas the allele for purple flower is dominant to the allele for white flower. A cross between two individuals heterozygous for flower color produced the following results: 80 plants with purple flowers and 20 plants with white flowers.
Assuming a Chi-Square critical value of 3.84 for one degree of freedom, the observed results were:
A. Statistically different from the expected results
B. Not statistically different from the expected results
C. Exactly the same as the expected results
D. Impossible to compare with the expected results
E. None of the above

A

B. Not statistically different from the expected results

65
Q
Quiz Q:
In garden peas, the allele for smooth seed shape is dominant to the allele that produces a rough seed shape, and the allele for yellow seed color is dominant to the allele for green seed color.
If two individuals heterozygous for seed shape and seed color were crossed, what would be the probability of getting a plant with seeds that were smooth and yellow?
A. 9/16
B. 4/16
C. 3/16
D. 1/16
E. None of the above
A

A. 9/16

66
Q
Quiz Q:
In garden peas, the allele for smooth seed shape is dominant to the allele that produces a rough seed shape, and the allele for yellow seed color is dominant to the allele for green seed color.
If an individual heterozygous for seed shape and seed color were crossed with a plant that had rough-green seeds, what would be the probability of getting a plant with seeds that were rough and green?
A. 9/16
B. 4/16
C. 3/16
D. 1/16
E. None of the above
A

B. 4/16

67
Q
Quiz Q:
Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a recessive allele?
A. Down syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Huntington disease
D. Sickle-cell anemia
E. None of the above
A

D. Sickle-cell anemia

68
Q
Quiz Q:
In garden peas, the allele for purple flower is dominant to the allele for white flower. 
If a heterozygous purple-flowered plant were crossed with a plant with white flowers, what would be the probability of getting a plant with white flowers?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 3/4
E. None of the above
A

A. 1/2

69
Q
Quiz Q:
The fact that the gene that determines skin color in chorus frogs also influences developmental rates and tolerance to dehydration is an example of:
A. Polygenic inheritance
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Pleiotropy
D. Multiple alleles
E. None of the above
A

C. Pleiotropy

70
Q
Quiz Q:
Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a recessive allele?
A. Down syndrome
B. Huntington disease
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Turner syndrome
E. None of the above
A

C. Cystic fibrosis

71
Q
Quiz Q:
If one strand of the DNA molecule had the following sequence of nitrogen-containing bases T-C-G-C-A, what sequences of bases on the opposite strand would be complementary to this five base segment?
A. A-C-G-C-T
B. T-C-G-A-C
C. G-A-G-C-T
D. A-G-C-G-T
E. None of the above
A

D. A-G-C-G-T

72
Q

Quiz Q:
The genetic code is called degenerate because:
A. Eventually the DNA molecule will be broken down if it is not replicated
B. Messenger RNA carries some nonsense codons that do not code for amino acids
C. A single codon on the messenger RNA can code for more than one amino acid
D. More than one codon can code for the same amino acid
E. None of the above

A

D. More than one codon can code for the same amino acid

73
Q
Quiz Q:
If the codon on mRNA for a given amino acid AUG, what is the anticodon for this amino acid:
A. TAC
B. GUA
C. UAC
D. TAU
E. None of the above
A

C. UAC

74
Q
Quiz Q:
During discontinuous DNA synthesis, short stretches of nucleotides are first assembled and then linked together into one continuous strand by the enzyme:
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA synthetase
C.DNA ligase
D. DNA nucleotides
E. None of the above
A

A. DNA polymerase

75
Q
Quiz Q:
Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand of DNA replication are joined together by:
A. DNA Polymerase I
B. DNA Polymerase III
C. DNA Primase
D. DNA Ligase
E. None of the above
A

B. DNA Polymerase III

76
Q
Quiz Q:
The synthesis of the lagging strand during DNA replication consists of short of DNA called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that must be joined together by enzymes called ligases.
A. DNA primers
B. Introns
C. Extrons
D. Okazaki fragments
E. None of the above
A

D. Okazaki fragments

77
Q
Quiz Q:
The hydrolysis of two high-energy phosphate bonds on a nucleoside triphosphate during DNA replication releases the phosphates as:
A. 2 ATP's
B. 2 ADP's
C. Pyrophosphate
D. Deoxyribose
E. None of the above
A

C. Pyrophosphate

78
Q
Quiz Q:
Initiation of transcription begins when an enzyme called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ binds to a region of the gene called the promoter:
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase
C. RNA polymerase
D. RNA ligase
E. None of the above
A

C. RNA polymerase

79
Q
Quiz Q:
Which of the following are not found in DNA?
A. Amino acids
B. Nitrogen-containing bases
C. Sugars
D. Phosphates
E. All of the above are found in DNA
A

E. All of the above are found in DNA

80
Q
Quiz Q:
Which of the following genetic disorders affects the ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen?
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. None of the above
A

B. Sickle cell anemia