Trigger Urology Flashcards

1
Q

shallow rugae are found when

A

preterm infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what characterizes male menarche

A

sperm in urine and nocturnal emissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

during which tanner stages does penile enlargement occur

A

stages 2-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

by late childhood a penis should be how big

A

4.85cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what circumcision technique risks amputation of the glans

yikes

A

Mogen technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the % retrctability of the foreskin in correlation to age

A

age 1 - 50% of boys can retract foreskin
age 3 - 90%
age 6-7 -92%
adolescence 99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

6 weeks of topical betamethasone + stretching

A

phimosis tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the tx options for the various etiologies of balanoposthitis

A

Nonspecific - topial bacitracin/mupirocin
Irritant - topical low potency steroid cream
Candidial - topical antifungal or one dose PO fluconazole
bacterial - topial abx. if severe oral amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

urethral folds failing to completely close can result in ……. in male children

A

hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

this penile abnormality must be fixed when a boy is 6-12 months old

A

hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A baby is born with the urethral meatus displaced to the top side of his penis. this baby has…..

A

epispadias

top = dorsal and underneath side = ventral … right? if not plz tell me

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

epispadias that is associated w urinary icontinence is typically found where on the penis

A

dorsally and proximally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when should testicles spontaneously descend

A

4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

state why each of the following diagnostics is used in cryptorchidism

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how soon after discovery should retractile/ascending testes be treated w surgery

A

within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

this disorder incereases testicular cancer by 5-10x

A

cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the drawbacks of treating cryptorchidism with hCG

A
  • can retract after hCG discontinuiation
  • can hasten puberty
  • can cause testicular damage and sterility
  • long term studies are lacking
18
Q

what does disorder of sex developement mean

A

external genitalia and gonadal/chromosomal sex are differnt

19
Q

when would you want to order 17-hydroxyprogesterone

A

adrenal steroid lab test to assess ambiguous genitalia

20
Q

a patent processus vaginalis wher fluid flows into the tunica vaginalis describes a …

A

communicating hydrocele

21
Q

are direct or indirect inguinal hernias more common? who do these MC occur in ?

A

indirect.

boys <10months

22
Q

what is the tx of an inguinal hernia

A

always refer to surgery for laproscopic repair.

23
Q

What is the timeline in relation to testicular torsion and viability

A

detrosion within 4-6 hrs = 100% viable
after 12 hrs = 20% viable
after 24 hrs = 0%

24
Q

a pt w a normal cremasteric reflex but a + prehn sign probs has what

A

acute epididymitis

25
Q

If a patient presenting with high-likelihood STD epididymitis, you must order (3) labs

A

couldnt remember this so had to put it here too

26
Q

Doppler US shows increased blood flow to one of the testicles

A

acute epididymitis

27
Q

what is the treatment for epididymitis that is caused by:
STD suspected
enteric organism
suspected UTI

A

STD = rocephin + doxy
Enteric = levofloxacin
UTI = cefdinir or bactrim

28
Q

tx for vulvovaginitis caused by:
candidiasis
bacteria
candidiasis in children who cant swallow pills

A
  • candidiasis = 1 dose oral fluconazole
  • bacteria = metro + clinda
  • unable to swallow = topcial azole (12+), nystatin (<12)
29
Q

how do you treat uncomplicated vs complicated labial adhesions

A

uncomplicated = reassureance and self liomiting
complicated = topical estrogen

30
Q

tx for penile adhesions

A

gentle traction

if fails can use topical low potency steroids

31
Q

what is the treatment of a penile skin bridge

A

referred to ped urologist for lysis of adhesions via scalpel after topical anesthetic application

32
Q

why would you need a clean catch urine sample from a child

A

if they have a UTI and you need a culture

33
Q

what is diagnostic of UTI in children

A

Clean-void: 100k or more CFUs
Catheter: 50k or more CFUs

34
Q

how do you treat a UTI

A
  • cefdinir, defpodoxime, ceftriaxone, cefotaxime
  • cipro if pseudomonas
  • 10 days if febrile
  • 3-5 if afebrile and immunocompetent
35
Q

what are indications for a renal US in children w a UTI

A
36
Q

indications for a voiding cystourethrogram

A
  • 2+ febrile UTIs
  • 1 febrile UTI + abnormal renal US OR 102.2 temp AND a pathogen other than E. Coli or poor growth or hypertension

oml shes def gonna ask this

37
Q

how do you tx VUR

A
  • grades 1-2: abx if not potty trained. if potty trained, watchful waiting
  • grade 3: ABX daily, surgery if non-compliance w meds
  • grade 4-5 surgery w prohpylactic abx
37
Q

what are the 5 styages of vesicouretal reflux

A
  1. reflux into ureter
  2. reflux into kindeys
  3. reflux into kidneys, ureter dilation
  4. reflux into kidneys, ureter dilation, mild blunting of renal calyces
  5. into kidneys, ureter dilation, moderate/severe blunting of renal calyces
38
Q

in order to diagnose enuresis how often does it have to occur

A

2x week
3 consecutive months
a kid thats at least 5

39
Q

when do we use desmopressin in this lecture

A

treatment for monosymptomatic NE

40
Q

when do we use oxybutynin-ditropan in this lecture

A

daytime enuresis

41
Q
A