Trauma & Critical Care Flashcards

1
Q

Catecholamine response to injury is maximal at ___ (timeframe)

A

24-48 hours

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2
Q

Catecholamine response: see what other increased elements?

A

incr ADH; Incr ACtH (which incr cortisol and aldosterone)

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3
Q

Neck Zones; what else shares this way of classifying things?

A

I: below cricoid; II: cricoid to angle of jaw (most amenable to OR exploration); III: jaw to skull—
Remember 1 to 3; low to high (as with LeForte fx and embryology of PTH glands

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4
Q

1 cause of preventable blunt trauma death

A

missed intra-abdominal injury

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5
Q

DPL: preform ____ if + pelvic fx; __cc/kg infusion for peds. Positive if: ___cc frank blood, ____, ____, ___, ___, ____

A

supraumbilical; 10cc/kg infusion for peds; positive if: 10cc frank blood, food particles, bile, bacteria, >100,000 rbc/mm, 500 WBC/mm

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6
Q

Indications for thoracotomy for HTN (x 4)

A

instability; >1500cc out initially, >200 cc/hr x 4 hrs, incompletely drained hemothorax despite 2 good tubes

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7
Q

cardiac tamponade: hypotension due to _____. Tapped blood does or does not clot?

A

decreased diastolic filling; tapped blood does NOT clot

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8
Q

petechiae, hypoxia, confusion/agitation; sudan urine stain for fat

A

fat emboli

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9
Q

Diaphragm rupture from blunt trauma: On L or R? (ratio_; dx by waht imaing; rx?

A

8:1 on Left; dx by NGT in chest on CXR; rx= laparotomy

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10
Q

Diaphragm rupture delayed presentation, approach?

A

consider approaching via chest since there will be adhesions

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11
Q

Lose these s/p splenectomy: ___, _____, ____ and decreased ____

A

lose tuftsin, properidin, fibronectin (non-specific opsonins); decreased IgM production

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12
Q

Splenectomy help ___% of patients with hereditary spherocytosis; helps ___% with ITP

A

100% (helps anemia, jaundice remit); 80%

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13
Q

Low platelets, hemolytic anemia, neuro changes…. dx? Rx?

A

TTP; do NOT do splenectomy; rx= plasmapheresis

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14
Q

pulmonary compliance: change in ____ for a given change in ____

A

change in volume for a given change in pressure (want high compliance)

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15
Q

Compliance incr or decr in ARDS? why?

A

decr in ARDS, pulmonary edema (takes greater pressure to get same volume)

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16
Q

Aging reduces these pulmonary factors….

A

FEV1 and FVC

17
Q

O2 delivery

A

C.O. x O2 content= C.O. x Hgb x 13 x O2 sat

18
Q

O2 use

A

C.O. x (CaO2- CvO2)

19
Q

Initial rx for air embolus, then?

A

position to trendelenburg with L side down; can then attempt air aspiration via central line in RA

20
Q

PEEP, does what to pulmonary factors?

A

increased FRc, incr compliance, keeps alveoli open, rare PTx unless very high (Every year)

21
Q

FRC

A

air in lungs after normal exhalation

22
Q

inspiratory capacity

A

air breathed in from FRC

23
Q

vital capacity

A

greatest volume that can be exhaled

24
Q

Hgb: O2 dissociation with ____, ___, ___, ___; right or left shift? Provide or keep O2?

A

increase temp, co2, H+, 2,3 DPG (high altitude, babies)= “right shift” to provide o2

25
Q

EDRF= _____; made from _____ in ____ cells. Causes _____ via ____; increased in ____

A

nitric oxide, made from arginine in endothelial cells; vasodilatation via cGMP, increase in sepsis

26
Q

hydroflouric acid burns; rx with ______

A

topical calcium

27
Q

_____ falsely elevates the o2 sat. How? Rx?

A

carbon monoxide; it reduces available Hb; giving 100% o2 reduces T1/2 of CO from 5 hrs to 1 hr

28
Q

Slivadene: risk of ____; good activity against _____; poor _____

A

risk of neutropenia; good activity agasinst candid; poor eschar penetration

29
Q

_______: panful; acidosis due to carbonic anhydrase inhibition (less H2co3 ->H20 + CO2)

A

sulfamylon

30
Q

silver nitrate associated with ____ and ___ leading to ____-

A

hyponatremia and hypochloremia due to leeching of NaCl

31
Q

1 infection in burn patients

A

PNA

32
Q

Burn patients; how is their cardiac output initially then after?

A

initial drop in cardiac output; then are hyperdynamic

33
Q

______ (cancer) that develops in chronic wound from burn? what is disease?

A

SCCA; marfolin’s ulcer