TRANS - Training Guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What if not installed properly can result in
    loss of cabin pressure in flight?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-3)

A

Escape Hatch

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2
Q
  1. What is required before changing any
    electrical source?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-4)

A

Advise the crew

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3
Q
  1. What is required whenever power is applied to the aircraft?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-4)

A

One crewmember must be onboard at all times

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4
Q
  1. Failure to check all eight door locking pins
    showing white can result in what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-10)

A

Door opening inflight

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5
Q
  1. When are you required to have seatbelts
    adjusted and fastened?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-11)

A

While performing pilot/copilot duties and the aircraft is in motion

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6
Q
  1. Where should the operating engine’s throttle be for a generator assisted start of the second engine and why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (5-7)

A

Must be at IDLE

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7
Q
  1. What are the minimum voltage requirements for battery start of an engine? A
    GPU start?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-14)

A

Battery: 22 V

GPU: 28 V

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8
Q
  1. What are you required to do if any
    abnormal start indications occur prior to
    moving the associated throttle out of
    CUTOFF into IDLE?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-15)

A

Starter switch DISENGAGE

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9
Q
  1. During engine start, after placing the
    throttle to IDLE you experience a
    malfunction. What do you do? What is the starter ops limit and does it apply in this case?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-15, 5-7)

A

Place the throttle in CUTOFF, Ignition switch OFF, let the starter purge fuel for 15 sec

Ops Limits:
30 sec > 5 minutes
30 sec > 15 minutes
30 sec > 60 minutes

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10
Q
  1. During a battery start, when do you place the
    start selector to OFF? Why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-15)

A

Wait until engine has stabilized at idle.

Allows generator to reach full operating capacity

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11
Q
  1. When does the stick shaker activate during the Master Test System check of the stall warning system? Why does it activate twice at different AOAs?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-16)

A

0.4 - 0.5, 0.7

Testing of the altitude compensator

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12
Q
  1. What do you do if an anti-skid
    malfunction occurs with an associated loss
    of brakes? What if braking is not restored?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-19)

A

Anti-skid OFF, try braking from both sides.

If not restored use emergency brakes

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13
Q
  1. When should the anti-skid not be tested? How long will normal braking be
    unavailable after performing the test?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-19)

A

Do not test in CONGESTED areas

4 secs

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14
Q
  1. When must fuel crossfeed not be used? Why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-19)

A

Takeoff, Final Approach, Landing

Prevents dual engine flameout

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15
Q
  1. What must be briefed during the crew
    briefing before taking off?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-21,22)

A
  • Normal T/O
  • Emergency T/O and return
  • Departure procedures
  • Altimeter setting
  • Altitude preselect
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16
Q
  1. What is paramount that crewmembers are
    briefed on prior to flight?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-22)

A

Crewmember’s respective actions and responsibilities during flight ops

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17
Q
  1. The crew member occupying the jump seat
    will never do what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (4-1)

A

Never actuate:

  • flights controls
  • configuration controls
  • controls on shroud panel/instrument panel
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18
Q
  1. Pilots shall not exchange seat when?

TO 1T-1A-1 (4-2)

A

If there are only two pilots aboard

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19
Q
  1. All crew members will monitor UHF or
    VHF ATC communications in addition to
    interphone when?

TO 1T-1A-1 (4-3)

A

T/O
Descent
Landing

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20
Q
  1. What is the standard for Publications / Equipment / Special Clothing Requirements? What at a minimum must out of the pubs kit and readily available?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.27

A

Required flight crew
publications/equipment will be IAW AFI 11-2T-1V3.

Ensure DoD FLIP is current and contains coverage
for route of flight and potential divert options.

Clothing requirements will be IAW AFI 11-2T-
1V3_71OGSUP.

At a minimum, applicable enroute IFR/VFR charts, and approach plates will be out of the
pubs kit and readily accessible to the PF and PM.

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21
Q
  1. What specific publications, charts, and equipment does the AFI 11-2T-1V3 and the OG Sup to the Vol 3 require?

AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.1.2

A
  • Dash-1
  • Dash-1-1
  • Green Crew checklist
  • Fanfold checklist
  • Flight gloves
  • Suitable terrain charts
  • Life raft and life preservers if over water
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22
Q
  1. What is the standard for clearing?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.4

A

PF will fly the aircraft and may attempt to locate the target without sacrificing aircraft
control. PNF will note target clock-position and high/low and if it is a factor to the aircraft. If a jump seat
is on board, he/she will notify the crew when aircraft safety is in jeopardy by actively searching for traffic
while monitoring the TCAS display. Clearing on the radios will be accomplished by all crew members.

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23
Q
  1. What is the standard for Radio Procedures and Discipline?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.5

A

PNF will handle ATC radios to the maximum extent possible.

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24
Q
  1. How is the transfer of aircraft control accomplished while handflying? On autopilot? With inoperative intercom? (i.e. what is the standard for Transfer of Aircraft Control?)

3 FTS OI, 3.1.6, AFMAN11-247, 1.7

A

Handflying: “(Co)pilot you have the aircraft”

Autopilot: Ensure positive verbal transfer of who has the A/C and which flight director is controlling.

Intercom Inop: Shake to take/Push to pass. Show hands up once passed

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25
Q
  1. What is the standard for Simulated EPs?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.28

A

All simulated EPs will be executed IAW AFI 11-2T-1V3 and

this instruction with the IP introducing all EPs as “simulated.”

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26
Q
  1. What restrictions does the 11-2T-1V3 place on simulated EPs?

AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.15

A

Min Wx: 1,500 and 3

Do not practice simulated T/O, approach, or Ldg unless IP is sitting up front.

No SE go-around with 30 flaps

  • Brief all airborne simulated emergencies prior to execution. Compound or multiple simulated emergencies are prohibited.
  • Maintain clear of clouds when conducting simulated emergencies.
  • Do not initiate practice simulated engine failure below 500 feet AGL during takeoff or landing.
  • Do not fly VFR single-engine and no-flap patterns from the tactical pattern.
  • Discontinue simulated emergencies if intracockpit communications cannot be maintained.
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27
Q
  1. How is weight and balance calculated if 3 or less crew members are on board? What if there are more than 3 crew members? (i.e. what is the standard for Weight and Balance?)

3 FTS OI, A3.1.28 and 4.1.3.12

A

Canned Form F at step desk.

If more than 3, coordinate with SUP.

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28
Q
  1. What is the standard for Crew Duties (L/R)?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.13

A

Person performing the walk-around should also perform step “2. Cargo/passenger compartment (W) - Checked”

The pilot in the left seat will engage the autopilot while the pilot in the right seat checks their respective switches during step “17. Autopilot –
Checked/DISENGAGED” of the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION.

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29
Q
  1. What is the standard for Delays / Spares?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.14

A

Contact Liberty Ops

New weight and balance in black binder near jump

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30
Q
  1. What is the standard for Avionics Set-up?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.16

A

Abv/Blo, Relative, 10nm, TA/RA and test

Once PF flying acknowledges HDG or ALT, PM will set appropriate instrument

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31
Q
  1. What is the standard for Bird Strike?

3 FTS OI, A3.1.25

A
  • If on final > Land
  • Prior to S1 > abort
  • Once airborne > leave configuration, controllabilty check
  • Into engine > land as soon as possible
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32
Q
  1. At what weight is an aircraft classified as
    “heavy”? What must be done if you are taking off or landing behind a “large” or “heavy” aircraft/Boeing 757? Is there any way to mitigate this?

GP (2-3), TO 1T-1A-1 (2-22, 2-30)

A
  • Heavy = capable of T/O greater than 300,000 lbs
  • 2 minutes after large A/C or helos
  • 3 minutes behind 757 or heavy A/C
  • T/O prior to their rotation
  • Land after their touchdown
  • Xwinds more than 5 knots may reduce interval
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33
Q
  1. What format do we write the date in on the DD Form 1801 (item 18 (DOF/))

GP 4-28

A

Enter six-digit Date/Time group to indicate
UCT filing time of flight plan. The first two digits will show date of
month. The last four digits will show the time. Example: 211145

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34
Q
  1. How would you write 330KIAS on a DD Form 1801? Mach .78 (item 15)?

GP 4-25

A

N0330

M078

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35
Q
  1. How would you write 9000 MSL on a DD Form 1801? FL200 (item 15)?

GP 4-25

A

A090

F200

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36
Q
  1. The route of flight on the 1801 flight plan must contain at least one waypoint or NAVAID within the first ______ miles of each ARTCC.

GP 4-25

A

200 nm (or 30 minutes flying time)

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37
Q
  1. What are the FLIGHT RULES options on the DD Form 1801 (item 8)?

GP 4-22

A
I - If IFR 
Y - If IFR then VFR
V - If VFR 
Z - If VFR then IFR
If Y or Z is entered, specify in Item 15 where the Change of Flight Rules is planned.
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38
Q
  1. What are the wake turbulence categories and definitions on the DD Form 1801 (item 9)? What do we use for the T-1?

GP 4-23

A

H – Heavy – >300,000 lbs Max Gross Takeoff Weight

M – Medium – 15,501 – 299,999 lbs Max Gross Takeoff Weight

L – Light – 15,500 lbs or less Max Gross Takeoff Weight
T-1 uses category M

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39
Q
  1. How would you file the Anthony Two departure out of Vance on an 1801? MOTZA 7 arrival into KAFW?
A

JHK2
MOTZA7
No spaces, or periods

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40
Q
  1. When is an airspeed change required? How would you file the altitude and airspeed change from the Vance MOAs to Wichita via the standard routing?

GP 4-26

A

Cruising speed change of 5% TAS or .01 MACH (or greater)

Example: END286044/N0315A130 DCT ANY V12 ICT

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41
Q
  1. The hydraulic power supply system
    supplies hydraulic pressure to operate
    what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-68)

Memory device: FLAPS
F –
L – 
A – 
P – 
S –
A

Flaps
Gear
Brakes (Speed)
Brakes (Wheel)

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42
Q
  1. How many hydraulic pumps does the
    T-1A have, and what drives them? How many pumps are required to power the hydraulic system?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-68, 1-71)

A

2 pumps (engine-driven variable displacement pumps)

1 pump can drive the whole system

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43
Q
  1. Each hydraulic pump supplies what rate
    and psi of hydraulic fluid to it components?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-71)

A

0 gpm at 1500 psi and 3.9 gpm at 1400 psi

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44
Q
  1. The hydraulic reservoir’s capacity is? What PSI does it maintain?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-71)

A

1.2 gal

15 psi bleed air

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45
Q
  1. What are the hydraulic fluid shutoff
    valves and how are the actuated.

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-71, 1-77)

A

H/F VALVE SWITCH

Fire push lights

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46
Q
  1. What is normal hydraulic pressure? What pressure does the relief valve open? What pressure indicates failure of the relief valve? What should the pilot do if this happens?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-71)

A

1350 - 1550 psi, usually stabalizes at 1500

Pressure relief open at 1650

1850, then by HYD bypass switch

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47
Q
  1. When do the two hydraulic low pressure
    caution annunciators illuminate? What are the indicators labeled?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-77)

A

< 750 psi

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48
Q
  1. When does the low hydraulic fluid level
    caution annunciator illuminate? What are the indicators labeled?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-77)

A

< 0.6 gal

HYD LVL LO

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49
Q
  1. What can you expect in the event a
    hydraulic line were to rupture? Why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-71)

A

Complete loss of hydraulic fluid

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50
Q
  1. How many hydraulic fluid filters are there? What happens if one gets clogged? Is there a way for the pilot to know one has been clogged?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-71)

A

3, one after each pump and one for the reservoir.

No indication to pilot

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51
Q
  1. Does emergency extending your landing
    gear relieve all pressure in the hydraulic
    system? What closes the main landing gear doors? How many applications of the emergency brake are available after closing the main doors?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-80, 1-93, 1-94)

A

No

They system uses Nitrogen pressure

7-9

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52
Q
  1. How long does normal retraction and extension of the gear take? Emergency extension?

TO 1T-1A-1 1-85, 3-42

A

7 sec

30 sec

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53
Q
  1. If a flap or landing gear limitation is
    exceeded, the aircraft commander should
    suspect damage and not do what?
    TO 1T-1A-1 (5-1)
A

Dont change configuration unless necessary for safety of flight

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54
Q
  1. During normal operations, how does fuel flow from the tanks to the engines?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-41, 1-45, 1-48)

A

Fuel gravity feeds from the aft cabin tank to the aft fuselage tank into the mid tanks.

Two electric transfer pumps move fuel from the mids to the wing tanks.

Six flapper valves in each wing allow fuel to gravity feed from the outboard to the center to the inboard bays but prevent fuel from flowing outboard.

The fuel feed chambers receive fuel from their respective inboard bays via gravity, an aft transfer jet pump (receives motive flow from the primary jet pump), and a forward jet pump (receives motive flow whenever the boost pump is on).

Each fuel feed chamber provides fuel to its respective engine through the primary jet pump, which receives motive flow from the engine driven fuel pump (with the electric boost pump as required to maintain pressure).

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55
Q
  1. What pressure differential is required for
    the fuel filter bypass valve to open? What is the indication in the cockpit? What does this indicate?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-49)

A

2.3 ±0.2 psi

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56
Q
  1. What is the volume of fuel in the wing
    tanks under pressure refueling? Gravity
    refueling? How much fuel is available in the wing tanks? Why is this important to know?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-22)

A

Pressure—409 gal, gravity—423 gal

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57
Q
  1. What is the capacity of the fuel feed
    chamber?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-51)

A

~ 20 gal

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58
Q
  1. What are the three general types of fuel pumps are used in the T-1A? How many of each, what powers them, and where are they located?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-41, 1-42, 1-44)

A

Jet pumps

electric pumps for boost and transfer

engine driven pumps

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59
Q
  1. What are the four purposes of the boost
    pumps?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-41, 42)

A
  • Engine starting
  • Backup for primary jet pumps
  • Source of pressure for transfer jet pumps
  • Crossfeed
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60
Q
  1. When do the boost pumps automatically
    come on? In which cases must the boost pumps be reset?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-42)

A

Fuel feed line pressure < 5 psi, fuel feed drops below approx. 11 gal, engine starting, crossfeed

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61
Q
  1. When do the transfer pumps come on?
    What must be operating for the transfer
    pumps to be on?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-42)

A

Whenever there is fuel in mid tanks and an operating generator

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62
Q
  1. What are check valves used for in the
    fuel system?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-45)

A

Prevents backflow of fuel

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63
Q
  1. What causes the transfer pumps to turn off?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-42, 1-49)

A

In automatic mode, as fuel is exhausted in either mid tank, a combination of a float switch and the pressure going below 5.0±0.5 psi causes the transfer pump to automatically shut off.

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64
Q
  1. At what pressure does wing tank
    overpressure annunciator illuminate? What is the problem? What immediate action should be taken in flight?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-49, 3-17, 3-54)

A

Wing overpressure is annunciated at 3.5±0.5 psi with an amber legend, L or R WG TK OV PRESS. A wing tank overpressure condition indicates a malfunction of the wing fuel level control pilot valves, which in normal operation closes the shutoff valve to stop fuel flow. If in a climb or descent, maintain level flight.

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65
Q
  1. When does the fuel feed level low light
    annunciator illuminate?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-49, 1-51, 3-18, 3-54)

A

A float switch closes the respective annunciator circuit when approximately 70 pounds (11 gallons) of usable fuel remains in the fuel feed chamber.

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66
Q
  1. When does the L or R FUEL LEVEL LO light illuminate?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-50, 3-18, 3-54)

A

When the respective wing tank has 200 pounds (32 gallons) or less of useable fuel.

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67
Q
  1. When are the fuel level indicators
    unreliable? What happens if the indicator system fails? Why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-50)

A

(N) Fuel quantity indicators are unreliable at high angles of attack and/or any angles of side-slip. In the event of indicator system failure, both
gages’ dial pointers move off-scale to below the
zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition.
The separate pointer position for an inoperative
gage prevents misinterpretation of very low or
out-of-fuel indications.

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68
Q
  1. Will cross feeding supply fuel to both
    engines simultaneously?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-48) T

TO 1T-1A-1 (5-11)

A

Yes

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69
Q
  1. What type of power system is the primary
    source of power for the T-1A? How does the AC system receive power?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 53)

A

The dc power system is the primary source of power for most aircraft systems. It is also the power source for the inverters used in the ac power system.

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70
Q
  1. What type and how much power does
    each generator supply?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-53 )

A

The generators supply primary 28 VDC power for the dc power system.

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Perfectly
71
Q
  1. At what % N2 does the generator start
    acting like a generator?

TO1T-1A-1 (1-25)

A

35-40% N2 the starter/generator begins to operate as a generator

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72
Q
  1. When the power leaves the generator
    where does it go?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-53)

A

Power is distributed from each generator to
its respective LH and RH main bus, then to the LH and RH load bus. The main buses are paralleled through the LH BUS TIE and RH BUS TIE circuit breakers and supply power to the battery charge bus.

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73
Q
  1. What type of battery does the T-1A have? Where is it located?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-53)

A

24-volt, 40-ampere-hour lead-acid battery, located in the aft fuselage compartment,

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74
Q
  1. What are the three purposes of the battery?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-53)

A

It supplies secondary electrical power for ground operation, engine starting, and emergency
requirements.

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75
Q
  1. What is the sole purpose of the battery
    feeder protection unit?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-53)

A

The battery feeder protection unit detects a ground fault that may occur in the battery and external power feeder and ground lines.

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76
Q
  1. What is external DC power used for?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 58)

A

External dc power is used for ground engine starts, battery charging, and maintenance requiring electrical power.

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77
Q

blower and/or windshield heat at the same time as using electric heat with external ground power?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-58)

A

Operating these systems in combination while using the GPU causes an excessive amperage pull which could result in overheating the ground plug and receptacle.

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78
Q
  1. What provides ground fault protection?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-58)

A

(N) Ground fault protection is provided by the

battery protection circuits.

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79
Q
  1. What are some items on the standby bus? Where is the standby battery located?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-58)

A
The standby battery is located in the nose 
electronics compartment and supplies Standby Bus Power to (memory aid: CRUISSE):
• Copilot instrument lights
• RTU #1
• UHF radio
• No. 1 ITT indicator
• Standby attitude indicator
• Standby altimeter vibrator
• Electronic fuel control - start
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80
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the AHRS
    battery? Where is it located?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-58)

A

The AHRS auxiliary battery, mounted in the avionics rack, provides power to either/or both AHRS computers if either the left load bus and/or right load bus power fails.

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81
Q
  1. What keeps the standby battery charged?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-63)

A

The emergency bus supplies a charge current to the standby battery.

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82
Q
  1. What are some key items that are located on the Emergency Bus? (memory aid: SLEEVES)

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-62)

A
SLEEVES
• Select LH Engine Instruments (N1, N2)
• Landing Gear Position Indicators
• Emergency Pitch Trim and warning
• Emergency Smoke/Fire Detect &amp;    Extinguish (fire bell only not warning lights)
• VHF Navigation Radio #1
• Engine ignition and control (left engine)
• Standby Bus
Also, other good stuff
	Batt FDR Prot (Batt Cutoff)
	Flood Instruments
	Wing Anti-Ice System 1
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83
Q
  1. What supplies AC power on the T-1A?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-65)

A

AC power is supplied by two inverters located in the nose compartment.

84
Q
  1. What power is supplied by each inverter?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-64)

A

Two static inverters, NO.1 and NO.2, supply 115 and 26 vac, 400 Hz, single phase electrical power at an apparent power rating of 250 volt-amperes each.

85
Q
  1. What electrical component supplies power to each inverter?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-64)

A

The No.1 inverter is supplied 28 vdc electrical power from the left load bus and is remotely controlled by the NO.1 inverter control switch. The NO.2 inverter is supplied 28 vdc electrical power from the emergency bus or the right load bus.

86
Q
  1. What does “AC BUS SHED” indicate? What systems/components have been lost?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-66, 1-67, 3-20)

A

The #1 inverter has failed and the #2 inverter is being powered by the Emergency Bus (as opposed to the RH Load Bus). This will result in a loss of the flap position indicator and the both oil pressure indicators.

87
Q
  1. What components are dependent on the
    Pneumatic Power Supply System?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-80)

A
  • Engine inlet anti-ice
  • Wing anti-ice and shutoff valve
  • Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
  • Entrance door seal inflation
    Cabin pressurization and control
  • Environmental system (ACU)
88
Q
  1. The pressure regulator is preset to adjust bleed air pressure to what psi, and for what components?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-80)

A

15 +/- 1 psi

  • Entrance door seal
  • ejector
  • air conditioning temp control system
  • Hydraulic reservoir
89
Q
  1. What are the check valves installed for in the bleed air system?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-80)

A
  • Prevents bleed air from one engine from entering bleed air lines of the other engine
90
Q
  1. What systems control and operate the
    landing gear system?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-80)

A
  • Hydraulic system

- Electrical system

91
Q
  1. What are the three subsystems of the
    landing gear system?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-80)

A
  • Landing gear subsystem
  • Nosewheel steering subsystem
  • Brake subsystem
92
Q
  1. What prevents the landing gear from being
    raised while on the ground?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-85)

A
  • Ground safety switch (left wheel)
93
Q
  1. The landing gear extension takes
    approximately how many seconds?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 85)

A
  • 7 sec
94
Q
  1. During an emergency gear extension approximately how long does it take to get all the gear down and locked?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-85)

A
  • 30 sec
95
Q
  1. What action should one take to get the gear
    locked after a failed emergency gear
    extension?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-85)

A
  • Yaw the airplane by smoothly applying rudder
96
Q
  1. On the ground what will cause the landing
    gear warning tone to activate?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-86)

A
  • Throttles advanced to T/O power without trim being set for T/O
97
Q
  1. What would cause the landing gear
    warning tone to activate in the air?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 86)

A

Gear not down when:

  • Flaps 0 or 10 and throttles approx. 70% N2
  • Flaps beyond 10
98
Q
  1. During maximum deflection of rudder
    what degree is the nose wheel from center?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-91)

A

25 degrees each way

99
Q
  1. Is there any way to increase the nose wheel past full rudder deflection? How much?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 91)

A
  • Differential braking/power

additional 20 degrees per side

100
Q
  1. What are the three modes of braking operation?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-91)

A
  • Anti-skid
  • Power
  • Manual
101
Q
  1. What is the accumulator used for located just aft of the left main landing gear wheel well?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-91)

A
  • 900 +/- 50 psi of nitrogen used to stabilize hydraulic pressure fluctuations
102
Q
  1. During anti-skid operations, at what speed does the anti-skid become active?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-93)

A
  • Above 14 knots tire speed

When LDG:

  • Tire speed above 37 knots
  • ground safety switch activated for more than 2.5 sec
103
Q
  1. Why is it important not to land with the
    brakes applied?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-93)

A
  • Failure of touchdown protection circuit can result in blown tires, rwy departure, and damage to aircraft
104
Q
  1. Upon landing with the anti-skid ON
    when will you have anti-skid braking?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-93)

A

When LDG:

  • Tire speed above 37 knots
  • ground safety switch activated for more than 2.5 sec
105
Q
  1. Why is it important not to simultaneously
    use the emergency braking handle and the
    brake pedals?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-94)

A

Competing forces in the shuttle valve could lead to erratic braking or locked brakes

106
Q
  1. What is Runway Condition Reading (RCR)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-2)

A
RCR is a measure of tire-to-runway friction coefficient. RCR is given as a whole number. This value is used to define the braking characteristics for various runway surface conditions. The reported RCR is therefore a factor in determining any performance involving braking, such as critical engine failure speed and refusal speed.
RUNWAY		ICAO		RCR
CONDITION		REPORT
Dry 			Good		 23
Wet 			Medium 	 12
Icy 			Poor 		 05
107
Q
  1. What is Runway Surface Condition (RSC)? Why must we consider this in TOLD calculations?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-2,3)

A
RSC is the average depth covering the runway surface measured to 1/10 inch (1 inch is equivalent to a RSC of 10). RSC types are listed below:
WR 	Wet runway, standing water
SLR	Slush on runway
LSR 	Loose snow on runway
PSR 	Packed snow on runway
IR 	Ice on runway
The runway surface condition affects both the acceleration and stopping performance of the aircraft and must be accounted for when determining critical field length, critical
engine failure speed, and refusal speed.
108
Q
  1. What is Critical Field Length (CFL)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

The total length of runway required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure, then continue to lift-off or stop.
For a safe takeoff, the critical field length must be no greater than the runway available.

109
Q
  1. What is Critical Engine Failure Speed
    (Vcef)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

The speed at which one engine can fail and the same distance is required to either continue to accelerate to lift-off speed, or to abort and decelerate to a full stop.

110
Q
  1. What is Take-Off Ground Run?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

Take-off ground run distance is defined as that runway distance normally obtained in service operation at zero wind at the mission-specified weight, pressure altitude, thrust setting, ambient temperature, and appropriate take-off configuration using lift-off speed.

111
Q
  1. What is Minimum Control Speed Ground
    (VMCG)? What are the assumptions? What conditions may increase VMCG?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

VMCG (88 KIAS) is the minimum controllable speed during the take-off run, at which, when an engine is failed, it is possible to maintain directional control using only primary aerodynamic controls without deviating more than 25 feet laterally with all three wheels on the runway. The speed is established with the remaining engine at the take-off thrust setting, the aircraft loaded at the most unfavorable weight and center of gravity and the aircraft trimmed for takeoff, without exceeding 180 pounds of rudder control force by the pilot with the rudder boost system operating. Conditions of crosswind and RCR may increase VMCG.

112
Q
  1. What is Minimum Control Speed Air
    (VMCA)? What are the assumptions?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

VMCA (89 KIAS), is the minimum controllable speed in the take-off configuration out of ground effect with one engine inoperative and the remaining engine at take-off rated thrust. VMCA is determined at the most critical combination of asymmetric thrust, light weight, and aft center of gravity. The speed is established with the aircraft trimmed for takeoff, 5 degrees angle of bank into the operating engine and no more than 180 pounds of rudder control force by the pilot with the rudder boost system operating. VMCA is always less than take-off speed and is not considered in take-off planning.

113
Q
  1. What is Refusal Speed (VR)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

Refusal speed, VR, is the maximum speed that can be attained, with normal acceleration, from which a stop may be completed within the available runway length.

114
Q
  1. What is Maximum Braking Speed (VB)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

Maximum braking speed, is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum brake energy limit (14.8 Million Foot- Pounds Total).

115
Q
  1. What is a Take-Off Acceleration Check? Why is it done?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

A take-off acceleration check provides a speed for a given distance during take-off ground roll. This speed can be checked against aircraft indicated airspeed at that distance point to ensure that the takeoff is proceeding normally.

116
Q
  1. What is the maximum Take-off acceleration check speed?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

Take-off acceleration check speed should be adjusted to be at least 10 KIAS less than S1.

117
Q
  1. When should a Take-off acceleration check speed be computed? What variables are taken into account? What percentage of wind is used?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

Compute take-off acceleration check whenever S1 is less than VROT. Effects of wind, runway gradient, and RSC are included. 100% of runway wind component is used for take-off ground run determination.

118
Q
  1. What is Go/No-Go Speed?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3,4)

A

In take-off planning, S1 is equal to or greater than the higher of ground minimum control speed or critical engine failure speed. However, S1 must not be higher than the lowest of refusal speed, rotation speed, or maximum braking speed.
(VMCG, CEFS ≤ S1 ≤ VROT, VR, VB)

119
Q
  1. What is Rotation Speed (VROT)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-4)

A

Rotation speed is defined as the speed at which the aircraft attitude is increased from the ground run (taxi) attitude to the lift-off attitude. TO 1T-1A-1-1

120
Q
  1. What is Stall Speed (VS)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-4)

A

Stall speed is the higher of:

  1. The airspeed at which the aircraft will cease to fly due to the loss of aerodynamic lift during the application of slow smooth control inputs.
  2. The minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable
121
Q
  1. What is Climbout Speed (VCO)?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-4)

A

Climbout speed is the scheduled single-engine climbout speed and should be obtained at or prior to reaching the50-foot obstacle height.

122
Q
  1. For take-off planning how much headwind and tailwind is used?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-5)

A

Headwind: Benefits of headwinds are normally accepted as an increased margin of safety and not accounted for in take-off planning. However, if mission requirements dictate, use 50% of the steady headwind component when determining CFL, VCEF, VR, VB and take-off distances. Do not apply headwind components for terrain clearance.
Tailwind: Apply 150% of tailwind component to CFL, VCEF, VR, VB and take-off distances. Apply 150% of tailwind component for terrain clearance.
TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-5)

123
Q
  1. Explain the three different Take-Off cases
    as discussed in A3-7?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-7, 3-8)

A

Runway available greater than CFL:
With this condition refusal speed (VR) is always higher than the critical engine failure speed (VCEF). This is because refusal speed is based on the runway available, and critical engine failure speed is based on the critical field length required. When runway available is greater than critical field length, some reserve in runway length is provided whether the decision is to stop or continue.

Runway available equal to CFL:
When the runway available is equal to the critical field
Length, (figure A3-3), and an engine failure occurs at the refusal point, the distance to continue on one engine just equals the distance to stop. Note, therefore, that for this condition the critical engine failure speed and refusal speed are coincident. Ground minimum control speed has to be equal to or lower than critical engine failure speed to satisfy this condition (otherwise downloading would be required); S1 is therefore determined by VCEF.

In this condition there is a region just past the refusal point where, if an engine fails, it is not possible to either stop or continue the take-off within the remaining runway (figure
A3-5). Note that it is impossible to select a speed for S1. It is recommended that the aircraft be downloaded until the corresponding critical field length is at least equal to the runway available.

124
Q
  1. What does it mean to you when the refusal speed is less than rotate speed? What do you need to do?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-3)

A

When VR is less than VROT, it becomes S1, thus giving us “Split Markers.” Therefore, compute take-off acceleration check whenever S1 is less than VROT. Effects of wind, runway gradient, and RSC are included in the take-off ground run. Use 100% of runway wind component for take-off ground run determination.

125
Q
  1. Have students demonstrate how to ensure
    the aircraft can/or cannot clear a low close
    in obstacle:

Conditions:
PA: 5500’ Temp: 25*C GW: 15,000 lbs

NOTAM: 250’AGL/5604’ MSL crane placed 5,000’ from departure end of Rwy 3.

What kind of climb out factor is required to clear the crane?
Distance to obstacle is 5000ft

Would a 10F-ACM ON work? 10F-ACM OFF? 0F-ACM ON work? 0F-ACM OFF?
So, how could we make this work? What type of takeoff will you make?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3 figures)

A

Conditions:
PA: 5500’ Temp: 25*C GW: 15,000 lbs

NOTAM: 250’AGL/5604’ MSL crane placed 5,000’ from departure end of Rwy 3.

What kind of climb out factor is required to clear the crane?
Distance to obstacle is 5000ft
A: 10* requires 5.5 COF / 0* requires 5.9 COF
This is pretty unachievable so we use distance from ref 0 (~7500)
10* requires 3.7 COF / 0* requires 3.9 COF
So, looking at our Actual Climbout Factors:
Distance to obstacle is ~7500ft:
A: 10* ACM on 2.4 / 10* ACM off 2.7
0* ACM on 3.3 / 0* ACM off 3.7

Would a 10F-ACM ON work? 10F-ACM OFF? 0F-ACM ON work? 0F-ACM OFF?
So, how could we make this work? What type of takeoff will you make?
A: Even with flaps 0 and ACM off we are unable to meet the requirements to clear this obstacle. We would have to burn gas to reduce weight or wait for environmental conditions to improve.

126
Q
  1. Have students demonstrate a Trouble T
    calculation using these variables:
    PA: 5500’ Temp: 25*C GW: 15,000 lbs
    So, can we still takeoff?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A3-figures)
.

A

Even using Flaps 0 and ACM off we can only achieve a climb gradient of ~221’ per NM. However our Ref 0 is at 7521’. This allows us to use the option of standard takeoff mins and a 200’ per NM climb gradient since our takeoff occurs greater than 1900’ prior to the DER (2479’).

127
Q
  1. Draw and explain the T-1 hydraulic system from memory.
A

DRAW

128
Q
  1. What is the only exception to using anti-ice/
    deice systems to deice the aircraft?

TO 1T-1A-1 (7-8)

A

(W) With the exception of window heat, do not use aircraft anti/deice systems to deice the aircraft
prior to flight.

129
Q
  1. During cold weather starts, oil pressure
    may temporarily exceed maximum limits
    until what? What’s the limit?

TO 1T-1A-1 (7-11)

A

Until the oil temperature warms sufficiently to give normal indications. 83-95psi for 90sec.

130
Q
  1. An external power unit is required for
    engine start at ambient temperatures
    below_____?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-14)

A

(C) 5 °F (-15 °C).

131
Q
  1. What type of taxi interval shall be used when taxiing when snow and/or ice are present?

AFI 11-2T-1V3 (3.2.3)

A

Increase taxi interval to 300 ft when snow and/or ice are present and avoid high power settings to avoid throwing snow/slush on other aircraft

132
Q
  1. In what position are the flaps placed when
    taxiing through ice and snow? Why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-18)

A

(W) Leave the flaps retracted until approaching the runway to avoid accumulation of ice being cast
off from the tires.

133
Q
  1. Under what conditions must engine anti-ice be on during taxi and takeoff? Why? What is the max temperature to operate the engine anti-ice? What constitutes visible moisture?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-16), TO 1T-1A-1S-40 (7-8)

A

(C) In visible moisture at an OAT/SAT of 5 °C or colder. Engine anti-ice prevents ice buildup
while engines are running. Except for preflight
check, do not operate system during ground
operations at temperatures above 10 °C OAT/
SAT. Visible moisture is defined as clouds, rain, snow, or fog.

134
Q
  1. What anti-ice systems can be on for takeoff?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-22, 5-11)

A

Windshield heat on low and engine anti-ice

135
Q
  1. If actual icing is encountered during
    flight, no greater than 10 degrees of flaps
    may be utilized for landing unless what conditions are met?

TO 1T-1A-1 (7-10)

A

The icing conditions were encountered for less than 10 minutes, and the RAT during such encounter was warmer than -8 °C.
OR
A RAT of +10 °C or warmer is observed during the descent, approach, or landing.

If either of the above two conditions are met, 30
degrees flaps may be utilized for landing.
(Memory device: 10, 10, 8, 10)

136
Q
  1. Activating the wing anti-ice system with
    significant wing ice accumulation could
    result in what? How does the INADVERTANT ICING ENCOUNTER checklist attempt to mitigate this problem?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-145, 3-52)

A

Engine ice ingestion with resultant blade damage and possible engine flameout. The checklist calls for turning on the L engine anti-ice, then horizontal stab, then the wing anti-ice, then (after ~1 min) turning on the R engine anti-ice.

137
Q
  1. The horizontal stab anti-ice and deice systems must operate together if either one should fail what must be done?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-152)

A

Both must be turned off.

138
Q
  1. How do you place the windshield rain
    removal system in PARK?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-157)

A

(C) Do not go directly from ON to PARK. Switch should be moved from ON to OFF, then to PARK.

139
Q
  1. Ice has accumulated to 1.5”. What appch speeds should you fly? What if ice is <1.5”?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-42)

A

Fly Vapp +35. If <1.5”, you can fly slower if no buffet is experienced at the chosen speed.

140
Q
  1. If flight in icing conditions cannot be
    avoided refer what procedure?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-51)

A

(N) The Landing With Ice Accumulation On The Wings procedure.

141
Q
  1. Flight in visible moisture without pitot
    heat may result in what characteristics, and to what instruments?.

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-52)

A

(W) Erratic operation or failure of the following systems: Mach/airspeed indicator, RALT/VSI and altimeters.

142
Q
  1. What causes the wing ICE TEMP LO annunciator to illuminate? How many overtemperature switches are in each wing and at what temperature do they illuminate?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-150)

A

ICE TEMP LO: <140 degrees F
There are three overtemperature switches in each wing. One closes at 350 and the other two at 212 degrees F (memory aid: bake a cake at 350, boil water at 212). This causes the WING OV HT warning annunciator to illuminate.

143
Q
  1. When should ignition and anti-ice systems be utilized en route?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-27)

A

(C) Activate the engine ignition and anti-ice systems at high altitude whenever in or near visible moisture or convective storm activity, or before power reduction in the same meteorological conditions

144
Q
  1. What restrictions apply to flying the T-1 in actual icing conditions? What should you do if you encounter those conditions and they were not forecasted? Why these restrictions?

AFI 11-2T-1V3 (3.7.1.1, 3.7.1.2)
3 FTS OI 11-1 (4.4.4.2)

A

Do not fly in areas of forecast or reported severe icing, freezing rain, or freezing drizzle. Notify appropriate weather personnel or ATC. Do not cruise or conduct multiple pattern operations in actual moderate icing conditions. Do not fly multiple patterns when actual icing is encountered during the gear down portion of an approach. Unsafe gear indications and subsequent sequencing malfunctions have occurred during gear retraction after executing an approach in light or trace icing.

145
Q
  1. When is the earliest that I can turn on my wing anti-ice during takeoff, with known icing?

3 FTS OI 11-1 (4.4.4.2)

A

For take-off or multiple pattern operations, wing anti-ice will not be activated until deconfiguration altitude (400’ or 1,500’ AGL). When forecast or actual icing is anticipated below 1,500’ AGL, the deconfiguration altitude must be 400’ AGL. When forecast or actual icing is anticipated below 400 ft AGL, 3 FTS/DO approval is required.

146
Q
  1. Draw and explain the T-1 fuel system from memory
A

DRAW

147
Q
  1. Given the following conditions what is your reference groundspeed (RGS)? What is the sheer and is it a gain or loss? What speed should you fly the appch? How should you fly the appch if able?

Conditions: You are landing 17C. Your computed appch speed is 110 and the PA at the field is 1000’MSL. It is 20C at the field. Winds are 170/10 at the field. Your actual groundspeed (AGS) at the FAF is 80kts.

TO 1T-1A-1 (7-5)
T-1 IFG (3-73)

A

There are several steps:
1. Determine Approach True Airspeed
VAPP (True) = VAPP +/- correction (from IFG chart)
VAPP (True) = 110 + 4 = 114 kts
2. Determine Reference Groundspeed (RGS)
RGS = VAPP (True) +/- winds
RGS = 114 – 10 = 104
3. Compare actual groundspeed (AGS) to RGS no later than the FAF
Decreasing Headwind (Loss Shear) AGS < RGS
Decreasing Tailwind (Gain Shear) AGS > RGS
AGS (80) < RGS (104) so a Decreasing Headwind
4. Difference of 15 knots or more?
Yes, the shear is 24 kts, which is greater than 15
Select longest runway available, 10 flap if possible, use flight director or autopilot. If the approach is not stabilized by 1000’ AGL abort the approach.
If Decreasing Headwind (Loss Shear) increase airspeed to match AGS and RGS
Fly so that my AGS is 104 all the way to runway

148
Q
  1. What is the Windshear Recovery procedure?

TO 1T-1A-1 (7-5)

A

Immediately apply full power. Do not hesitate to “firewall” the throttles in lieu of ground impact. Rotate towards 15 degrees pitch attitude at normal pitch rate. Increase angle of attack to stick shaker. If at 30 degrees flaps, select 10 flaps. Do not raise the landing gear until continued flight without ground contact is assured.

149
Q
  1. BAK 9, BAK 12, or BAK 13 arresting
    cable taxi limits. Takeoff/LDG?

TO 1T-1A-1 (5-9)

A

Avoid nose wheel contact with support donuts. Taxi over cable with main gear no faster than 5 kts.

Takeoff and land PAST the cables. If contact is made, the pilot should suspect structural damage.

150
Q
  1. How effective are speed brakes?

TO 1T-1A-1 (6-4)

A

(N) The speed brakes provide minimal deceleration at high speeds. Do not delay dive pullout for speed brake extension.

151
Q
  1. Stall recovery should be flown close to the stick shaker or what may happen?

TO 1T-1A-1 (6-7)

A

Excessive altitude may be lost.

152
Q
  1. Intentional spins in this aircraft are what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (6-7)

A

(W) Intentional spins in this aircraft are prohibited.

153
Q
  1. At night, in flying through volcanic dust, St. Elmo’s fire/static discharges may be observed around what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (7-14)

A

Around the windshield accompanied by a bright orange glow in the engine inlets.

154
Q
  1. Binding throttles may be an indication of
    what? What do you do if throttle linkage breaks?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-19)

A

(C) Impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority.

If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at a high power setting, shut down theengine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the Engine Shutdown
During Flight checklist in Section III.

155
Q
  1. When must the EFCs be on?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-21 )

A

When the engines are running unless indications of a malfunction exist.

156
Q
  1. Hung Start: What should we do with the throttles and why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-29)

A

Do not advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased fuel flow without normal RPM indications could result in engine overtemperature.

157
Q
  1. Fuel System CB restrictions? Why?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-35)

A

(W) Do not reset a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system. A short circuit and accompanying arcing in an enclosed fuel cell could result in an
explosion.

158
Q
13. If the transfer pump operation light
remains illuminated with either L or R
XFER PRESS LO illuminated, and the
switch is in AUTO, what do you need to
do?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 43, 3-18)

A

Pull the LH or RH TRANS PUMP circuit

breaker to avoid transfer pump damage.

159
Q
  1. Use of the engine fire switchlights to close
    the fuel valve will also do what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-49)

A

Close the hydraulic valves.

160
Q
  1. If the 26 vac primary shed bus is lost, what
    is not available?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 96)

A

(N) If the 26 vac primary shed bus is lost, flap

asymmetric detection is not available.

161
Q
  1. Failure to set the proper AOA value may
    cause what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-100)

A

Erroneous on-speed indication.

162
Q
  1. TCAS does not relieve pilots of what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-345)

A

(N) TCAS does not relieve the pilots of their
responsibility to see and avoid by maintaining
an outside vigilance.

163
Q
  1. An RA occurs. Following a TCAS “CLEAR OF CONFLICT” advisory the pilot should do
    what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-348)

A

Expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.

164
Q
  1. What could failure to set the decision
    height properly in the radio altimeter do?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 359)

A

Nuisance warnings from the GPWS.

165
Q
  1. The audible warning “TOO LOW FLAPS”
    is not activated when?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-389)

A

When in the approach or landing configuration with 30° of flaps selected.

166
Q
  1. When do you hear “Minimums, Minimums” from GPWS? “Altitude”? “Terrain”?
    “Don’t sink”?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-390, 1-393, 1-397, 1-398)

A

“Minimums, Minimums” – occurs when descent below DH set on RALT and in normal GPWS mode.
“Altitude” – occurs when in the tactical mode, the warning is heard when 48-55 feet below the DH set in the RALT (used on LL).
“Terrain” or “Too Low, Terrain” – occurs when there is excessive closure to terrain
“Don’t sink” - after takeoff and the plane is not climbing away from ground sufficiently.

167
Q
  1. To prevent overheating when should the
    landing lights be extinguished?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-401)

A

(C) To prevent damage due to overheating, landing lights should be extinguished as soon as landing and taxiing requirements have been met.

168
Q
  1. In regards to the oxygen system a
    temperature drop of 100 degrees F will
    reduce oxygen pressure how much? What should you do if px drops in flight?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1- 411)

A

20 percent. If the pressure begins to drop while

the aircraft is in level flight or descending, an oxygen leak should be suspected.

169
Q
  1. When are you not allowed to be
    occupying the commode seat?

TO 1T-1A-1 (1-412)

A

Takeoff and landing.

170
Q
  1. What is the minimum runway length for touch-and-go’s?

AFI 11-2T-1V3 (3.3.6.3)

A

The minimum usable runway length for touch-and-go landings must be equal to or greater than the applicable touch-and-go distance but never less than 6,000 feet.

171
Q
  1. What is the max temperature for touch-and-go’s? What limitations apply?

AFI 11-2T-1V3 (3.3.6.3.1)

A

42* C. Touch-and-go’s above 40* are restricted to 30 and 10-flap only and require:

  • The aircraft commander to ensure the required climb gradient is met
  • Aircraft gross weight is 14,000 pounds or less
  • Field pressure altitude is 3,000’ or less
  • Runway is dry
  • The shortest of TORA, ASDA, or LDA is >9,000’
172
Q
  1. Draw and explain the T-1 electrical system from memory.
A

DRAW

173
Q
  1. After starting engines, the crew chief states you have a tailpipe fire. Shortly after that you get a LH ENG FIRE PUSH annunciator. What do you suspect?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-4)

A

(W) If the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH annunciator illuminates, the fire has spread beyond the tailpipe. Accomplish the Engine Fire During-
Ground Operations checklist.

174
Q
  1. How many feet is the emergency escape
    hatch above the ground with the gear
    extended?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-5)

A

(W) 4.5 feet.

175
Q
  1. While executing an abort in what position should the yoke be? Why? T

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-9)

A

The neutral position in order to maintain weight on the main wheels and assist braking efficiency.

176
Q
  1. What could happen if you retract the gear with a known blown tire?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-10)

A

(W) Possible damage to the wheel well area could occur.

177
Q
  1. In the event of an engine failure after
    takeoff, explain the role of lateral trim vs using lateral control inputs (spoilers).

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-10)

A

(W) It is essential to trim the aircraft laterally using the roll trim tabs if single-engine climb gradients are to be met for the climb to altitude after flap retraction. Holding any lateral control input will significantly degrade single-engine climb, cruise, and acceleration performance.

178
Q
  1. Securing an engine should not be accomplished prior to:

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-10)

A

Reaching 400 feet AGL, and clear of obstructions.

179
Q
  1. During a single engine approach, maintain a
    final approach speed of what for an autopilot
    coupled approach?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-14)

A

(N) Maintain a final approach speed of VAPP +5

KIAS for autopilot coupled approach.

180
Q
  1. Explain the various Single Engine climbout scenarios from Section 3:
    - ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF (1500’ profile)
    - ENGINE FIRE DURING TAKEOFF
    - SE GO-AROUND

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-10, 3-11, 3-32, 3-33)

A

ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF (1500’ profile): VCO (or present speed if greater) until 1500’, VCO + 10 flaps up, VCO + 15 & set MCT until 2200’ or pattern alt, then 170 KIAS.

ENGINE FIRE TAKEOFF (use single eng speeds, 2-eng schedule): VCO (or present speed if greater) until 400’ (both engines producing thrust), VCO +10 flaps up, VCO +15 set MCT until 2200’ or pattern alt, 170 KIAS.

SEGO: Flaps 10, set power (N1GO). VREF +10 until 400’. VREF +20 flaps up. VREF +22 until 2200’ or pattern alt, then 170 KIAS.

181
Q
  1. If the boost pumps begin operation while in
    the automatic mode for no apparent reason you should do what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-17)

A

(C) Leave the switches in the AUTO mode and land as soon as practical.

182
Q
  1. What are the two possibilities if you try to match the throttles with an EFC off?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-17)

A

Matching the throttles may either:

  • Cause overboosting of the other engine
  • Yield less than charted %N1 for the EFC off engine.
183
Q
  1. A BUS FDR CB is popped. What should I do?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-20)

A

(C) Do not reset popped BUS FDR circuit breakers.

184
Q
  1. What do you do if any trim axis is disabled as far as landing is concerned: practical or possible?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-23)

A

Land as soon as practical.

185
Q
  1. What position does the pitch trim selector switch have to be in to engage the autopilot?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-23)

A

Normal

186
Q
  1. What do you do if the AP Pitch Trim Fail or AP Roll Trim Fail annunciator next to the EFIS warning light illuminates? What does that light mean?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-23)

A

Disconnect the A/P and be ready for out-of-trim forces. It means the A/P trim follow-up function of the autopilot is failed.

187
Q
  1. If aircrew suspects a binding control
    surface, what should the crew do first?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-23)

A

(N) Visually ensure that the autopilot switch is

disengaged.

188
Q
  1. If an asymmetric flap condition cannot be
    corrected, land using what kind of approach?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-26)

A

(N) If the asymmetric condition cannot be corrected and conditions permit, land from a straight-in approach.

189
Q
  1. With the speedbrakes stuck extended, what type flap landing should you do?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-27)

A

(C) No greater than 10 degrees.

190
Q
  1. Prolonged use of emergency pressurization can result in what?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3- 28)

A

(W) Melting of aircraft trim panels near the rear bulkhead and potential smoke and fumes in the cockpit.

191
Q
  1. Do not attempt an actual single-engine
    go-around after doing what with your flaps?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-32)

A

(W) Do not attempt an actual single-engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30 degrees.

192
Q
  1. You are about to takeoff and the runway is called wet. How will this affect your TOLD?
Conditions:
Gross weight: 15,000 lb
Pressure Alt: 1500’
Temp: 28*C
Wind: 10 kts headwind
Runway available: 8,000’
Required climb gradient: std up to 6,800’ MSL

T-1 IFG (3-13)
TO 1T-1A-CL-1 (P-18, P-32)

A
  • 0 flap, ACM-on takeoff required
  • Climb up to 6,800’ MSL at 200’/NM is possible (1,500 + 5,600 = 7,100 MSL)
  • Split markers (VR = 111 < VROT = 117)
  • Acceleration check required:
    • TOGR = 3,395’
    • Corrected for 10 kts wind = 3,190’
    • Liftoff speed = VROT + 3 KIAS = 120
    • At 80 KIAS, acft should be 1,300’ down
193
Q
  1. If icing is forecasted, how will this affect climbout performance? How do you determine how much of a penalty is required?

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A-2-4, A3-14A, A3-16A)

A

The anti-ice penalty assumes engine anti-ice until “level-off” (deconfiguration alt) and engine and wing anti-ice for the rest of the climbout. If:
Icing >1500’ AGL, use 400’ or 1500’ profile
Icing <1500’ AGL, use 400’ profile
Icing <1500’ & obstacle >400’, cannot takeoff
Icing <400’, DO approval required

If target fan speed is not limited by the engine anti-ice (on) line through 400’/1500’, decrease the climbout factor by 0.14/0.17 respectively. If target fan speed is limited, decrease COF by 2.0.

194
Q
  1. You are taking off from KEND and icing is reported at 700’ AGL. What kind of profile should be flown? What is your new climbout factor?
Conditions:
Gross weight: 15,500 lb
Pressure Alt: 1,100’
Temp/Dew Pt: 2/-8*C
Winds: 130/10
Vis: 4 NM
Clouds: 700’ OVC
RCR: Wet

TO 1T-1A-1-1 (A-2-4, A3-14, A3-14A)

A

Fly a 400’, 10-flap, ACM on departure. COF factor is 5.4 but 0.14 must be subtracted for engine anti-ice on.

195
Q
  1. What is delayed braking? Why is it used? When is the latest that braking should begin during an abort? During a touch-and-go or full stop landing? What should you do if any doubt exists that you will be able to stop in the confines of the runway?

AFI 11-2T-1V3 (3.3.15)

A

Delayed braking is the time and/or distance between aircraft touchdown and brake application (or between initiating an abort and brake application). Delayed braking reduces brake energy. During an abort, do not delay braking if the runway remaining is less than RCR-corrected CFL. During a touch-and-go or full stop landing, do not delay braking when runway remaining is less than RCR-corrected landing distance. If any doubt exists as to whether the aircraft will stop in the confines of the runway, immediately apply maximum braking until the aircraft has slowed to a safe taxi speed.

196
Q
  1. What TOLD comparisons should I consider when departing a field?
A
  • The runway available vs. my reference zero
  • Any required climb gradient vs. my climb gradient - Any required climb gradient to clear low close-in obstacles vs. my climbout factor
197
Q
  1. What are you required to do if any
    abnormal start indications occur prior to
    moving the associated throttle out of
    CUTOFF into IDLE?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-15)

A

(C) Immediately abort the start by pressing

the PUSH to DISENG button.

198
Q
  1. During engine start, after placing the
    throttle to IDLE you experience a
    malfunction. What do you do? What is the starter ops limit and does it apply in this case?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-15, 5-7)

A

(C) Immediately abort the start by placing the throttle to CUTOFF, placing ignition switch to OFF position, and allowing the starter to continue to turn the engine for 15 seconds to purge fuel, then press
the start disengage button. Motoring of the engine with the starter is limited to three 30-second cycles. The 30 second starter ops limit does apply.

199
Q
  1. What actions must I take if no starter dropout by 45%? What is the danger?

TO 1T-1A-1 (2-15)

A

(C) Press the starter disengage button. If the yellow start button and white disengage button do not extinguish, place throttles to CUTOFF, turn OFF battery, and turn both master generator switches to EMER. This is to avoid overspeeding the starter and possible starter/generator fire.

200
Q
  1. What do I do for a tailpipe fire during ground ops? Why? What if corrective actions do not work?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-4)

A
  1. Throttles – CUTOFF (P)
  2. Engine start select switch – As required (P) (pick the affected side)
  3. Engine start button – Push (P)
    Motoring the engine will normally blow out excess fuel and prevent the fire from spreading.
    IF FIRE DOES NOT EXTINGUISH:
  4. Accomplish Emergency Ground Egress
201
Q
  1. What are the steps of emergency ground egress? Do all items have to be performed?

TO 1T-1A-1 (3-4, 3-5)

A
  1. Crew and passengers – Advise (P)
  2. Throttles – CUTOFF (P)
  3. Parking brake – as required (P) (if hot brakes are suspected, do not set the parking brake)
  4. Oxygen system ready – Push (CP)
  5. Ground agency – Notify (PM)
  6. Batteries (2) – OFF (P/CP)
  7. Evacuate aircraft (ALL)
    (W) Do not endanger the crew and passengers in an attempt to accomplish all items of this checklist. Primary consideration should be given to safely evacuating the aircraft.
202
Q
  1. What is the basic flow for a tabletop EP?
A
  1. MATL
  2. BF
  3. Clean up BF Checklists
  4. Emergency Checklists
  5. Normal Checklists
  6. Pink Pages (IFG)
  7. Declare
  8. Inform SOF
    (Gameplan should be getting formulated somewhere between accomplishing the BF and finishing the emergency checklists)
203
Q
  1. The crewmember in the left seat will be
    referred as __________ during interphone
    operations.

TO 1T-1A-1 (4-1)

A

Pilot

204
Q
  1. Roughly explain the responsibilities of the Aircraft Commander as stated in the -1.

TO 1T-1A-1 (4-1)

A

.

205
Q
  1. Verbal coordination between the pilot
    flying the aircraft and the applicable crew member will be required when?

TO 1T-1A-1 (4-2)

A

.