AFM 11-247 Flashcards
Since the T-1A instruments are self-testing, a check of the heading system during taxi and runway alignment is not required.
FALSE
[1. General Information]
An instrument cockpit check (as outlined in AFMAN 11-217) is not required prior to takeoff in the T-1.
TRUE
An instrument cockpit check is not required prior to takeoff in the T-1.
TRUE
[1. General Information]
When can you perform after landing checks.
Clear of the active runway
[1. General Information]
After landing checks cannot be performed until A. You are below 100 knots. B. You are at a safe taxi speed. C. Clear of the active runway. D. You have reached the parallel taxiway.
C
[1. General Information]
Before takeoff, the PF sets the airspeed marker on _____, the PNF sets _____, and they both memorize ____ if different than S1.
Vco, S1, Vrot
[1. General Information]
Before takeoff, the PF sets the airspeed marker on ____, the PNF sets ____, and they both memorize ____ if different than S1.
Vco, S1, Vrot
[1. General Information]
An IFR clearance will guarantee separation from other aircraft and relieves the pilot of the responsibility to clear.
FALSE
[1. General Information]
The primary references for area orientation is/are
A. Local area charts.
B. Area landmarks.
C. Navaids (“pie in the sky”)
D. A and B
E. A and C
D
[1. General Information]
What should be your initial pitch on a takeoff or touch-and-go.
13 to 15 degrees
[1. General Information]
The PNF may accomplish checklists in a congested area.
FALSE
[1. General Information]
The PNF will announce or verbalize all checklist items and ensure correct procedures are followed for that particluar step.
TRUE
[1. General Information]
If you transfer aircraft control with the autopilot on you must turn it off before you transfer control.
FALSE
[1. General Information]
During a static takeoff, the throttles should be set to ____ to check engine instruments.
80%N1
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
During a static takeoff, the throttles should be set to ____ to check engine instruments. A. 60% N1
B. 80% N1
C. 60% N2
D. 80% N2
B
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
During takeoff, the PNF should adjust the N1 speed to TRT prior to reaching ____ KIAS.
60
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
During takeoff, the airspeed indicator should be checked passing _____ KIAS
80
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
Passing ____ feet(1500 feet if required) above ground level with a minimum airspeed of ______ KIAS call for flaps up.
400, Vco+10
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
On a takeoff after retracting flaps, what should your pitch be set to.
10 degrees
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
MCT should be reset (approximately) every ______ feet during the climb.
5000
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
Fill in the blanks; _____ KIAS for two-engine rate climbs. _____ KIAS for two-engine range climbs.
_____ KIAS for one-engine climbs.
220, 250, 170
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
What defines a postive rate of climb for gear retraction after takeoff.
VSI and altimeter or outside references (when available) show a climb
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
As a technique, increase power form idle to TRT in approximately _______ seconds to avoid any chance of compressor stall or overspeed.
1 to 3
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
During a rolling takeoff you have to stop the throttles at 80%N1 to check them before setting TRT.
FALSE
[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]
During low speed flight (I.e. in the pattern) when power is changed from IDLE to go-aroung N1, there is an initial nose up/down tendency due to the high mounted engines.
down
[3. Transition]
In order to maintain airspeed during a level turn you must increase ____ and _____.
power;back pressure
[3. Transition]
Use _____ degrees AOB for turns that are greater than 30 degrees heading change.
30
[3. Transition]
Fill in the blank: The recommend roll out is ______ for a 30 degree AOB turn and ______ for a 45 degree AOB turn
5;10
[3. Transition]
What airspeed do we normal practice steep turns at.
160, 200, and 230
[3. Transition]
List the five things that you accomplished before starting TP stalls and slow flight.
Yaw damper OFF, AOA to 1.3, MCT posted, approach speed posted, CLEAR!
[3. Transition]
On a TP stall, what airspeed do you raise the flaps from 10 to zero.
Vref + 20
[3. Transition]
What is slow flight airspeed.
Vapp - 5 knots
[3. Transition]
What is a normal AOA recovery for a TP stall
0.8 to 0.85
[3. Transition]
Standard VASIs have a ______degree glide slope and a glidepath intercept point ____the runway theshold. Nonstardard VASIs have a ______degree glide slope and a glidepath intercept point ____ the runway threshold.
2.5 to 3.0; 750 feet beyond 3.5 ; 450 short
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
On a normal VFR pattern attempt to arrive ____ from the runway at approximately _____ feet AGL.
1 mile; 300 feet
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
Maintain minimum airspeed of _____ during the final turn of a closed patter until you no longer requried more than 15 degrees of bank.
Vapp + 10
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
The normal landing zone for the T-1 is between ____ and _____ feet down the runway.
500 to 2000
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
Consider landing with ______ degree flaps in strong crosswinds or gusty wind conditions.
10
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
No flap landings are ensured ______ (earlier/later) than a 30 flap landing.
earlier
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
If multiple touch-and-go landings are being conducted, the crew will recompute Vapp for each _______ pound change in weight.
500
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
If touchdown is imminent, after starting a go-around, discontinue the go-around and accomplish a touch-and-go.
FALSE
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
What pitch should use use for a normal go-around and a single-engine go-around.
13-15 for normal; 10 for single-engine.
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
The best remedy for a porpoise is an immediate go-around.
TRUE
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
The chances of ballooning during a landing are greatest with a 30 flap setting.
FALSE
[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]
In terms of checking exterior lighting, at home station, the crew chiefs will check the exterior lighting in accordance with required inspections (PR/BPO,TH)
TRUE
[5. Night Flying]
The gloves make a good make shift rag that should be used to clean dust off the instrument panels
FALSE
[5. Night Flying]
At night, lighted objects often appear closer than they actually are.
TRUE
[5. Night Flying]
Taxi staggered at night
FALSE
[5. Night Flying]
At bases other than home field, glidepath guidance must be available and monitored during night VFR pattern operations.
TRUE
[5. Night Flying]
All the following constitue acceptable glidepath guidance for VFR patterns at night except. VASI PAR ILS FLOLS
PAR
[5. Night Flying]
Can you fly a nonprecision approach at night without glidepath guicance.
yes, as long as you do not decend below the MDA
[5. Night Flying]
Due to less visual cues at night, maintain higher throttle settings during an approach or VFR pattern to prevent excessive rates of descent.
FALSE
[5. Night Flying]
The landing zone at night should be adjusted to plan at landing 1000 to 2500 feet down the runway.
FALSE
[5. Night Flying]
During takeoff, transition from visual references to instuments immediately if IMC is going to encountered.
false, at a rate equal to the loss of references, not immediately.
[6. Instrument Flying]
In IMC, for turns less than 30 degrees of heading change, use _____ as the bank angle.
number of degrees to turn
[6. Instrument Flying]
List the three steps to recover from an unusual attitude instrument conditions.
recognize, confirm, recover
[6. Instrument Flying]
T-1 holding airspeed is ______ KIAS
180
[6. Instrument Flying]
At typical T-1 final approach speeds, the standard rate of turn AOB for a no-gyro approach is ____, the 1/2 standard rate AOB is _____.
20;10
[6. Instrument Flying]
On a circle, select final flap setting not later than departing the MDA and intercepting a normal glidepath to the landing runway.
TRUE
[6. Instrument Flying]
As a technique, file an altitude between FL330 and FL390 if flying distances are greater than ________ NM.
300
[7. Navigation]
When flying an enroute navigation mission a lead point is required on ____ alttitude system, while on the ______ altitude system you may use lead turns. (enter low or high)
low/high
[7. Navigation]
An alphabetic indentifier displayed on the EHSI is the same as identifying and monitoring a NAVAID aurally when the navaid is a VOR
TRUE
[7. Navigation]
If you are going to accomplish a VFR arrival out of an IFR flight, cancel your IFR clearance approximately ____ NM from the destination airfield.
30
[7. Navigation]
Clearance for a visual approach is clearance for a straight-in or an overhead pattern, your choice.
FALSE
[7. Navigation]
The main objective of an airdrop mission is to ___
deliver cargo and troops to the DZ safely, accurately and on time
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Lead’s primary responsibilities are ___
to navigate, time, clear for the formation and provide effective communications
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Wing’s responsibilities include ___
maintaining formation position, clearing through lead, backing up navigation, and being prepared to assume lead at any time
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
T/F: The purpose of low-level navigation is to fly a selected ground track to arrive at a designated DZ at a designated time over target (TOT).
TRUE
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Information on low-level routes can be found in the ___
AP/1B
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
On an IR fly ___ KGS and on SR’s and VR’s fly ___ KGS and are flown between ___ and ___ feet AGL depending on pilot experience and comfort level.
240, 210, 500, 1500
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The ___ chart, a ____ scale chart is the best choice to use while flying low-levels
TPC, 1:500,000
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
What is the definition of BINGO fuel on a low-level?
Fuel needed to return to base or destination airfield by the most practical means from the most distant point on the low level
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The ERAA provides ______ clearance above the highest obstacle within ____ either side of the entire low level route and should be set in the ___
1000 (2000 mountainous); 25 NM, altitude preselect window
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
What should the radio altimeter be set to when flying low level
the altitude you fly the route
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
When flying a low-level route, set the DH on your EHSI to ______.
10% below the planned terrain clearance altitude
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
A clearance from ARTCC is required to enter an ___ but not to enter ____ or ____
IR, SR, VR
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
After canceling IFR, squawk ___ monitor FSS on ____ and make a radio call advising other aircraft of ____
1200/4000, 255.4, callsign, groundspeed, altitude, entry and exit time.
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
For descent into a low level, cross-check the radio altimeter and the pressure altimeter at an altitude between _____ to _____ feet AGL.
1000, 2000
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
If wx prevents a VMC formation flight to the entry point, lead will take off ___ mintues earlier than required and hold at an orbit point no lower than ____ feet AGL
8, 1500
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Wing will take off ___ minutes after lead and enter the same holding pattern at a minimum of ____ feet above lead until _____ (3 things)
4, 1000, both a/c are VMC, visual is established, and lead declares MARSA
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Enroute to and from routes, observe VFR hemispheric altitudes above ____
3000 ft AGL
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The best method of map reading on a low-level is ____
clock to map to ground
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
For low-level timing corrections, for every second late or early, increase or decrease your ____ by ___ knot for the number of minutes equal to the NM’s per minute you’re flying.
groundspeed, 1
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
For course corrections fly the Standard Closing Angle which is ____ and change your heading toward your track for __ minute(s) for every ____ NM off track.
SCA = 60/GS in NM’s per minute, 1, 1
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
If you abort a low-level it is okay to reenter the route
FALSE
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Formation airdrop is ___-only manuerver and the planned airdrop altitude is ________.
day, 1000 feet AGL (or 500 feet above the planned route altitude)
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
On an airdrop sortie, lead will initiate the slowdown ___ NM’s prior to the DZ. When lead calls “slow down”, both aircraft set power to ______, raise the nose to ____ degrees nose high and lower flaps to _____ degrees when slower than ______ KIAS and slow to ___ KIAS
3-7, IDLE/10/10/200/140
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Once you pass the IP and initiate the slowdown, be prepared to visually locate the DZ and maneuver the aircraft to maintain the run-in heading to the DZ. Also be prepared to adjust for drift to maintain a proper ground track to the DZ
TRUE
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The “execute” command (tone or radio) is the wingman’s signal to begin timing and that the escape maneuver will begin in ______ seconds.
15
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
If you abort a low level in formation and go into weather or wing loses sight of lead, lead will climb to ______ and wing will climb to ______ using ____ intiate ___ and attempt to get ____ spacing
ERAA, ERAA + 1000, MCT, lost wingman procedures, 1
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The slowdown point is fixed and cannot be adjusted while flying the airdrop route.
FALSE
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
During the airdrop escape maneuver, the lead aircraft will turn to the escape heading, raise the flaps, and set power to ____ and begin the descent.
MCT - 5% N1
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The ____ is the best choice to use while flying low level missions in the T-1.
TPC (1:500,000 scale)
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
The emergency route abort altitude provides ______ clearance above the highest obstacle within ____ either side of the entire low level route.
1000 (2000 mountainous); 25 NM
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
When flying a low-level route, set the DH on your DH on your EHSI to ______.
10% below the planned terrain clearance altitude
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Entry into an SR low level route requires a clearance from ARTCC.
false (req’d for IFR MTR)
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
Squawk ____ on a VFR MTR and ____ on a SR
4000, 1200
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
For descent into a low level, cross-check the radio altimeter and the pressure altimeter at an altitude between _____ to _____ feet AGL.
1000;2000
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
In AETC, the planned airdrop altitude is ________ at a speed of ______.
1000 feet AGL (or 500 feet above the planned route altitude), 140 KIAS 10 flap
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
On an airdrop sortie, when lead calls “slow down”, both aircraft set power to ______, raise the nose to ____ degrees nose high and lower flaps to _____ degrees when slower than ______ KIAS
IDLE/10/10/200
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
If you abort a low level in formation and go into weather, lead will climb to ______ and wing will climb to ______
ERAA, ERAA + 1000
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
During the airdrop escape maneuver, the lead aircraft set power to _______.
MCT minus 5% N1
[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]
