AFM 11-247 Flashcards

1
Q

Since the T-1A instruments are self-testing, a check of the heading system during taxi and runway alignment is not required.

A

FALSE

[1. General Information]

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2
Q

An instrument cockpit check (as outlined in AFMAN 11-217) is not required prior to takeoff in the T-1.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

An instrument cockpit check is not required prior to takeoff in the T-1.

A

TRUE

[1. General Information]

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4
Q

When can you perform after landing checks.

A

Clear of the active runway

[1. General Information]

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5
Q

After landing checks cannot be performed until A. You are below 100 knots. B. You are at a safe taxi speed. C. Clear of the active runway. D. You have reached the parallel taxiway.

A

C

[1. General Information]

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6
Q

Before takeoff, the PF sets the airspeed marker on _____, the PNF sets _____, and they both memorize ____ if different than S1.

A

Vco, S1, Vrot

[1. General Information]

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7
Q

Before takeoff, the PF sets the airspeed marker on ____, the PNF sets ____, and they both memorize ____ if different than S1.

A

Vco, S1, Vrot

[1. General Information]

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8
Q

An IFR clearance will guarantee separation from other aircraft and relieves the pilot of the responsibility to clear.

A

FALSE

[1. General Information]

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9
Q

The primary references for area orientation is/are

A. Local area charts.

B. Area landmarks.

C. Navaids (“pie in the sky”)

D. A and B

E. A and C

A

D

[1. General Information]

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10
Q

What should be your initial pitch on a takeoff or touch-and-go.

A

13 to 15 degrees

[1. General Information]

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11
Q

The PNF may accomplish checklists in a congested area.

A

FALSE

[1. General Information]

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12
Q

The PNF will announce or verbalize all checklist items and ensure correct procedures are followed for that particluar step.

A

TRUE

[1. General Information]

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13
Q

If you transfer aircraft control with the autopilot on you must turn it off before you transfer control.

A

FALSE

[1. General Information]

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14
Q

During a static takeoff, the throttles should be set to ____ to check engine instruments.

A

80%N1

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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15
Q

During a static takeoff, the throttles should be set to ____ to check engine instruments. A. 60% N1

B. 80% N1

C. 60% N2

D. 80% N2

A

B

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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16
Q

During takeoff, the PNF should adjust the N1 speed to TRT prior to reaching ____ KIAS.

A

60

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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17
Q

During takeoff, the airspeed indicator should be checked passing _____ KIAS

A

80

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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18
Q

Passing ____ feet(1500 feet if required) above ground level with a minimum airspeed of ______ KIAS call for flaps up.

A

400, Vco+10

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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19
Q

On a takeoff after retracting flaps, what should your pitch be set to.

A

10 degrees

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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20
Q

MCT should be reset (approximately) every ______ feet during the climb.

A

5000

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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21
Q

Fill in the blanks; _____ KIAS for two-engine rate climbs. _____ KIAS for two-engine range climbs.

_____ KIAS for one-engine climbs.

A

220, 250, 170

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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22
Q

What defines a postive rate of climb for gear retraction after takeoff.

A

VSI and altimeter or outside references (when available) show a climb

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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23
Q

As a technique, increase power form idle to TRT in approximately _______ seconds to avoid any chance of compressor stall or overspeed.

A

1 to 3

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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24
Q

During a rolling takeoff you have to stop the throttles at 80%N1 to check them before setting TRT.

A

FALSE

[2. Takeoff, Climb and Level Off]

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25
Q

During low speed flight (I.e. in the pattern) when power is changed from IDLE to go-aroung N1, there is an initial nose up/down tendency due to the high mounted engines.

A

down

[3. Transition]

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26
Q

In order to maintain airspeed during a level turn you must increase ____ and _____.

A

power;back pressure

[3. Transition]

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27
Q

Use _____ degrees AOB for turns that are greater than 30 degrees heading change.

A

30

[3. Transition]

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28
Q

Fill in the blank: The recommend roll out is ______ for a 30 degree AOB turn and ______ for a 45 degree AOB turn

A

5;10

[3. Transition]

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29
Q

What airspeed do we normal practice steep turns at.

A

160, 200, and 230

[3. Transition]

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30
Q

List the five things that you accomplished before starting TP stalls and slow flight.

A

Yaw damper OFF, AOA to 1.3, MCT posted, approach speed posted, CLEAR!

[3. Transition]

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31
Q

On a TP stall, what airspeed do you raise the flaps from 10 to zero.

A

Vref + 20

[3. Transition]

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32
Q

What is slow flight airspeed.

A

Vapp - 5 knots

[3. Transition]

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33
Q

What is a normal AOA recovery for a TP stall

A

0.8 to 0.85

[3. Transition]

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34
Q

Standard VASIs have a ______degree glide slope and a glidepath intercept point ____the runway theshold. Nonstardard VASIs have a ______degree glide slope and a glidepath intercept point ____ the runway threshold.

A

2.5 to 3.0; 750 feet beyond 3.5 ; 450 short

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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35
Q

On a normal VFR pattern attempt to arrive ____ from the runway at approximately _____ feet AGL.

A

1 mile; 300 feet

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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36
Q

Maintain minimum airspeed of _____ during the final turn of a closed patter until you no longer requried more than 15 degrees of bank.

A

Vapp + 10

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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37
Q

The normal landing zone for the T-1 is between ____ and _____ feet down the runway.

A

500 to 2000

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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38
Q

Consider landing with ______ degree flaps in strong crosswinds or gusty wind conditions.

A

10

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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39
Q

No flap landings are ensured ______ (earlier/later) than a 30 flap landing.

A

earlier

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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40
Q

If multiple touch-and-go landings are being conducted, the crew will recompute Vapp for each _______ pound change in weight.

A

500

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

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41
Q

If touchdown is imminent, after starting a go-around, discontinue the go-around and accomplish a touch-and-go.

A

FALSE

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

42
Q

What pitch should use use for a normal go-around and a single-engine go-around.

A

13-15 for normal; 10 for single-engine.

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

43
Q

The best remedy for a porpoise is an immediate go-around.

A

TRUE

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

44
Q

The chances of ballooning during a landing are greatest with a 30 flap setting.

A

FALSE

[4. Traffic Patterns and Landings]

45
Q

In terms of checking exterior lighting, at home station, the crew chiefs will check the exterior lighting in accordance with required inspections (PR/BPO,TH)

A

TRUE

[5. Night Flying]

46
Q

The gloves make a good make shift rag that should be used to clean dust off the instrument panels

A

FALSE

[5. Night Flying]

47
Q

At night, lighted objects often appear closer than they actually are.

A

TRUE

[5. Night Flying]

48
Q

Taxi staggered at night

A

FALSE

[5. Night Flying]

49
Q

At bases other than home field, glidepath guidance must be available and monitored during night VFR pattern operations.

A

TRUE

[5. Night Flying]

50
Q

All the following constitue acceptable glidepath guidance for VFR patterns at night except. VASI PAR ILS FLOLS

A

PAR

[5. Night Flying]

51
Q

Can you fly a nonprecision approach at night without glidepath guicance.

A

yes, as long as you do not decend below the MDA

[5. Night Flying]

52
Q

Due to less visual cues at night, maintain higher throttle settings during an approach or VFR pattern to prevent excessive rates of descent.

A

FALSE

[5. Night Flying]

53
Q

The landing zone at night should be adjusted to plan at landing 1000 to 2500 feet down the runway.

A

FALSE

[5. Night Flying]

54
Q

During takeoff, transition from visual references to instuments immediately if IMC is going to encountered.

A

false, at a rate equal to the loss of references, not immediately.

[6. Instrument Flying]

55
Q

In IMC, for turns less than 30 degrees of heading change, use _____ as the bank angle.

A

number of degrees to turn

[6. Instrument Flying]

56
Q

List the three steps to recover from an unusual attitude instrument conditions.

A

recognize, confirm, recover

[6. Instrument Flying]

57
Q

T-1 holding airspeed is ______ KIAS

A

180

[6. Instrument Flying]

58
Q

At typical T-1 final approach speeds, the standard rate of turn AOB for a no-gyro approach is ____, the 1/2 standard rate AOB is _____.

A

20;10

[6. Instrument Flying]

59
Q

On a circle, select final flap setting not later than departing the MDA and intercepting a normal glidepath to the landing runway.

A

TRUE

[6. Instrument Flying]

60
Q

As a technique, file an altitude between FL330 and FL390 if flying distances are greater than ________ NM.

A

300

[7. Navigation]

61
Q

When flying an enroute navigation mission a lead point is required on ____ alttitude system, while on the ______ altitude system you may use lead turns. (enter low or high)

A

low/high

[7. Navigation]

62
Q

An alphabetic indentifier displayed on the EHSI is the same as identifying and monitoring a NAVAID aurally when the navaid is a VOR

A

TRUE

[7. Navigation]

63
Q

If you are going to accomplish a VFR arrival out of an IFR flight, cancel your IFR clearance approximately ____ NM from the destination airfield.

A

30

[7. Navigation]

64
Q

Clearance for a visual approach is clearance for a straight-in or an overhead pattern, your choice.

A

FALSE

[7. Navigation]

65
Q

The main objective of an airdrop mission is to ___

A

deliver cargo and troops to the DZ safely, accurately and on time

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

66
Q

Lead’s primary responsibilities are ___

A

to navigate, time, clear for the formation and provide effective communications

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

67
Q

Wing’s responsibilities include ___

A

maintaining formation position, clearing through lead, backing up navigation, and being prepared to assume lead at any time

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

68
Q

T/F: The purpose of low-level navigation is to fly a selected ground track to arrive at a designated DZ at a designated time over target (TOT).

A

TRUE

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

69
Q

Information on low-level routes can be found in the ___

A

AP/1B

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

70
Q

On an IR fly ___ KGS and on SR’s and VR’s fly ___ KGS and are flown between ___ and ___ feet AGL depending on pilot experience and comfort level.

A

240, 210, 500, 1500

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

71
Q

The ___ chart, a ____ scale chart is the best choice to use while flying low-levels

A

TPC, 1:500,000

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

72
Q

What is the definition of BINGO fuel on a low-level?

A

Fuel needed to return to base or destination airfield by the most practical means from the most distant point on the low level

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

73
Q

The ERAA provides ______ clearance above the highest obstacle within ____ either side of the entire low level route and should be set in the ___

A

1000 (2000 mountainous); 25 NM, altitude preselect window

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

74
Q

What should the radio altimeter be set to when flying low level

A

the altitude you fly the route

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

75
Q

When flying a low-level route, set the DH on your EHSI to ______.

A

10% below the planned terrain clearance altitude

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

76
Q

A clearance from ARTCC is required to enter an ___ but not to enter ____ or ____

A

IR, SR, VR

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

77
Q

After canceling IFR, squawk ___ monitor FSS on ____ and make a radio call advising other aircraft of ____

A

1200/4000, 255.4, callsign, groundspeed, altitude, entry and exit time.

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

78
Q

For descent into a low level, cross-check the radio altimeter and the pressure altimeter at an altitude between _____ to _____ feet AGL.

A

1000, 2000

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

79
Q

If wx prevents a VMC formation flight to the entry point, lead will take off ___ mintues earlier than required and hold at an orbit point no lower than ____ feet AGL

A

8, 1500

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

80
Q

Wing will take off ___ minutes after lead and enter the same holding pattern at a minimum of ____ feet above lead until _____ (3 things)

A

4, 1000, both a/c are VMC, visual is established, and lead declares MARSA

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

81
Q

Enroute to and from routes, observe VFR hemispheric altitudes above ____

A

3000 ft AGL

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

82
Q

The best method of map reading on a low-level is ____

A

clock to map to ground

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

83
Q

For low-level timing corrections, for every second late or early, increase or decrease your ____ by ___ knot for the number of minutes equal to the NM’s per minute you’re flying.

A

groundspeed, 1

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

84
Q

For course corrections fly the Standard Closing Angle which is ____ and change your heading toward your track for __ minute(s) for every ____ NM off track.

A

SCA = 60/GS in NM’s per minute, 1, 1

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

85
Q

If you abort a low-level it is okay to reenter the route

A

FALSE

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

86
Q

Formation airdrop is ___-only manuerver and the planned airdrop altitude is ________.

A

day, 1000 feet AGL (or 500 feet above the planned route altitude)

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

87
Q

On an airdrop sortie, lead will initiate the slowdown ___ NM’s prior to the DZ. When lead calls “slow down”, both aircraft set power to ______, raise the nose to ____ degrees nose high and lower flaps to _____ degrees when slower than ______ KIAS and slow to ___ KIAS

A

3-7, IDLE/10/10/200/140

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

88
Q

Once you pass the IP and initiate the slowdown, be prepared to visually locate the DZ and maneuver the aircraft to maintain the run-in heading to the DZ. Also be prepared to adjust for drift to maintain a proper ground track to the DZ

A

TRUE

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

89
Q

The “execute” command (tone or radio) is the wingman’s signal to begin timing and that the escape maneuver will begin in ______ seconds.

A

15

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

90
Q

If you abort a low level in formation and go into weather or wing loses sight of lead, lead will climb to ______ and wing will climb to ______ using ____ intiate ___ and attempt to get ____ spacing

A

ERAA, ERAA + 1000, MCT, lost wingman procedures, 1

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

91
Q

The slowdown point is fixed and cannot be adjusted while flying the airdrop route.

A

FALSE

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

92
Q

During the airdrop escape maneuver, the lead aircraft will turn to the escape heading, raise the flaps, and set power to ____ and begin the descent.

A

MCT - 5% N1

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

93
Q

The ____ is the best choice to use while flying low level missions in the T-1.

A

TPC (1:500,000 scale)

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

94
Q

The emergency route abort altitude provides ______ clearance above the highest obstacle within ____ either side of the entire low level route.

A

1000 (2000 mountainous); 25 NM

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

95
Q

When flying a low-level route, set the DH on your DH on your EHSI to ______.

A

10% below the planned terrain clearance altitude

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

96
Q

Entry into an SR low level route requires a clearance from ARTCC.

A

false (req’d for IFR MTR)

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

97
Q

Squawk ____ on a VFR MTR and ____ on a SR

A

4000, 1200

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

98
Q

For descent into a low level, cross-check the radio altimeter and the pressure altimeter at an altitude between _____ to _____ feet AGL.

A

1000;2000

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

99
Q

In AETC, the planned airdrop altitude is ________ at a speed of ______.

A

1000 feet AGL (or 500 feet above the planned route altitude), 140 KIAS 10 flap

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

100
Q

On an airdrop sortie, when lead calls “slow down”, both aircraft set power to ______, raise the nose to ____ degrees nose high and lower flaps to _____ degrees when slower than ______ KIAS

A

IDLE/10/10/200

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

101
Q

If you abort a low level in formation and go into weather, lead will climb to ______ and wing will climb to ______

A

ERAA, ERAA + 1000

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]

102
Q

During the airdrop escape maneuver, the lead aircraft set power to _______.

A

MCT minus 5% N1

[10. Low-Level Navigation and Formation Airdrop]