11-217 V1 Flashcards
The bearing pointer will point to the station when tuning in the ILS.
FALSE
Each dot of deviation on the VOR represents ____ degrees.
5
Although the course selected has no effect on the CDI, always set the published inbound front course of the ILS in the course selector window.
TRUE
What purpose does the TO/FROM indication have on an ILS.
nothing, indication is not valid
The appearance of a GS or LOC warning flag indicates course or glide slope signal strength is not sufficient.
TRUE
Which NAVAID will continue to point to the station even after a malfunction in the compass system.
NDB/ADF
Check NOTAMs and FLIP before flight for possible NAVAID limitations or malfunctions.
TRUE
Most VORs are equipped for voice transmission.
TRUE
How are VOR’s without voice capability annotated on enroute and sectional charts.
underlining of frequency (annotated as VORW in IFR Sup)
What are the two ways to identify a VOR?
By Morse Code or recorded voice ID
Due to the nature of the TACAN signal, it is possible for the TACAN azimuth to lock on in multiples of 40 degrees from the true bearing with no warning flag appearing.
TRUE
The LDA is of comparable utility and accuracy to a localizer but is not always aligned with the centerline of the runway.
true (Localizer signal is within 3 degs of rwy alignment. If alignment exceeds 3 degs its an LDA)
Discontinue use of the ADF if you get a warning flag.
false (trick question ADF receivers do not have flag to warn pilot so monitor at all times)
VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions.
TRUE
Which NAVAID below does not have voice capability. VOR TACAN ADF ILS
TACAN
DME does not operate on line-of-sight principle, preventing slant range problems.
false (DME operates on line of sight, and distance is slant range, not horizontal distance)
Unless otherwise stated, the glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____NM from the glide slope antenna.
10
The localizer is usable and accurate to a range of ____ NM from the antenna unless otherwise stated on the IAP.
18
Glide slope signals are not accurate when flying a localizer back course approach unless specified otherwise.
TRUE
How is the outer marker beacon identified aurally.
continuous dashes
How is the middle marker identified aurally.
alternating dashes and dots
How is the inner marker beacon identified aurally.
continuous dots
What do you call a radio beacon when it is used in conjunction with an ILS marker.
a compass locator
GPS satellite spacing is arranged such that ____ satellites will normally be in view to the user, thereby, ensuring worldwide coverage in ____ orbital planes.
5 to 8, 6
Wind drift should not be applied when flying radar vectors.
TRUE
A TACAN station transmits an aural three-letter Morse code identifier approximately every ____ seconds. (2,15,35,45)
35
When reading the Morse code four-letter identifier the first letter will be a ““K” denoting it as an ILS.
false (should be an “I”)
Not only does the ADF make a good source for listening to commercial broadcasting stations, these commercial broadcasting station also make good navigational aids.
false (should be used with caution, they are not flight checked for navigation)
Voice communications is possible on VOR, ILS, and ADF, but not a TACAN.
TRUE
Homing to a station should be used when maintaining course is required.
FALSE
If you put a VOR in your NAVAIDS to fly off of and it’s 3 letter identifier is not showing up in your EHSI window, can you use it for navigation.
no, must identify station and monitor it to ensure reliability. If Morse code shows up on VOR can use it without with listening to Morse code.
When intercepting a course, the angle of intercept should not exceed ____ degrees.
90
Y TACANs do not produce Morse codes for identification.
FALSE
Station passage on a VOR and VOR/DME occurs when.
TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM
Station passage on a TACAN occurs when.
When the range indicator stops decreasing.
Station passage on an ADF occurs when.
When the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course. (not talking subsequent turns in holding)
For groundspeed checks if the aircraft is at FL 200, groundspeed checks should be performed when beyond ___ nautical miles from the station.
20 (aircraft slant range distance should be more than the aircraft altitude divided by 1000.
Groundspeed checks made below ______ feet are accurate at any distance.
5000
A technique for maintaining an arc is to displace the bearing pointer _____ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc, and ___ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.
5, 10
List the three steps that apply to every pilot in every aircraft when using NAVAIDs. I.e. the first thing you should do before using the information of a NAVAID.
Tune, Identify, and Monitor
Altimeter checkpoints are required at all USAF bases if the takeoff end of the runway varies more than ____ feet from the official field elevation.
25
The maximum allowable error is ____ feet from your indicated altitude to the elevation of a known checkpoint (i.e. field elevation)
75
You are told you altimeter setting is 30.02 and you field elevation is 1000 feet. What should you pressure altitude be.
900 feet PA
High pressure is usually associated with good weather.
TRUE
Cold weather altimeter corrections will only be made for DHs, Minimum Descent Altitudes (MDAs), and other altitude inside, but not including, the Final Approach Fix (FAF).
TRUE
Where should you look for cold weather altimeter correction procedures.
FIH
Military Summary Reports and FDC NOTAMS are the same thing.
FALSE
________ contain information about runway closures, NAVAID outages, and frequency changes. 1. Civilian “D” Series NOTAMS 2. Civilian “L” Series NOTAMS 3. Class II NOTAMS 4. FDC NOTAMS
- D series
How do you obtain Civilian “L” NOTAMS.
calling the local FSS
The most important thing to know about FDC NOTAMs is that they are regulatory.
TRUE
What must you enter in the DINS web page to get NOTAMs referring to GPS
KGPS
You must recheck your NOTAMs prior to all flights to ensure you have the latest NOTAMs.
TRUE
Low altitude (victor) airways are designated from ______ feet above the surface (sometimes higher) up to but not including _____ feet MSL.
1200/18000
An aircraft can fly an IAP only for its own category or ______(lower/higher), unless otherwise authorized by AF instruction or MAJCOM directives.
higher
Fill in the speeds for aircraft category for approaches. Category A - Category B - Category C- Category D- Category E-
A - less the 91 knots B- 91 knots or more but less that 121 knots C- 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots. D- 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots E- 166 knots or more
High altitude IAP charts depict instrument approaches for which category of aircraft.
C, D, and E (Low altitude IAP charts depict A,B,C,D)
If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with incompatible missed approach instructions, coordinate alternate missed approach/departure instructions with ATC before ______.
accepting approach clearance
When reference FLIP, if you are planning to accomplish the VOR/DME 17, what does this title indicate.
A VOR and or DME is required to execute the final approach. Final approach guidance to runway 17 is provided by the VOR, additional equipment may be required to execute the other portions of the procedure.
How is a circle identified on an IAP.
name of approach is followed by letter. EX TACAN-A
Emergency safe altitude provides what.
1000 feet or 2000 feet in mountainous within 100NM of the facility.
Define field elevation.
highest point on any usable landing surface.
Define touchdown zone elevation.
highest point in the first 3000 feet of the landing runway.
For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent gradient will not exceed _____ feet per NM ; and for a high altitude approach, the maximum allowable initial gradient is _______ feet per NM.
500;1000
VDPs are not a mandatory part of the approach.
true (but you should use them or calculate them)
A straight-in approach may bring your aircraft to the runway as much as ____ degrees off of the runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach.
30
On IAPs with a single ring, the entire plan view is to scale.
TRUE
A 2.5% gradient equates to _______ft/nm.
152
A 3.3% gradient equates to _____ feet/NM.
200
Unlike USAF and USN fields, Civil and Army fields expect you to cross the departure end of the runway at ________ ft.
35
Runway end crossing heights are clearly identified in countries outside the United States (ICA0).
FALSE
When TERPS evaluate a field and no obstacles penetrate the 40:1 obstacle identification surface (OIS), then a minimum climb gradient of _____ ft/nm will ensure proper (48ft) obstacle clearance.
200
To fly a diverse departure, fly runway heading until _____ feet above field elevation before turning while maintaining a minimum climb gradient of ____ ft/nm.
400/200
When flying a diverse departure, how long do you maintain 200 ft/nm climb gradient.
until reaching a minimum IFR altitude
No matter what method of IFR departure is used, delay all turns until when.
400 feet above airport elevation