11-202V3 Flashcards

1
Q

11-202V3 does not include any directives that might be included in FAR’s.

A

FALSE

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2
Q

AFI 11-202v3 is a common source of ____ directive(s). A. Air Force-specific guidance B. Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) C. ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) D. A and C E. All of the above.

A

E

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3
Q

AFI 11-202V3 provides guidance for every conceivable circumstance.

A

FALSE

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4
Q

Air Force Instruction 11-202v3 includes items that might be found in the Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs).

A

TRUE

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5
Q

When deviating from an ATC clearance, PIC will notify ATC ___

A

as soon as possible

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6
Q

As an Air Force pilot we must also comply with FAR’s where they may apply.

A

TRUE

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7
Q

List the 3 times a PIC may deviate from any flight rule.

A
  1. An in-flight emergency requiring immediate action. 2. Deviation is required to protect lives. 3. When safety of flight dictates.
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8
Q

If you deviate from a flight rule and/or are given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency you will verbally report the incident to your immediate supervisor and commander within _____ hours of the incident.

A

24

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9
Q

The first thing the Air Force will do is release your name to the non-USAF agencies if they are inquiring about a possible violation.

A

FALSE

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10
Q

If a deviation from a flight rule and/ or traffic priority was given in an emergency, the PIC has to make a detailed written report.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

The ________ is ultimately responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.

A

PIC

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12
Q

Air Force pilots cannot be violated by the FAA as a result of a flight rule deviation.

A

TRUE (If the AFREP chooses to release your name)

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13
Q

What is the rule regarding checking the ASRR.

A

It will be checked everyflight. The PIC is ultimately responsible. Our SUP to 11-202V3 designates “routine” use airfields that do not have to be checked.

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14
Q

Re-checking the weather for the second leg of your out-and-back sortie is optional if the original brief reported the weather as better than 5000’ and 5 vis.

A

FALSE

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15
Q

Before takeoff the aircraft must have enough usable fuel aboard to complete the flight to a final landing, either at the destination airport or alternate ariport (if one is required), plus the fuel reserve.

A

TRUE

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16
Q

Being an AETC pilot we have to carry enough fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination, plus enough to get to an alternate and reserves.

A

false (we use ceiling and vis criteria)

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17
Q

The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling point by _______________________.

A

10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater.

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18
Q

You are flying a typical 2.0 from Vance to Fort Smith, according to 11-202V3, how much fuel reserves do you need. (in time)

A

20 minutes

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19
Q

Flights conducted in IMC weather require:

A

Operational anti-icing and/or de-icing equipment designed to cope with the type and severity of known or forecast icing conditions. Such equipment is not required for brief exposures when climbing or descending to an operating altitude above or below the icing condition.

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20
Q

Your scheduler is feeling the pressure of the time line and wants you to fly a low level and your bud to fly a nav sortie all on the same sortie. This requires a 3.6 or 3 hours and 39 minutes of flying. According to 11-202V3 how much fuel reserve do you

A

10% of 219 minutes is 22 minutes.

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21
Q

You hit the jackpot and got assigned an AWACS out of pilot training. Your first mission has you flying a 10 hour sortie with no refueling. Your old A/C commander went through pilot training in a T-38 and has no idea how to figure your fuel reserves requ

A

10% of 600 minutes is 60 so use 45 minutes.

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22
Q

You must wait until you are actually minimum fuel to declare “min” fuel.

A

FALSE

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23
Q

How do you compute fuel reserves for the T-1.

A

maximum endurance at 10,000 ft.

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24
Q

The PIC will ensure that cellular phones are turned off and stowed from the time the aircraft leaves its parking spot for departure until clear of the runway after landing.

A

TRUE

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25
Q

The very last option for obtaining weather at the outbase on an out-and-back sortie is to call FSS.

A

true (reference AETC sup for this answer, most likely when you call FSS you are not talking to a qualified FAA forecaster or briefer)

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26
Q

At the outbase on an out-and-back sortie feel free to use Vance’s 1-800 to get a phone patch to the Vance weather shop and update your weather.

A

true (this should actually be your first choice)

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27
Q

At night ensure at least one crew member has an operable flashlight.

A

false (every crew member)

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28
Q

If there are no possible means of obtaining weather from an approve source what do you do.

A

fly (VMC) to a point where contact can be made with an approved weather source. (like this would ever happen)

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29
Q

Before departing each intermediate stop, obtain the latest ________ information available for the intended route, destination and alternate. A) weather B) notams C) financial D) abort maintenance log

A

A and B

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30
Q

An AF Form 70 is required for every flight.

A

FALSE

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31
Q

Operational ant-icing and/or de-icing equipment is only required for flights conducted in IMC when icing is forecasted or reported.

A

FALSE

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32
Q

When an alternated is required, the weather conditions at the _____ govern the preflight fuel computation. A) original destination B) alternate C) originating airfield

A

A

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33
Q

The PIC sill file a flight plan for any flight of an Air force aircraft.

A

TRUE

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34
Q

A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided:

A
  1. Change does not penetrate an ADIZ 2. Controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight. 3. PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change. 4. The change complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area.
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35
Q

Where can you find the format for making changes to your flight plan.

A

back cover of the DoD en route supplements

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36
Q

An activated flight plan can only be closed through an ATC facility, preferable tower.

A

FALSE

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37
Q

Describe procedures to close a flight plan.

A

3.1.6. Closing the Flight Plan. If operating in the National Airspace System (NAS), on an IFR flight plan, into an airport with a functioning control tower, the flight plan is automatically closed upon landing. In all other cases, the PIC will ensure an activated flight plan is closed through a FSS or ATC facility by any means of communication available. Long distance telephone service may be used (collect if necessary).

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38
Q

If the student is comfortable with thier flight plan they may sign it and turn it in to base ops without the PIC’s signature.

A

False (The PIC will sign the flight plan)

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39
Q

In the absence of MAJCOM guidance, pilots must not file to or land fixed-wing AF aircraft at CONUS civil (P) airports except:

A
  1. Emergency 2. Recovery of active air defense interceptor aircraft 3. Wing commander or higher approves the flight and airport manager grants permission in advance (LOA) 4. Joint-use
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40
Q

Commanders will ensure all VFR flight operations are only conducted out of necessity, as dictated by mission or training requirements.

A

TRUE

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41
Q

The _____ is clearance authority in uncontrolled airspace.

A

PIC

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42
Q

The PIC will ensure compliance with ATC clearances or instructions unless: (list 4)

A
  1. An amended clearance is obtained 2. Emergency exists 3. Deviation required for RA on TCAS 4. Necessary to ensure safety of flight
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43
Q

Receiving a TA on the TCAS allows the pilot to deviate from ATC clearances or instructions.

A

False (must be an RA)

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44
Q

A person must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or its after effects. Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages during the ______ period prior to takeoff.

A

12

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45
Q

If VMC, under IFR, and in radar control, the aircrew is not responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, and obstacles.

A

FALSE

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46
Q

Concerning right-of-way, list the order of priority of aircraft of different categories.

A

aircraft in distress, balloons, gliders, aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary or fixed-wing aircraft.

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47
Q

If aircraft are approaching each other head-on, what should each aircraft do.

A

alter course to the right

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48
Q

If you are faster and can overtake an aircraft, you have the right-of-way.

A

false (aircraft being overtaken has right of way, overtaking aircraft alter course to the right)

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49
Q

What type of aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

A

aircraft in distress

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50
Q

PICs must not allow their aircraft to be flown so close to another that it creates a collision hazard. Use _____ feet of separation (well clear) as an approximate guide.

A

500

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51
Q

During flight, emergency frequencies must be monitored at all times unless they become a nuisance.

A

false- must be monitored at all times

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52
Q

Do not exceed _____ KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL

A

250

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53
Q

Do not exceed _______ KIAS at or below ______ feet above the surface within ____ NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace unless authorized.

A

200, 2500, 4

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54
Q

Do not exceed ______ KIAS in airspace underlying a Class B airspace or VFR corridor through Class B.

A

200

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55
Q

When can AF pilots operate their aircraft in excess of 250 KIAS below 10,000’ MSL?

A
  1. In resticted areas or MOA’s 2. During MAJCOM approved exercises or special missions 3. On Published IFR or VR MTR’s except for SR’s 4. Defined areas or routes that have been coordinated and not yet published 5. When aircraft T.O. requires a higher spped
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56
Q

What do you do with an expired database.

A
  1. continue mission with expired database, if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP 2. Get database updated at first opportunity 3. Don’t fly procedures requiring terminal or better accuracy
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57
Q

An ATC taxi clearance to or from the assigned runway that does not include hold instructions authorizes the aircraft to taxi across all other runways and taxiways enroute to or from the assigned runway.

A

TRUE

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58
Q

Normally, do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least _____ feet above the departure end of the runway elevation.

A

400

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59
Q

You do not have to wait until 400 feet above the departure end of the runway (DER) to execute a closed pattern. (not looking for T-1 answer, looking for 11-202V3 answer).

A

TRUE

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60
Q

400’ altitude restriction doesn’t apply if:

A
  1. Specifically cleared by ATC 2. safety dictates otherwise 3. req’d by local procedures 4. req’d by published DP
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61
Q

When shall the pilot report “gear down” to ATC.

A

prior to crossing the runway threshold

62
Q

Minimum altitude you must be at to fly over congested areas.

A

1000 feet above obstacle within 2000 foot radius.

63
Q

While flying SR-241 you notice you are going to fly over a boat near Kaw city. How high must you fly over this vessel?

A

500’

64
Q

You decide to do the Mt. Rushmore tour in you T-1. How high must you fly over Mt. Rushmore.

A

2000

65
Q

Do not practice simulated emergencies with passengers on board.

A

TRUE

66
Q

When must you display your position lights.

A
  1. Between official sunset and sunrise 2. immediately before engine start and when an engine is running 3. When parked in an area likely to create a hazard or while being towed unless clearly illuminated by an outside source
67
Q

Do not fly approaches to or land at uncontrolled airfields without OG/CC approval.

A

true (answer in SUP)

68
Q

Landing lights will be illuminated below ______ feet MSL, day or night, within operational constraints.

A

10,000

69
Q

A passenger riding in the back of the T-1 can chew tobacco.

A

FALSE

70
Q

PICs shall not intentionally operate into a thunderstorm.

A

TRUE

71
Q

You can takeoff from a field that is experiencing a gust front or strong winds due to a thunderstorm as long as the thunderstorm is not on the field.

A

false (shall not TO, land, or fly an approach at an airfield where thunderstorms are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, winshear, and (or) microbursts)

72
Q

The PIC will not takeoff with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces.

A

true (a thin layer of frost is permitted on the fuselage provided the letter and paint lines are visible)

73
Q

Pilots will report any ____ or _____.

A

windshear or wake turbulence

74
Q

What is the order of precedence of preferred night instrument approach procedures.

A

precision, non-precision, visual straight-in, VFR rectangular pattern.

75
Q

Pilots shall respond to all RA’s unless _____

A

doing so would jeopardize safe operation

76
Q

Pilots shall not deviate from an ATC clearace based soley on TA information.

A

TRUE

77
Q

Pilots who deviate from an ATC clearance due to an RA shall _____

A

notify ATC ASAP and promptly return to the clearance when traffic conflict is resolved

78
Q

If the aircraft loses cabin pressure, the pilot must initiate an immediate descent to the lowest practical altitude, preferable below ______ feet, but in no case allow cabin altitude to remain above ______ feet.

A

18000 / 25000

79
Q

If the aircraft loses cabin pressure and subsequently regains pressure, no report needs to be made if the cabin altitude never exceeded 18000ft.

A

FALSE

80
Q

The oxygen mask must be worn ______ by the remaining crew member if the pilot or copilot leaves his seat.

A

Above FL350

81
Q

The oxygen mask must be worn above FL350 by the remaining crew member if the pilot or copilot checks off to use the bathroom.

A

False (only applies to single seat aircraft)

82
Q

Each crewmember shall use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds ______.

A

10000ft

83
Q

When flying in an unpressurized aircraft, _____ft MSL shall not be exceeded with occupants on board who do not have oxygen.

A

13000

84
Q

Even if all occupants on board an unpressurized aircraft have oxygen, FL _____ shall not be exceeded.

A

250

85
Q

If an individual appears to be suffering decompression sickness, a crewmember should administer _____ to that individual.

A

100% oxygen

86
Q

Decompression sickness can occur up to _____ hours after mission completion.

A

12

87
Q

While during your VFR leg in the Nav phase you will request and utilize VFR Radar Advisory Services (flight following) to the maximum extent practical.

A

TRUE

88
Q

While flying VFR if the weather prevents continued flight under VFR on the planned route, what should you do.

A
  1. Alter route to maintain VFR to final destination. 2. Alter route to remain VFR until obtaining IFR clearance 3. Alter route to stay VFR to other suitable location
89
Q

Basic VFR is considered _______ feet and __ SMs.

A

1500 / 3

90
Q

List VFR weather requirements for Class A.

A

N/A

91
Q

VFR weather requirements for class B.

A

3 SM Clear of Clouds

92
Q

VFR weather requirements for Class C and D.

A

3 SM; 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal

93
Q

VFR weather requirements for Class E and G below 10000.

A

3 SMs; 500 below,1000 above, 2000 horizontal

94
Q

VFR weather requirements for Class E and G at or above 10000 MSL.

A

5 SMs; 1000 above, 1000 below, 1SM horizontal

95
Q

While flying VFR if the weather prevents continued flight under VFR on the planned route, what should you do.

A
  1. Alter route to maintain VFR to final destination. 2. Alter route to maintain VFr until receiving an IFR clearance 3. Alter route to stay VFR to other suitable location
96
Q

Basic VFR is considered _______ feet and __ SMs.

A

1500;3

97
Q

List VFR cloud clearances Class A.

A

N/A

98
Q

VFR cloud clearances for class B

A

3 SM Clear of Clouds

99
Q

VFR cloud clearances for Class C and D

A

3 SM; 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal

100
Q

VFR cloud clearance for Class E and G below 10000.

A

3 SMs; 500 below,1000 above, 2000 horizontal

101
Q

VFR cloud clearance for Class E and G at or above 10000 MSL.

A

5 SMs; 1000 above, 1000 below, 1SM horizontal

102
Q

Can AF fixed wing aircraft operate under Special VFR?

A

No

103
Q

Pilots will fly IFR when.

A
  1. WX requires 2. Class A 3. Within federal airways 4. Night
104
Q

I want to file IFR to Fort Smith. They have an ILS and my PWC mins are 300 and 1. The prevailing weather is forecast to be 100 and 1/2 mile ETA(+- 1 hour). Can I file to Fort Smith as long as I file an alternate.

A

no (prevailing wont allow, but a tempo group would allow you to file, just need an alternate)

105
Q

Pilots will fly IFR when.

A
  1. WX requires 2. Class A 3. Within federal airways 4. Night
106
Q

Pilots may file IFR to a destination with a published instrument approach capable of being flown with the navigational equipment aboard the aircraft.

A

TRUE

107
Q

Pilots may file to a destination whose forecast includes temporary (TEMPO) changes in ceiling and/or visibility required for the lowest suitable approach or PWC as long as you designate an alternate.

A

TRUE

108
Q

Designate an alternate if, for the ETA (+-1 hour) for the first point of intended landing, the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) is forecast to be less than:

A

ceiling or 3000 feet or vis of 3 SMs or 2 SMs more than the lowest compatible published landing minimum visibility, whichever is greater.

109
Q

Regardless of weather, pilots must designate an alternate airport on all IFR flight plans when: (list all)

A
  1. Radar required 2. GPS only available NAVAID 3. An unmonitored NAVAID 4. No weather reporting capability 5. Winds forecast out of limits
110
Q

I’m trying to file to KBFE field and the only approach they have is a TACAN 12. The weather required is 600 and 2. What is the lowest weather I can have and not require an alternate.

A

3000 and 4.

111
Q

I’m trying to file to KBFE and the weather is forecast to be 300 and 1(they have an ILS that requires 200 and 1/2). They have a tempo group at my ETA forecast to be 100 and 1/4 mile due to fog. Can I still file to KBFE.

A

yes, just need an alternate

112
Q

A Jeppesen developed approach (not currently approved by MAJCOM) is an approved published approach procedure for use by Air Force pilots.

A

FALSE

113
Q

At KBFE airfield, only the NDB is available (1000-2 required). Weather at or above _____ will allow the airfield to be used as an alternate.

A

1500, 3

114
Q

If KBFE has an ILS (200-1/2 required), a weather forecast of _________ (as a minimum) is required in order to use it as an alternate.

A

1000, 2

115
Q

An airfield designated with ANA can never be used as an alternate by AF aircrews.

A

false (rules for field without published approach apply: Forecast weather for the ETA (+/-1 hour) must permit a VFR descent from the IFR en route altitude to a VFR approach and landing.)

116
Q

What other conditions disqualify an airport as an alternate?

A

Radar required, GPS only, unmonitored NAVAIDS, no wx reporting, ANA displayed on approach plate (above expection applies)

117
Q

Pilots shall not takeoff when the existing weather is below

A

the landing minimums for the specific aircraft minimums unless authorized by the MAJCOM, but in no case less than 600 RVR)

118
Q

For an airport to qualify as an alternate, the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) for the ETA (+- 1 hour) at the alternate airport must be forecast to be what;

A

ceiling 1000 feet and vis 2 SM or ceiling 500 feet and 1 SM above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher.

119
Q

Using see and avoid criteria is your best option if you are unable to meet the required IFR climb gradient.

A

FALSE

120
Q

List the 6 types of instrument departures.

A

Diverse, Radar Vectors, VCOA, ODP, SID, Special MAJCOM certification

121
Q

What is the exception for Temporary conditions being below the weather required for filing a field as an alternate.

A

If the tempo is caused by thunderstorms or rain shower you can still use it as alternate if prevailing still meet requirements.

122
Q

For IFR departures when no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at _______ .

A

200 feet per nautical mile (3.3%) or greater.

123
Q

Once a controller uses the term “Radar Contact” you are no long responsible for obstruction clearance.

A

FALSE

124
Q

When flying on a federal airway, pilots shall not fly lower than the _______

A

MEA or MOCA

125
Q

When flying off airways, pilots shall not fly lower than the _____

A

OROCA or ORTCA (Off Route Obtacle/Terrain Clearance Altitude) or an altitude that will provide at least 1000ft of clearance above obstacles withing 5 NM of course, 2000 if in mountainous terrain

126
Q

Pilots must use (RVR) to determine visibility minimums for straight-in approaches. (PV) may be used when RVR is not available.

A

true (however, PV may be used if RVR is not reported)

127
Q

“VFR on Top” operations are allowed.

A

“VFR on Top” is prohibited unless prescribed in AFI 11-2 MDS specific or syllabus guidance

128
Q

If you are in radio contact with the destination tower and VMC you can cancel IFR.

A

TRUE

129
Q

When operating in controlled airspace under IFR, the PIC will immediately report to ATC the loss or impairment of ______ or ______.

A

navigational; air-to-ground communication capability

130
Q

You have just commenced the HI-TACAN 17R approach (500-2 required) when ATC announces the weather is 300-1. What are your options.

A
  1. Continue and land if able 2. Request clearance to holding fix 3. Divert to alternate
131
Q

I’m trying to file to KBFE and the weather is forecast to be 300 and 1(they have an ILS that requires 200 and 1/2). They have a tempo group at my ETA forecast to be 100 and 1/4 mile due to fog. Can I still file to KBFE.

A

yes

132
Q

What must I do if filing IFR to a field that requires radar to define a fix essential for flying the approach.

A

file to nonradar facility must provide a positive position within 25 NMs of the airfield or if in Class A airspace you may file to nearest nonradar facility fix and get radar vectors.

133
Q

Using see and avoid criteria is you best option if you are unable to meet the required IFR climb gradient.

A

FALSE

134
Q

If you are in radio contact with the destination tower and VMC you can cancel IFR.

A

TRUE

135
Q

When operating in controlled airspace under IFR, the PIC will immediately report to ATC the loss or impairment of ______ or ______.

A

navigational; air-to-ground communication capability

136
Q

You have just commenced the HI-TACAN 17R approach (500-2 required) when ATC announces the weather is 300-1. What are your options.

A
  1. Continue and land if able 2. Request clearance to holding fix 3. Divert to alternate
137
Q

I’m trying to file to KBFE and the weather is forecast to be 300 and 1(they have an ILS that requires 200 and 1/2). They have a tempo group at my ETA forecast to be 100 and 1/4 mile due to fog. Can I still file to KBFE.

A

yes

138
Q

What must I do if filing IFR to a field that requires radar to define a fix essential for flying the approach.

A

file to nonradar facility must provide a positive position within 25 NMs of the airfield or if in Class A airspace you may file to nearest nonradar facility fix and get radar vectors.

139
Q

Using see and avoid criteria is you best option if you are unable to meet the required IFR climb gradient.

A

FALSE

140
Q

I want to file IFR to Fort Smith. They have an ILS and my PWC mins are 300 and 1. The prevailing weather is forecast to be 100 and 1/2 mile ETA(+- 1 hour). Can I file to Fort Smith as long as I file an alternate.

A

no (prevailing wont allow, but a tempo group would allow you to file, just need an alternate)

141
Q

You can fly within 8 hours of consuming alcohol.

A

false (12 hours or while impaired by its effects)

142
Q

Do not fly within ___ hours of donating blood.

A

72

143
Q

Crew rest is required for preflight duties.

A

TRUE

144
Q

You just returned for Hawaii after spending many hours scuba diving. How much time do you have to wait after you last scuba diving trip to fly.

A

24

145
Q

Aircrews who transit more than ___ time zones should not perform flight duties within ___ hours of arrival at their destination.

A

4, 48

146
Q

The Crew Rest Period is normally a minimum of ____ hours.

A

12

147
Q

List max flying time for 7, 30, and 90 days:

A

56, 125, 330

148
Q

Aircrews will not fly withing ___ hours of a hypobaric (altitude) flight above 25,000 ft.

A

12

149
Q

Aircrews will not fly within ___ hours of scub diving or hyperbaric (compression) chamber exposure and aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes duration.

A

24

150
Q

As a little as ___ hours of sleep loss can result in significant reduction in individual performance.

A

2

151
Q

Controlled cockpit rest is allowed as long as it is ___ crewmember(s) at a time, all crew members remain ____ and rest periods don’t exceed ____ minutes.

A

1, at the stations, 45

152
Q

Controlled cockpit rest is allowed as long as it is ___ crewmember(s) at a time, all crew members remain ____ and rest periods don’t exceed ____ minutes.

A

1, at their stations, 45